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|Commerce · June 2025

UGC NET Commerce June 2025 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

The complete UGC NET June 2025 question paper for Commerce, covering Paper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (Commerce). Every question below is shown with its options and the correct answer, and a detailed explanation you can unlock by signing in. All 150 questions are free to practise.

UGC NET June 2025 at a glance

Exam	UGC NET June 2025
Papers	Paper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (Commerce)
Exam date(s)	June 27, 2025
Shift(s)	Shift 1
Paper 1 questions	50 questions · 60 minutes · 100 marks
Paper 2 questions	100 questions · 120 minutes · 200 marks
Total	150 questions
Marking scheme	+2 per correct answer · No negative marking

Paper 1

General Aptitude

UGC NET June 2025 · Commerce sitting

50 questions60 min100 marks

Practice Now

Paper 2

Commerce

UGC NET June 2025

100 questions120 min200 marks

Practice Now

Paper 1 — General Aptitude

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50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

Question 1
What is overall percentage of marks scored by student A in all the subjects together?
The following table shows the marks scored by six students (A-F) in six different subjects S1 to S6 having 160, 160, 120, 120, 200 and 240 as maximum marks respectively. Based on the data in the table, answer the question that follow.

Student S1 (Out of 160) S2 (Out of 160) S3 (Out of 120) S4 (Out of 120) S5 (Out of 200) S6 (Out of 240)
A 76 84 66 56 154 144
B 120 100 84 76 136 132
C 128 72 64 70 144 160
D 84 130 96 84 104 168
E 64 128 90 92 174 70
F 70 96 60 56 164 96
1. A55%
2. B56%
3. C57%
4. D58%
Answer: (D) 58%
Explanation
Total maximum marks across all six subjects are:
160 + 160 + 120 + 120 + 200 + 240 = 1000

Marks scored by student A across the six subjects are:
76 + 84 + 66 + 56 + 154 + 144 = 580

Overall percentage of marks scored by student A:
(580 / 1000) * 100% = 58%

A. 55% — incorrect. Corresponds to 550 total marks.

B. 56% — incorrect. Corresponds to 560 total marks.

C. 57% — incorrect. Corresponds to 570 total marks.

D. 58% — correct. Exactly matches the 580 marks scored out of 1000.
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Question 2
What is the average marks scored in the subject S5 by all the students together?
The following table shows the marks scored by six students (A-F) in six different subjects S1 to S6 having 160, 160, 120, 120, 200 and 240 as maximum marks respectively. Based on the data in the table, answer the question that follow.

Student S1 (Out of 160) S2 (Out of 160) S3 (Out of 120) S4 (Out of 120) S5 (Out of 200) S6 (Out of 240)
A 76 84 66 56 154 144
B 120 100 84 76 136 132
C 128 72 64 70 144 160
D 84 130 96 84 104 168
E 64 128 90 92 174 70
F 70 96 60 56 164 96
1. A142
2. B144
3. C146
4. D148
Answer: (C) 146
Explanation
Total marks scored by all six students in subject S5 are:
154 + 136 + 144 + 104 + 174 + 164 = 876

Number of students = 6

Average marks in S5:
876 / 6 = 146

A. 142 — incorrect. 142 * 6 would require a sum of 852 marks.

B. 144 — incorrect. 144 * 6 would require a sum of 864 marks.

C. 146 — correct. The sum 876 divided by 6 yields exactly 146.

D. 148 — incorrect. 148 * 6 would require a sum of 888 marks.
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Question 3
If for getting first division, a student needs to score minimum 60% marks in aggregate, then the number of students getting first division is:
The following table shows the marks scored by six students (A-F) in six different subjects S1 to S6 having 160, 160, 120, 120, 200 and 240 as maximum marks respectively. Based on the data in the table, answer the question that follow.

Student S1 (Out of 160) S2 (Out of 160) S3 (Out of 120) S4 (Out of 120) S5 (Out of 200) S6 (Out of 240)
A 76 84 66 56 154 144
B 120 100 84 76 136 132
C 128 72 64 70 144 160
D 84 130 96 84 104 168
E 64 128 90 92 174 70
F 70 96 60 56 164 96
1. A5
2. B3
3. C2
4. D4
Answer: (D) 4
Explanation
Total aggregate marks across all subjects equal 1000. A minimum of 60% corresponds to 600 marks.

Total marks scored by each student:

Student A: 76 + 84 + 66 + 56 + 154 + 144 = 580 (below 600)

Student B: 120 + 100 + 84 + 76 + 136 + 132 = 648 (qualifies)

Student C: 128 + 72 + 64 + 70 + 144 + 160 = 638 (qualifies)

Student D: 84 + 130 + 96 + 84 + 104 + 168 = 666 (qualifies)

Student E: 64 + 128 + 90 + 92 + 174 + 70 = 618 (qualifies)

Student F: 70 + 96 + 60 + 56 + 164 + 96 = 542 (below 600)

Four students (B, C, D, and E) achieve at least 600 marks.

A. 5 — incorrect. Neither student A nor F reaches 600 marks.

B. 3 — incorrect. Overlooks one of the four qualifying students.

C. 2 — incorrect. Understates the qualifying count by two students.

D. 4 — correct. Exactly four students score at or above 600 marks.
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Question 4
What is the ratio of the total marks scored by student B to the total marks scored by student D?
The following table shows the marks scored by six students (A-F) in six different subjects S1 to S6 having 160, 160, 120, 120, 200 and 240 as maximum marks respectively. Based on the data in the table, answer the question that follow.

Student S1 (Out of 160) S2 (Out of 160) S3 (Out of 120) S4 (Out of 120) S5 (Out of 200) S6 (Out of 240)
A 76 84 66 56 154 144
B 120 100 84 76 136 132
C 128 72 64 70 144 160
D 84 130 96 84 104 168
E 64 128 90 92 174 70
F 70 96 60 56 164 96
1. A26:27
2. B36:37
3. C16:17
4. D46:47
Answer: (B) 36:37
Explanation
Total marks scored by student B:
120 + 100 + 84 + 76 + 136 + 132 = 648

Total marks scored by student D:
84 + 130 + 96 + 84 + 104 + 168 = 666

Required ratio of student B to student D:
648 : 666

Dividing both numbers by their common factor 18:
648 / 18 = 36
666 / 18 = 37

The simplified ratio is 36:37.

A. 26:27 — incorrect. Does not match 648:666.

B. 36:37 — correct. Simplifies the total marks ratio 648:666 by factor 18.

C. 16:17 — incorrect. Ratio would correspond to 648:688.5.

D. 46:47 — incorrect. Ratio would correspond to approximately 0.9787 rather than 0.9729.
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Question 5
The marks scored by student B and student C together in subject S1 is_____% more than the marks scored by student A and student D together in the same subject.
The following table shows the marks scored by six students (A-F) in six different subjects S1 to S6 having 160, 160, 120, 120, 200 and 240 as maximum marks respectively. Based on the data in the table, answer the question that follow.

Student S1 (Out of 160) S2 (Out of 160) S3 (Out of 120) S4 (Out of 120) S5 (Out of 200) S6 (Out of 240)
A 76 84 66 56 154 144
B 120 100 84 76 136 132
C 128 72 64 70 144 160
D 84 130 96 84 104 168
E 64 128 90 92 174 70
F 70 96 60 56 164 96
1. A55
2. B45
3. C120
4. D155
Answer: (A) 55
Explanation
Marks in subject S1:

Student B and Student C combined: 120 + 128 = 248

Student A and Student D combined: 76 + 84 = 160

Difference in marks:
248 - 160 = 88

Percentage more than student A and student D together:
(88 / 160) * 100% = (11 / 20) * 100% = 55%

A. 55 — correct. (88 / 160) * 100% equals exactly 55%.

B. 45 — incorrect. Represents the difference 100% - 55% rather than the percentage increase.

C. 120 — incorrect. 120% increase would equal 192 additional marks.

D. 155 — incorrect. 155% represents the total proportion (248 / 160 * 100%) rather than the percentage increase.
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Question 6

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Question)	List-II (Answer)
A. If x/5 = y/8, then (x + 5) : (y + 8) = ?	I. 2 : 1
B. If (x : y) = 2 : 1, then (x² - y²) : (x² + y²) = ?	II. 2 : 3
C. If (x² + 4y²) = 4xy, then x : y = ?	III. 3 : 5
D. If A : B = 3 : 4 and B : C = 8 : 9, then A : C = ?	IV. 5 : 8

AA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
BA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
CA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
DA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Answer: (A) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Explanation

The correct matching sequence is:
A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

A. If x/5 = y/8 — let x/5 = y/8 = k. Then x = 5k and y = 8k. (x + 5)/(y + 8) = (5k + 5)/(8k + 8) = 5(k + 1)/[8(k + 1)] = 5/8 (IV).
B. If (x : y) = 2 : 1 — substitute x = 2 and y = 1: (x² - y²)/(x² + y²) = (4 - 1)/(4 + 1) = 3/5 (III).
C. If (x² + 4y²) = 4xy — rearrange to x² - 4xy + 4y² = 0, giving (x - 2y)² = 0, so x = 2y and x : y = 2 : 1 (I).
D. If A : B = 3 : 4 and B : C = 8 : 9 — A/C = (A/B) * (B/C) = (3/4) * (8/9) = 24/36 = 2/3 (II).

Question 7
Which of the following is not an emerging technology?
1. AArtificial Intelligence
2. BQuantum cryptography
3. C3-D holographic imaging
4. DComputer based on vaccum tubes
Answer: (D) Computer based on vaccum tubes
Explanation
Vacuum tubes are first-generation computing components from the 1940s and 1950s, representing obsolete legacy hardware rather than an emerging technology.

A. Artificial Intelligence — incorrect. AI is a rapidly advancing frontier technology.

B. Quantum cryptography — incorrect. Quantum key distribution is an emerging cyber-security paradigm.

C. 3-D holographic imaging — incorrect. Holographic visualization is an emerging display technology.

D. Computer based on vaccum tubes — correct. First-generation vacuum tube computers are historical architectures superseded by transistors and integrated circuits.
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Question 8
Which of the following is correct increasing order of frequency of electromagnetic waves?

A. Light waves
B. Microwaves
C. Infrared waves
D. Radio waves
1. AD, B, C, A
2. BA, B, C, D
3. CB, C, D, A
4. DD, A, B, C
Answer: (A) D, B, C, A
Explanation
Electromagnetic waves in increasing order of frequency:
D, B, C, A

D. Radio waves — lowest frequency (longest wavelength, roughly 3 kHz to 300 MHz)

B. Microwaves — higher frequency than radio waves (300 MHz to 300 GHz)

C. Infrared waves — higher frequency than microwaves (300 GHz to 400 THz)

A. Light waves — visible light has higher frequency than infrared (400 THz to 790 THz)
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Question 9
Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Adobe Acrobat is an example of proprietary product
B. Microsoft office is an example of commercial operating system
C. Linux is open source software
D. Ubuntu is an example of an operating system
E. Firmware is an example of a mobile operating system
1. AD and E only
2. BC and D only
3. CA, C and E only
4. DA, C and D only
Answer: (D) A, C and D only
Explanation
Statements A, C, and D are correct, while B and E are incorrect:

A is correct — Adobe Acrobat is proprietary commercial software developed and owned by Adobe Inc.

B is incorrect — Microsoft Office is an application productivity suite, not an operating system like Windows.

C is correct — Linux is open-source software distributed under licenses allowing source code inspection and modification.

D is correct — Ubuntu is a popular Linux-based open-source operating system.

E is incorrect — Firmware is low-level embedded software stored on hardware chips (ROM/flash), not a mobile operating system like Android or iOS.
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Question 10
Which of the following statements (A-D) most appropriately explains 'Research Ethics'?

A. It states how to write a research report flawlessly.
B. It gives the methodology of researching within social norms.
C. It provides a common set of do's and don'ts of conducting an ethical research.
D. It protects the rights and welfare of research participants.
1. AC and D only
2. BA and B only
3. CA and C only
4. DB and D only
Answer: (A) C and D only
Explanation
Research ethics establishes the behavioral principles and ethical boundaries of scholarly investigation.

C — research ethics provides the foundational code of conduct, defining acceptable and unacceptable practices (do's and don'ts) such as avoiding plagiarism, data fabrication, and conflicts of interest.

D — safeguarding participants through informed consent, confidentiality, and protection from psychological or physical harm is a primary objective of research ethics.

Statements A and B are outside ethical frameworks:

A describes report editing and technical writing standards.

B describes sociological conformity or methodology rather than normative ethics.
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Question 11
What is the correct chronology of release of the following films? (From earlier to the latest)

A. Alam Ara
B. Do Bigha Zameen
C. Raja Harish Chandra
D. Garam Hawa
E. Sholay
1. AB, A, C, E, D
2. BA, B, C, D, E
3. CD, A, C, B, E
4. DC, A, B, D, E
Answer: (D) C, A, B, D, E
Explanation
Chronological sequence of film releases:
C, A, B, D, E

C. Raja Harish Chandra (1913) — India's first full-length silent feature film, directed by Dadasaheb Phalke

A. Alam Ara (1931) — India's first sound film (talkie), directed by Ardeshir Irani

B. Do Bigha Zameen (1953) — pioneering realist Hindi cinema directed by Bimal Roy

D. Garam Hawa (1973) — influential partition drama directed by M. S. Sathyu

E. Sholay (1975) — landmark action-adventure film directed by Ramesh Sippy
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Question 12
What is a questionnaire?
1. AIt is data analysis instrument.
2. BIt is a data collection instrument.
3. CIt is data comparing instrument.
4. DIt is the analysis and result finding instrument
Answer: (B) It is a data collection instrument.
Explanation
A questionnaire is a formal research instrument composed of structured questions used by researchers to collect primary empirical data from respondents.

A. It is data analysis instrument. — incorrect. Data analysis is conducted using statistical methods and software (e.g. SPSS, R) after data is gathered.

B. It is a data collection instrument. — correct. Questionnaires serve specifically as instruments for data elicitation and gathering.

C. It is data comparing instrument. — incorrect. Comparison occurs during comparative analysis, not via the collection form itself.

D. It is the analysis and result finding instrument — incorrect. Finding results is part of data interpretation and synthesis.
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Question 13
What among the following are the essential requirements of a film script-writing?

A. Shooting
B. Confrontation- Middle
C. Beginning-Set-up
D. Editing
E. Resolution- End
1. AB, C and E Only
2. BA and D Only
3. CA, D and E Only
4. DA, C and D Only
Answer: (A) B, C and E Only
Explanation
In dramatic storytelling and screenwriting theory (such as Syd Field's three-act structure), a film screenplay is constructed around three structural stages:

C. Beginning-Set-up (Act I) — establishes the characters, world, and inciting incident

B. Confrontation- Middle (Act II) — develops the rising action, obstacles, and main conflict

E. Resolution- End (Act III) — resolves the climax and brings the narrative to a conclusion

Shooting (A) and Editing (D) belong to film production and post-production phases, not the scriptwriting structure.
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Question 14

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Health related terms)	List-II (Explanation)
A. Toxicology	I. Action taken to prevent environmental health hazard
B. Exposure Assesement	II. Evaluation of public risk of a hazard
C. Risk Assessment	III. Science of effect of toxic substances
D. Risk Management	IV. Estimation of impacts of environmental contaminants on humans

AA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
BA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
CA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
DA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Answer: (A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Explanation

The correct matching sequence is:
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

A. Toxicology — III. The scientific study of adverse effects caused by chemical, biological, or physical agents on living organisms.
B. Exposure Assesement — IV. Quantifying and estimating the magnitude, frequency, and duration of human contact with environmental contaminants.
C. Risk Assessment — II. Characterizing and evaluating the public health risks and probability of adverse outcomes from identified hazards.
D. Risk Management — I. The process of policy formulation, regulatory decision-making, and preventive actions taken to mitigate environmental health hazards.

Question 15
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

A. If an athlete runs 200 metres in 24 seconds, then his speed is 30 km/hr.
B. Sixty five percent of a number is 21 less than 4/5 of that number. The number is 150
C. A car is running at a speed of 108 km/hr. The distance covered by car in 15 seconds is 450 metres.
D. Difference between 2 numbers A and B is 1660. If 7.5% of A is 12.5% of B, the value of A and B is 4150 and 2200.
1. AA, B and C only
2. BB, C and D only
3. CA and C only
4. DB and D only
Answer: (C) A and C only
Explanation
Evaluating each statement:

Statement A is true:
Speed = (200 m / 24 s) = 25/3 m/s
Converting to km/hr: (25/3) * (18/5) = 5 * 6 = 30 km/hr

Statement B is false:
Let the number be x.
(4/5)x - 0.65x = 0.80x - 0.65x = 0.15x
0.15x = 21 => x = 21 / 0.15 = 140 (not 150)

Statement C is true:
Speed in m/s: 108 * (5/18) = 6 * 5 = 30 m/s
Distance in 15 seconds: 30 m/s * 15 s = 450 metres

Statement D is false:
7.5% of A = 12.5% of B => 3A = 5B => A = 5B/3
A - B = (5/3)B - B = 2B/3 = 1660 => B = 2490 and A = 4150 (not 2200 for B)

Statements A and C are the only true statements.
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Question 16
Arrange the following Commissions and organisations chronologically according to their year of establishment:

A. University Grants Commission
B. University Education Commission
C. All India Council of Technical Education
D. Education Commission
1. AA, B, C, D
2. BC, B, A and D
3. CB, C, A and D
4. DD, A, B and C
Answer: (B) C, B, A and D
Explanation
Chronological order of establishment:
C, B, A and D

C. All India Council of Technical Education (AICTE) — established in November 1945 as an advisory body for technical education

B. University Education Commission — appointed in November 1948 under Dr. S. Radhakrishnan to report on Indian university education

A. University Grants Commission (UGC) — inaugurated on 28 December 1953 and made a statutory body by an Act of Parliament in 1956

D. Education Commission — appointed in July 1964 under Dr. D. S. Kothari to advise the Government on a national pattern of education
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Question 17
If in a certain code language 'DREAM' is coded as '71692' and 'CHILD' is coded as '85437', then how LEADER will be coded in that language?
1. A369761
2. B619736
3. C637963
4. D367961
Answer: (A) 369761
Explanation
Direct letter-to-digit mapping from the given words:

From DREAM: D = 7, R = 1, E = 6, A = 9, M = 2

From CHILD: C = 8, H = 5, I = 4, L = 3, D = 7

Encoding the target word LEADER:

L = 3

E = 6

A = 9

D = 7

E = 6

R = 1

Combining these digits yields 369761.

A. 369761 — correct. Directly matches the mapped sequence for L-E-A-D-E-R.

B. 619736 — incorrect. Scrambles the position of initial digits.

C. 637963 — incorrect. Assigns 6 to L instead of 3.

D. 367961 — incorrect. Inverts the positions of A (9) and D (7).
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Question 18
Which among the following is not a communication professional?
1. AJournalist
2. BAdvertiser
3. CNews-reader
4. DSmartphone
Answer: (D) Smartphone
Explanation
A smartphone is a technological device / telecommunication hardware, not a human professional working in media or communications.

A. Journalist — incorrect. A journalist is a communication professional who investigates and reports news.

B. Advertiser — incorrect. An advertiser is a marketing and communication specialist creating promotional messages.

C. News-reader — incorrect. A news-reader is a broadcast professional who reads news on radio or television.

D. Smartphone — correct. Smartphones are electronic instruments rather than human practitioners.
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Question 19
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I (Cities) List-II (Institutes)
A. New Delhi I. Bhartendu Natya Akademy
B. Pune II. Asian Academy of Films & T.V.
C. Noida III. National Film Archive of India
D. Lucknow IV. National School of Drama
1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. BA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
3. CA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
4. DA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Answer: (C) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Explanation
The correct matching sequence is:
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

A. New Delhi — IV. National School of Drama (NSD), premier theatre training institute set up by Sangeet Natak Akademi in New Delhi in 1959.

B. Pune — III. National Film Archive of India (NFAI), founded in Pune in 1964 to preserve India's cinematic heritage.

C. Noida — II. Asian Academy of Films & T.V. (AAFT), pioneer film school situated in Film City, Noida.

D. Lucknow — I. Bhartendu Natya Akademy (Bhartendu Natya Akademi), established in Lucknow in 1975 to train students in dramatic arts.
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Question 20
Which of the following assessment types would require to carry out an activity or produce a product in order to demonstrate learning?
1. AFormative Assessment
2. BPortfolio Assessment
3. CSummative Assessment
4. DPerformance Assessment
Answer: (D) Performance Assessment
Explanation
Performance assessment measures learning by requiring students to perform a practical task, execute an experiment, demonstrate a skill, or create an authentic product.

A. Formative Assessment — incorrect. Ongoing assessment to monitor learning progress and provide feedback during instruction.

B. Portfolio Assessment — incorrect. Evaluates a cumulative collection of student work over time, rather than requiring an active demonstration itself.

C. Summative Assessment — incorrect. Evaluates cumulative learning at the end of an instructional period, often through written exams.

D. Performance Assessment — correct. Distinctly defined by the requirement to execute an activity or produce an artifact demonstrating applied competence.
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Question 21
Which of the following is related to network security?
1. AFirewall
2. BWorms
3. CKeyloggers
4. DTrojan
Answer: (A) Firewall
Explanation
A firewall is a network security system that monitors, filters, and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules.

A. Firewall — correct. Serves as a defensive barrier protecting private networks from unauthorized access.

B. Worms — incorrect. Self-replicating malicious programs that spread across networks as a security threat.

C. Keyloggers — incorrect. Spyware tools that secretly record keystrokes to steal credentials.

D. Trojan — incorrect. Malware disguised as legitimate software to breach host systems.
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Question 22
Arrange the following in order of decreasing denotation.

A. Carbonated drinks
B. Beverages
C. Cola Fizz
D. Liquid
1. AC, A, B, D
2. BD, A, B, C
3. CA, C, B, D
4. DD, B, A, C
Answer: (D) D, B, A, C
Explanation
Denotation (extension) refers to the class size or number of objects to which a term applies. Decreasing denotation moves from the broadest category (most members) to the narrowest (least members):
D, B, A, C

D. Liquid — broadest category, encompassing all substances in liquid state

B. Beverages — subcategory of liquids meant specifically for drinking

A. Carbonated drinks — subcategory of beverages containing dissolved carbon dioxide

C. Cola Fizz — specific carbonated cola brand or product with the narrowest denotation
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Question 23
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I (Scientist) List-II (Invention)
A. Tim Berners Lee I. Computer Architecture
B. Fred Cohen II. Father of modern computer
C. Charles Babbage III. Virus
D. John Von Neumann IV. World Wide Web
1. AA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
2. BA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
3. CA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
4. DA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Answer: (A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Explanation
The correct matching sequence is:
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

A. Tim Berners Lee — IV. World Wide Web (invented the WWW in 1989 at CERN along with HTML and HTTP protocols).

B. Fred Cohen — III. Virus (pioneering computer scientist who formally defined the computer virus and demonstrated self-replicating code in 1983).

C. Charles Babbage — II. Father of modern computer (originated the concept of a digital programmable computer through the Difference and Analytical Engines).

D. John Von Neumann — I. Computer Architecture (formulated the Von Neumann architecture featuring CPU, ALU, registers, and stored program memory).
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Question 24
What is modeling approach of research design?
1. AThe research problem is represented by a mathematical model. Solutions and conclusions are derived from that model.
2. BThere is no research problem in this approach. Solutions and conclusions are derived from the objectives.
3. CThe research problem is represented in the subjective manner. Solutions and conclusions are derived from the research questions.
4. DThe research problem is represented in the objective manner. Solutions and conclusions are derived from the research methodology.
Answer: (A) The research problem is represented by a mathematical model. Solutions and conclusions are derived from that model.
Explanation
In a modeling approach to research design, a real-world system, process, or empirical problem is formulated into an abstract conceptual or mathematical model from which deductions, simulations, and quantitative solutions are derived.

A — correct. Explicitly defines the modeling methodology where problems are formalized into mathematical models to derive solutions.

B — incorrect. Every empirical research approach requires a well-defined research problem.

C — incorrect. Mathematical modeling relies on formal quantitative constructs, not subjective representation.

D — incorrect. Vague description that confuses research problem formulation with methodology.
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Question 25
Which of the following are the basic objectives of Affective Domain?

A. Showing some new behaviour as a result of experience.
B. Acting consistently with the new value.
C. Attending to something in the environment.
D. Showing some definite involvement or commitment.
1. AA and B only
2. BC and D only
3. CA, B, C and D
4. DB and C only
Answer: (C) A, B, C and D
Explanation
In Krathwohl's taxonomy of the affective domain, educational objectives progress through five hierarchical levels that encompass all four statements:

C. Attending to something in the environment — represents the first level, Receiving (willingness to notice or pay attention).

A. Showing some new behaviour as a result of experience — reflects active participation in the second level, Responding.

D. Showing some definite involvement or commitment — represents the third level, Valuing (attaching worth and commitment to an object or behavior).

B. Acting consistently with the new value — characterizes the highest level, Characterization by a value or value complex.

Because all four statements represent recognized levels of the affective domain, A, B, C and D are correct.
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Question 26

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Environmental Protocol/Conventions)	List-II (Year of action/adoption)
A. International Solar Alliance	I. 1997
B. Convention on Biodiversity	II. 2015
C. National Action Plan on Climate Change	III. 1992
D. Kyoto Protocol	IV. 2008

AA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
CA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
DA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Answer: (B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Explanation

The correct matching sequence is:
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

A. International Solar Alliance — II. 2015 (jointly launched by India and France at COP21 in Paris in November 2015).
B. Convention on Biodiversity — III. 1992 (opened for signature at the Rio Earth Summit in June 1992).
C. National Action Plan on Climate Change — IV. 2008 (released by the Government of India on 30 June 2008 with eight national missions).
D. Kyoto Protocol — I. 1997 (adopted in Kyoto, Japan on 11 December 1997 to set binding greenhouse gas emission reductions).

Question 27
The sustainable Development Goal which covers lifelong learning is_________.
1. AGood Health and Well-Being
2. BQuality of Education
3. CGender Equality
4. DZero Hunger
Answer: (B) Quality of Education
Explanation
Sustainable Development Goal 4 (SDG 4) is formally titled 'Quality Education' and aims to ensure inclusive and equitable quality education and promote lifelong learning opportunities for all.

A. Good Health and Well-Being — incorrect. Corresponds to SDG 3.

B. Quality of Education — correct. SDG 4 explicitly incorporates universal access and lifelong learning.

C. Gender Equality — incorrect. Corresponds to SDG 5.

D. Zero Hunger — incorrect. Corresponds to SDG 2.
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Question 28
Which of the following are body waves generated during an earthquake?

A. P-wave
B. S-wave
C. Love wave
D. Raleigh wave
1. AA and B only
2. BA, B and C only
3. CB, C and D only
4. DC and D only
Answer: (A) A and B only
Explanation
Seismic waves produced by earthquakes are categorized into body waves and surface waves:

Body waves (A and B) — travel through the interior layers of the Earth:

P-waves (Primary waves): longitudinal compressional waves that travel fastest through solids, liquids, and gases.

S-waves (Secondary waves): transverse shear waves that travel only through solids.

Surface waves (C and D) — travel only along the Earth's surface layers:

Love waves: horizontal transverse surface waves causing side-to-side ground shifting.

Rayleigh waves (source spelling 'Raleigh'): elliptical rolling waves causing both vertical and horizontal displacement.
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Question 29
Which of the following is logically equivalent to the statement 'Some felines are not lions'?
1. ASome felines are lions.
2. BSome non-lions are not non-felines.
3. CSome lions are not felines.
4. DNo-felines are lions.
Answer: (B) Some non-lions are not non-felines.
Explanation
The given proposition is an O-type proposition: 'Some felines are not lions' (Some S is not P).

In categorical logic, contraposition is valid for O propositions:

Original proposition: Some S is not P

Obverse: Some S is non-P (I proposition)

Converse of obverse: Some non-P is S (I proposition)

Obverse of that: Some non-P is not non-S (O proposition)

Applying contraposition to 'Some felines are not lions':
Some non-lions are not non-felines (B).

A. Some felines are lions. — incorrect. The truth of an O proposition does not guarantee an I proposition.

B. Some non-lions are not non-felines. — correct. Valid contrapositive of the given O proposition.

C. Some lions are not felines. — incorrect. Conversion of an O proposition is invalid.

D. No-felines are lions. — incorrect. This is a universal negative (E proposition), which makes a far stronger claim than the existential negative.
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Question 30
Rohan buys an article at discount of 25%. At what percentage above the cost price should he sell it to make a profit of 25% over the original price?
1. A68.5
2. B67.5
3. C65.5
4. D66.67
Answer: (D) 66.67
Explanation
Let the original price (marked price) of the article be 100.

Rohan purchases it at a 25% discount:
Cost Price (CP) for Rohan = 100 - 25 = 75

He wants to make a profit of 25% over the original price:
Profit = 25% of 100 = 25
Selling Price (SP) = 100 + 25 = 125

Profit earned over Rohan's cost price:
SP - CP = 125 - 75 = 50

Percentage above cost price:
(50 / 75) * 100% = (2/3) * 100% = 66.67%

A. 68.5 — incorrect.

B. 67.5 — incorrect.

C. 65.5 — incorrect.

D. 66.67 — correct. (50 / 75) * 100% evaluates to 66.666...% or 66.67%.
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Question 31
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I (Cognitive domain level) List-II (Suggested word)
A. Evaluation I. Define
B. Knowledge II. Appraise
C. Analysis III. Distinguish
D. Application IV. Demonstrate
1. AA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
2. BA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
3. CA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
4. DA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
Answer: (A) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Explanation
The correct matching sequence is:
A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

A. Evaluation — II. Appraise (judging the value of ideas or materials using criteria).

B. Knowledge — I. Define (recalling specific facts, terminology, or definitions).

C. Analysis — III. Distinguish (breaking material into components and understanding organizational structures).

D. Application — IV. Demonstrate (using abstractions or principles in concrete situations).
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Question 32
Match List-I with List-II.
List-I (n = number of Trials; p = probability of Success) List-II (Means of Binomial Distribution)
A. n = 16, p = 0.8 I. 9.1
B. n = 21, p = 0.6 II. 9.2
C. n = 13, p = 0.7 III. 12.8
D. n = 23, p = 0.4 IV. 12.6
1. AA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
2. BA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
3. CA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
4. DA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer: (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Explanation
The mean of a Binomial Distribution is given by:
Mean = n * p

Calculating for each pair:

A. n = 16, p = 0.8 — 16 * 0.8 = 12.8 (III)

B. n = 21, p = 0.6 — 21 * 0.6 = 12.6 (IV)

C. n = 13, p = 0.7 — 13 * 0.7 = 9.1 (I)

D. n = 23, p = 0.4 — 23 * 0.4 = 9.2 (II)

Matching sequence: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.
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Question 33
In the light of cognitive domain, arrange the following classroom questions (A-E) in the correct ascending order:

A. Understanding
B. Evaluating
C. Analyzing
D. Applying
E. Remembering
1. AE, A, D, C, B
2. BA, B, C, D, E
3. CB, C, A, E, D
4. DC, E, B, A, D
Answer: (A) E, A, D, C, B
Explanation
In Bloom's Revised Taxonomy of the Cognitive Domain, cognitive processes are arranged in ascending order of complexity (from lowest-order thinking skills to highest-order thinking skills):
E, A, D, C, B

E. Remembering — recalling facts and basic concepts

A. Understanding — explaining ideas or concepts

D. Applying — using information in new situations

C. Analyzing — drawing connections among ideas

B. Evaluating — justifying a stand or decision
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Question 34
'Everyone of us is mortal, therefore it is obvious that some day the human race will disappear from earth.' Identify the logical fallacy committed in the above statement.
1. AFallacy of accident
2. BStraw man
3. CFallacy of Composition
4. DFallacy of Division
Answer: (C) Fallacy of Composition
Explanation
The Fallacy of Composition arises when one erroneously infers that something is true of the whole simply because it is true of each individual part of the whole.

Here, each individual human being is mortal (a property of parts), but concluding that the human race as a whole species will cease to exist commits the fallacy of composition, as mortality of individuals does not entail simultaneous termination of an ongoing collective lineage.

A. Fallacy of accident — incorrect. Occurs when a general rule is improperly applied to an exceptional specific case.

B. Straw man — incorrect. Occurs when an opponent's argument is distorted to make it easier to attack.

C. Fallacy of Composition — correct. Erroneously transfers the mortality of individual members onto the collective race as a whole.

D. Fallacy of Division — incorrect. The reverse error: inferring that parts must have an attribute simply because the whole possesses it.
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Question 35
In higher education, regulators perform the following functions:

A. Permission to grant degrees
B. Selection of teaching faculty
C. Disbursement of public funds
D. Quality benchmarking
1. AA, B and C only
2. BD only
3. CA, C and D only
4. DA, B, C and D
Answer: (C) A, C and D only
Explanation
Higher education regulatory bodies in India (such as the UGC and AICTE) carry out statutory oversight functions:

A. Permission to grant degrees — regulators determine which institutions have degree-granting status under statutory acts.

C. Disbursement of public funds — statutory mandates include allocating and releasing developmental grants to eligible institutions.

D. Quality benchmarking — regulators establish minimum criteria, coordinate accreditation frameworks, and formulate academic benchmarks.

Statement B is incorrect because selection and recruitment of faculty members is conducted directly by the university or college governing bodies and statutory selection committees, not by external regulators.
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Question 36
Which of the following is true regarding extrinsic motivation?
1. AIt is based on factors not related to the activity itself.
2. BIt is the natural tendency to seek out personal interests.
3. CIt is the natural tendency to conquer challenges.
4. DIt motivates to do something when we don't need to do.
Answer: (A) It is based on factors not related to the activity itself.
Explanation
Extrinsic motivation occurs when an individual engages in an activity to obtain an external outcome, reward, or recognition, or to avoid negative consequences, rather than out of inherent enjoyment of the task itself.

A — correct. Extrinsic motivation is driven by external contingencies rather than task-inherent interest.

B — incorrect. Pursuing personal interests for their own sake is a hallmark of intrinsic motivation.

C — incorrect. Conquering challenges for internal satisfaction defines intrinsic mastery orientation.

D — incorrect. Does not capture the psychological definition of motivation driven by extrinsic reinforcers.
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Question 37
IRAHE stands for________.
1. AIndependent Regulatory Authority for Higher Education
2. BInternational Regulatory Authority for Higher Education
3. CInstant Regulatory Authority for Higher Education
4. DInter-University Regulatory Authority for Higher Education
Answer: (A) Independent Regulatory Authority for Higher Education
Explanation
IRAHE stands for Independent Regulatory Authority for Higher Education, which was recommended by the National Knowledge Commission (NKC) under Sam Pitroda in 2006 to establish an autonomous regulatory body overseeing higher education in India.

A. Independent Regulatory Authority for Higher Education — correct. Official expansion of the regulatory acronym proposed by the National Knowledge Commission.

B. International Regulatory Authority for Higher Education — incorrect. Not an international body.

C. Instant Regulatory Authority for Higher Education — incorrect. Fictitious acronym expansion.

D. Inter-University Regulatory Authority for Higher Education — incorrect. Does not match the statutory commission naming.
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Question 38
What among the following is not a communication technology?
1. ASmartphone
2. BNews-reader
3. CE-mail
4. DWhatsapp
Answer: (B) News-reader
Explanation
A news-reader is a human professional (anchor or presenter) who reads news broadcasts on television or radio, whereas the other options are communication media and digital technologies.

A. Smartphone — incorrect. A mobile computing hardware device used for multimedia communication.

B. News-reader — correct. A human broadcaster rather than a communication technology.

C. E-mail — incorrect. An electronic telecommunications protocol and software system for exchanging digital messages.

D. Whatsapp — incorrect. An instant messaging software application enabling cross-platform communication.
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Question 39
As temperature increases, due to Global Warming, the release of methane from wetlands will increase, is an example of :
1. APositive feedback
2. BNegative feedback
3. CBoth positive and negative feedback
4. DNeither positive nor negative feedback
Answer: (A) Positive feedback
Explanation
In climate systems, a positive feedback loop occurs when an initial change triggers processes that amplify and intensify that same change.

Here, elevated global temperatures accelerate microbial decomposition in thawing permafrost and wetlands, releasing additional methane into the atmosphere. Because methane is a potent greenhouse gas, this higher atmospheric concentration traps more heat, causing further warming and additional emissions.

A. Positive feedback — correct. The process amplifies and accelerates the initial warming perturbation.

B. Negative feedback — incorrect. A negative feedback counteracts or stabilizes against the original perturbation.

C. Both positive and negative feedback — incorrect. The described mechanism operates strictly in an amplifying direction.

D. Neither positive nor negative feedback — incorrect. Represents a well-documented climate feedback mechanism.
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Question 40
What is Historical Research method?
1. AIt collects facts by understanding the present situation. Source of information include interviews of experts, surveys etc.
2. BIt collects facts by predicting the future. Sources of information include questionnaire, telephonic interview etc.
3. CIt collects facts by going in the past in different periods. Sources of information include written records, newspapers, diaries, letters, traveler's accounts, documents, etc
4. DIt collects facts by using common sense and also tries to solve practical problems. Sources of information include surveys and interviews.
Answer: (C) It collects facts by going in the past in different periods. Sources of information include written records, newspapers, diaries, letters, traveler's accounts, documents, etc
Explanation
The historical research method systematically collects, evaluates, and synthesizes evidence from the past to understand past events, developments, and trends.

A — incorrect. Investigates contemporary phenomena through descriptive or cross-sectional survey research.

B — incorrect. Predictive or futures research (such as Delphi methods), not historical analysis.

C — correct. Accurately describes the historical method using primary and secondary documentary sources from earlier periods.

D — incorrect. Describes action research or applied problem-solving rather than historical investigation.
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Question 41
Which of the following components of Electromagnetic Radiation reach earth as a part of solar radiation?

A. Gama-Rays
B. X-Rays
C. Ultraviolet Radiation
D. Visible Rays
E. Infrared Radiation
1. AA, B and C only
2. BC, D and E only
3. CA, B, D and E only
4. DA, B, C, D and E
Answer: (B) C, D and E only
Explanation
The Earth's atmosphere filters extraterrestrial electromagnetic radiation. Highly ionizing, short-wavelength radiation (Gamma rays and X-rays) is completely absorbed by the thermosphere and mesosphere:

Components reaching the Earth's surface:

C. Ultraviolet Radiation — UV-A and a small portion of UV-B penetrate to the surface.

D. Visible Rays — completely pass through the atmospheric optical window (400 to 700 nm).

E. Infrared Radiation — reaches the surface across several atmospheric transmission bands, providing radiant heat.

Components absorbed in the upper atmosphere:

A. Gamma rays (source spelling 'Gama-Rays') and B. X-Rays are fully blocked before reaching ground level.
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Question 42
Which of the following propositions are so related that if one of them is true, the other must be false, although they can both be false?

A. All novels are books.
B. Some novels are not books.
C. No novels are books.
D. Some novels are books.
1. AB and D only
2. BC and D only
3. CA and C only
4. DA and B only
Answer: (C) A and C only
Explanation
In the traditional Square of Opposition, the relationship described is that of Contraries:

Contraries cannot both be true simultaneously (if one is true, the other must be false).

Contraries can both be false at the same time.

The contrary relationship holds between the universal affirmative (A) and universal negative (E) propositions:

A. All novels are books (Universal Affirmative — A proposition)

C. No novels are books (Universal Negative — E proposition)

If it is true that all novels are books, then 'no novels are books' must be false. However, if some novels are books and some are not, both propositions are false.

A. B and D only — incorrect. Subcontraries (I and O propositions), which cannot both be false.

B. C and D only — incorrect. Contradictories (E and I propositions), which cannot both be true and cannot both be false.

C. A and C only — correct. Contraries (A and E propositions) cannot both be true, but can both be false.

D. A and B only — incorrect. Contradictories (A and O propositions).
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Question 43

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Value Education)	List-II (Description)
A. Social Value Education	I. Aware of the diversity, ideals and norms of the society
B. Spiritual Value Education	II. People should know common values applicable to mankind
C. Cultural Value Education	III. Make people better and more responsible citizens
D. Universal value Education	IV. To keep mind calm and awakened

AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
CA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
DA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Explanation

The correct matching sequence is:
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

A. Social Value Education — III. Fosters civic consciousness to make people better and more responsible citizens.
B. Spiritual Value Education — IV. Cultivates mindfulness, inner peace, and self-awareness to keep the mind calm and awakened.
C. Cultural Value Education — I. Develops appreciation for cultural heritage, ideals, diversity, and societal norms.
D. Universal value Education — II. Imparts fundamental human values and universal ethical principles applicable to all mankind.

Question 44
In the series given below if every digit is changed with the next number as per the number series and 9 will change to 0, then how many 9 are there in the new series?

456879302000100134784998
1. A2
2. B4
3. C1
4. D3
Answer: (D) 3
Explanation
In the transformation rule, each digit is replaced by the next number in sequence (d -> d + 1, with 9 wrapping to 0).

A digit in the new series will become 9 if and only if the original digit was 8 (since 8 + 1 = 9).

Counting occurrences of the digit 8 in the original sequence:
4 5 6 8 7 9 3 0 2 0 0 0 1 0 0 1 3 4 7 8 4 9 9 8

First 8: 4th digit

Second 8: 20th digit

Third 8: 24th digit

There are exactly 3 occurrences of 8 in the original string, yielding three 9s in the transformed string.

A. 2 — incorrect. Under-counts by one occurrence.

B. 4 — incorrect. Confuses the count of 9s in the original string with transformed 8s.

C. 1 — incorrect. Severely under-counts the occurrences of digit 8.

D. 3 — correct. Exactly three 8s transform into 9s.
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Question 45
Which of the following arguments is fallacious according to Classical Indian School of Logic (Nyāya) because it is based on conditional (sopādhika) concomitance (vyāpti)?
1. ASound is eternal because it is audible.
2. BFire is cold because it is a substance.
3. CAll things are non-eternal because they are knowable.
4. DWherever there is fire there is smoke.
Answer: (D) Wherever there is fire there is smoke.
Explanation
In Nyāya logic, valid inference requires an unconditional concomitance (anupādhika vyāpti) between the middle term (hetu) and major term (sādhya). If the relation holds only under an extraneous condition (upādhi), it is conditional (sopādhika) and fallacious:

D. Wherever there is fire there is smoke — fire is accompanied by smoke only in the presence of an upādhi, namely contact with wet fuel (ārdrendhana-saṁyoga). A red-hot iron ball has fire without smoke, demonstrating that the concomitance is conditional (sopādhika).

Distractors illustrate other distinct fallacies in Nyāya:

A illustrates Asādhāraṇa Savyabhicāra (an unshared middle term).

B illustrates Bādhita (contradicted by perception).

C illustrates Anupasaṁhārī Savyabhicāra (an all-inclusive non-exclusive fallacy).
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Question 46
The NBER paper selected girl-students as sample through_____sampling technique.
Does more education lead to greater democracy? Or are more democratic countries better at educating their citizens? A recent NBER paper compared a group of Kenyan girls in 69 primary schools whose students were randomly selected to receive a scholarship with similar students in schools which received no such financial aid. Previous studies had shown that the scholarship programme led to higher test scores and increased the likelihood that girls enrolled in secondary school. Overall, it significantly increased the amount of education obtained. For the new study the authors tried to see how the extra schooling had affected the political and social attitudes of the women in question. Findings suggested that education may make people more interested in improving their own lives but they may not necessarily see democracy as the way to do it. Even in established democracies, more education does not always mean either more active political participation or greater faith in democracy. Poorer and less educated people often vote in larger numbers than their more educated compatriots, who often express disdain for the messiness of democracy yearning for the kind of government that would deal strongly with the corrupt and build highways, railway lines and bridges at a dizzying pace of authoritarian China.
1. APurposive
2. BSnowball
3. CQuota
4. DRandom
Answer: (D) Random
Explanation
The passage states directly in the second sentence:
'A recent NBER paper compared a group of Kenyan girls in 69 primary schools whose students were randomly selected to receive a scholarship...'

Because the students were chosen through random selection, the study utilized random sampling.

A. Purposive — incorrect. Purposive sampling relies on researcher discretion rather than random selection.

B. Snowball — incorrect. Snowball sampling relies on participant referrals to recruit subjects.

C. Quota — incorrect. Quota sampling selects non-random participants to fulfill preset demographic quotas.

D. Random — correct. Matches the passage description of participants being randomly selected.
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Question 47
The phrase 'messiness of democracy' used in the passage is referred to ––––––.
Does more education lead to greater democracy? Or are more democratic countries better at educating their citizens? A recent NBER paper compared a group of Kenyan girls in 69 primary schools whose students were randomly selected to receive a scholarship with similar students in schools which received no such financial aid. Previous studies had shown that the scholarship programme led to higher test scores and increased the likelihood that girls enrolled in secondary school. Overall, it significantly increased the amount of education obtained. For the new study the authors tried to see how the extra schooling had affected the political and social attitudes of the women in question. Findings suggested that education may make people more interested in improving their own lives but they may not necessarily see democracy as the way to do it. Even in established democracies, more education does not always mean either more active political participation or greater faith in democracy. Poorer and less educated people often vote in larger numbers than their more educated compatriots, who often express disdain for the messiness of democracy yearning for the kind of government that would deal strongly with the corrupt and build highways, railway lines and bridges at a dizzying pace of authoritarian China.
1. AEducated electorates participate less in casting their votes leading to poor representation of right people in the government.
2. BDemocratic countries witness violent revolt among their citizens.
3. CThe gulf between poor and educated is increasing
4. DCorrupt politicians are more interested in dividing the people for retaining the power
Answer: (A) Educated electorates participate less in casting their votes leading to poor representation of right people in the government.
Explanation
In the final lines of the passage, the author links the 'messiness of democracy' to low electoral engagement among educated citizens, contrasting their voter apathy with poorer citizens who vote in larger numbers, leaving educated voters dissatisfied with resultant political representation and admiring fast authoritarian execution.

A — correct. Reflects the passage context where low voter turnout among educated citizens produces representative outcomes they view with disdain.

B — incorrect. The passage mentions peaceful apathy and voting trends, not violent revolutions.

C — incorrect. While economic disparities exist, the passage specifically analyzes voting participation and political attitudes.

D — incorrect. Divisive electoral strategies are not mentioned in the passage text.
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Question 48
According to previous study, what led to higher test scores among girl students?
Does more education lead to greater democracy? Or are more democratic countries better at educating their citizens? A recent NBER paper compared a group of Kenyan girls in 69 primary schools whose students were randomly selected to receive a scholarship with similar students in schools which received no such financial aid. Previous studies had shown that the scholarship programme led to higher test scores and increased the likelihood that girls enrolled in secondary school. Overall, it significantly increased the amount of education obtained. For the new study the authors tried to see how the extra schooling had affected the political and social attitudes of the women in question. Findings suggested that education may make people more interested in improving their own lives but they may not necessarily see democracy as the way to do it. Even in established democracies, more education does not always mean either more active political participation or greater faith in democracy. Poorer and less educated people often vote in larger numbers than their more educated compatriots, who often express disdain for the messiness of democracy yearning for the kind of government that would deal strongly with the corrupt and build highways, railway lines and bridges at a dizzying pace of authoritarian China.
1. ARemedial classes
2. BPersonalised attention
3. CScholarship programme
4. DCounselling session
Answer: (C) Scholarship programme
Explanation
The passage explicitly states in the third sentence:
'Previous studies had shown that the scholarship programme led to higher test scores and increased the likelihood that girls enrolled in secondary school.'

A. Remedial classes — incorrect. Not mentioned in the passage.

B. Personalised attention — incorrect. Not cited as the intervention.

C. Scholarship programme — correct. Directly identified as the cause of higher test scores.

D. Counselling session — incorrect. Not mentioned in the passage.
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Question 49
Which of the following is true about China in the context of the passage?
Does more education lead to greater democracy? Or are more democratic countries better at educating their citizens? A recent NBER paper compared a group of Kenyan girls in 69 primary schools whose students were randomly selected to receive a scholarship with similar students in schools which received no such financial aid. Previous studies had shown that the scholarship programme led to higher test scores and increased the likelihood that girls enrolled in secondary school. Overall, it significantly increased the amount of education obtained. For the new study the authors tried to see how the extra schooling had affected the political and social attitudes of the women in question. Findings suggested that education may make people more interested in improving their own lives but they may not necessarily see democracy as the way to do it. Even in established democracies, more education does not always mean either more active political participation or greater faith in democracy. Poorer and less educated people often vote in larger numbers than their more educated compatriots, who often express disdain for the messiness of democracy yearning for the kind of government that would deal strongly with the corrupt and build highways, railway lines and bridges at a dizzying pace of authoritarian China.
1. AChina's citizens want a more representative form of government
2. BChina has made huge strides in infrastructure development
3. CChina passes through a great political transformation
4. DBased on the progress it had made, China will not entertain any kind of political reform
Answer: (B) China has made huge strides in infrastructure development
Explanation
The passage concludes by describing China as an example of rapid construction:
'...yearning for the kind of government that would deal strongly with the corrupt and build highways, railway lines and bridges at a dizzying pace of authoritarian China.'

Building highways, railway networks, and bridges represents massive strides in physical infrastructure development.

A — incorrect. The passage does not discuss what Chinese citizens want.

B — correct. Matches the description of building extensive transport infrastructure at a dizzying pace.

C — incorrect. The passage does not claim China is undergoing political transformation.

D — incorrect. Extrapolates beyond the textual evidence in the passage.
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Question 50
The findings of the new study suggested that education may make people more interested in_______.
Does more education lead to greater democracy? Or are more democratic countries better at educating their citizens? A recent NBER paper compared a group of Kenyan girls in 69 primary schools whose students were randomly selected to receive a scholarship with similar students in schools which received no such financial aid. Previous studies had shown that the scholarship programme led to higher test scores and increased the likelihood that girls enrolled in secondary school. Overall, it significantly increased the amount of education obtained. For the new study the authors tried to see how the extra schooling had affected the political and social attitudes of the women in question. Findings suggested that education may make people more interested in improving their own lives but they may not necessarily see democracy as the way to do it. Even in established democracies, more education does not always mean either more active political participation or greater faith in democracy. Poorer and less educated people often vote in larger numbers than their more educated compatriots, who often express disdain for the messiness of democracy yearning for the kind of government that would deal strongly with the corrupt and build highways, railway lines and bridges at a dizzying pace of authoritarian China.
1. ATaking active part in politics
2. BImproving their own lives
3. CChanging their social attitudes
4. DGetting socialized
Answer: (B) Improving their own lives
Explanation
The passage states in sentence five:
'Findings suggested that education may make people more interested in improving their own lives but they may not necessarily see democracy as the way to do it.'

A. Taking active part in politics — incorrect. The passage states education does not always lead to active political participation.

B. Improving their own lives — correct. Directly mirrors the quoted finding of the new study.

C. Changing their social attitudes — incorrect. The study measured social attitudes, but found specific focus on personal improvement.

D. Getting socialized — incorrect. Not identified in the study's conclusions.
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Attempt Paper 1 — General Aptitude as a timed test

Spotted a shift or questions missing from this paper?

Paper 2 — Commerce

Attempt this paper

100 questions with the answer key and explanations.

Question 1

Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct option:

LIST-I (Concept)	LIST-II (Formula)
A. Present Value	I. Cash flow × (1+r)^t
B. Future Value	II. Cash flow/(1+r)^t
C. Future Value of Annuity	III. R(PVIFi,n)
D. Present Value of Annuity	IV. R(FVIFAi,n)

AA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
BA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
CA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
DA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Answer: (A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Explanation

The time value of money formulas determine present and future values of lump sums and annuity streams.

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

A. Present Value — matches II. The present value of a future cash flow discounts the cash flow by (1+r)^t, giving Cash flow/(1+r)^t.
B. Future Value — matches I. The future value compounds a current cash flow forward at rate r for t periods, giving Cash flow × (1+r)^t.
C. Future Value of Annuity — matches IV. The future value of an annuity equals the regular periodic cash receipt or payment R multiplied by the future value interest factor of an annuity, R(FVIFAi,n).
D. Present Value of Annuity — matches III. The present value of an annuity equals the periodic payment R multiplied by the present value interest factor, printed here as R(PVIFi,n) to complete the four-item system.

Question 2

Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct option:

LIST-I (Trade Tariff)	LIST-II (Explanation)
A. Specific Tariff	I. Fixed percentage of the value of the commodity
B. Ad valorem Tariff	II. Fixed amount of money per unit
C. Compound Tariff	IV. Combination of Ad valorem and Specific Tariff
D. Variable Tariff	III. Duty fixed to bring the price of imported commodity to the level of domestic support price

AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
CA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
DA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Answer: (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Explanation

Tariffs are commercial trade barriers classified by the base upon which the customs duty is levied.

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

A. Specific Tariff — matches II. A specific duty is levied as a fixed monetary amount per physical unit of the imported good, such as per ton or per meter.
B. Ad valorem Tariff — matches I. An ad valorem tariff is levied as a fixed percentage of the invoiced value of the imported good.
C. Compound Tariff — matches IV. A compound tariff combines both an ad valorem duty and a specific duty on the same item.
D. Variable Tariff — matches III. A variable import levy is adjusted dynamically to ensure the import price equals the domestic target or support price.

Question 3
Which of the following is NOT the feature of business environment?
1. Complex
2. Dynamic
3. Multi faceted
4. Static
1. AComplex
2. BDynamic
3. CMulti faceted
4. DStatic
Answer: (D) Static
Explanation
The business environment is characterized by continuous turbulence, interdependence, and change rather than stability.

A. Complex — business environment comprises numerous interrelated economic, social, and legal forces that are difficult to comprehend in totality.

B. Dynamic — environmental factors are constantly shifting due to technological innovations and evolving market preferences.

C. Multi faceted — changes in the environment present different meanings to different enterprises, appearing as an opportunity to one and a threat to another.

D. Static — incorrect feature. The business environment is never static or inert, making static the correct non-feature choice.
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Question 4
Identify the correct sequence of Research Design Process:

A. Measurement technique selection
B. Research approach selection
C. Data collection technique selection
D. Sample design selection
E. Data analysis method selection

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C, D, E
2. BB, A, D, C, E
3. CD, C, E, A, B
4. DC, E, D, B, A
Answer: (B) B, A, D, C, E
Explanation
The research design process moves logically from high-level methodological strategy to granular measurement, sampling, and data handling.

B, A, D, C, E

Step B (Research approach selection) — the researcher first decides whether the inquiry is exploratory, descriptive, or causal.

Step A (Measurement technique selection) — variables are operationalized and measurement scales or instruments are designed.

Step D (Sample design selection) — the target universe, sampling frame, and sampling techniques are determined.

Step C (Data collection technique selection) — primary or secondary data gathering protocols such as surveys or interviews are established.

Step E (Data analysis method selection) — appropriate qualitative or quantitative analytical and statistical methods are selected.
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Question 5
A Ltd. makes plastic buckets. Selling price per bucket is ₹210 and variable cost per bucket is ₹60. Fixed cost of making buckets is ₹1,50,000 for the year. The number of buckets to be sold to get a profit of ₹90000 is:
1. 714 buckets
2. 428 buckets
3. 1000 buckets
4. 1600 buckets
1. A714 buckets
2. B428 buckets
3. C1000 buckets
4. D1600 buckets
Answer: (D) 1600 buckets
Explanation
Target sales volume in cost-volume-profit analysis is calculated by dividing total required contribution by unit contribution margin.

Contribution per bucket = ₹210 - ₹60 = ₹150
Total required contribution = Fixed Cost + Target Profit = ₹1,50,000 + ₹90,000 = ₹2,40,000
Required volume = ₹2,40,000 / ₹150 = 1600 buckets

Selling 1600 buckets covers the ₹1,50,000 fixed overhead and yields the targeted profit of ₹90,000.
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Question 6
Identify the correct sequence of sampling design process:

A. Determine the Sample size
B. Select a sampling technique
C. Selection of sampling frame
D. Defining target population

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C, D
2. BB, A, D, C
3. CA, B, D, C
4. DD, C, B, A
Answer: (D) D, C, B, A
Explanation
A sampling design process progresses systematically from defining the population to selecting the sample size.

D, C, B, A

Step D (Defining target population) — the researcher clearly identifies the target population or universe under study.

Step C (Selection of sampling frame) — the operational list of population elements from which sample units can be drawn is compiled.

Step B (Select a sampling technique) — the researcher decides between probability and non-probability sampling methods.

Step A (Determine the Sample size) — the required sample size is calculated based on precision, confidence level, and population variability.
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Question 7
The ongoing process of systematically identifying, assessing, and developing organizational leadership to enhance performance is known as:
1. Strategic and workforce planning
2. Predictive workforce monitoring
3. Succession planning
4. Managerial decision
1. AStrategic and workforce planning
2. BPredictive workforce monitoring
3. CSuccession planning
4. DManagerial decision
Answer: (C) Succession planning
Explanation
Succession planning ensures leadership continuity by proactively developing internal talent for key leadership roles.

A. Strategic and workforce planning — focuses broadly on overall workforce numbers and skill forecasting across all organizational tiers.

B. Predictive workforce monitoring — involves tracking workforce analytics and turnover probabilities rather than grooming future leaders.

C. Succession planning — correct. It is specifically designed to identify high-potential employees and systematically prepare them to fill critical leadership vacancies.

D. Managerial decision — refers to standard choices made by managers across everyday operational dilemmas.
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Question 8
Arrange the following examples of business cycles in chronological order. (Old to New)

A. Dot Com bubble burst
B. Great Depression
C. Covid Pandemic
D. Global Financial Crisis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C, D
2. BB, A, D, C
3. CD, B, A, C
4. DC, D, A, B
Answer: (B) B, A, D, C
Explanation
Major macroeconomic downturns and crisis events follow an established chronological timeline.

B, A, D, C

B. Great Depression — commenced with the Wall Street crash in October 1929 and lasted throughout the 1930s.

A. Dot Com bubble burst — equity markets peaked in early 2000 and collapsed between 2000 and 2002.

D. Global Financial Crisis — triggered by the subprime mortgage meltdown in 2007 and Lehman Brothers collapse in September 2008.

C. Covid Pandemic — economic lockdowns and worldwide recession began in early 2020.
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Question 9
Arrange the following Development Financial Institution in chronological order of their eastablishment (Old to New):

A. IFCI
B. IDBI
C. NABARD
D. SIDBI

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C, D
2. BB, A, C, D
3. CC, D, A, B
4. DD, C, B, A
Answer: (A) A, B, C, D
Explanation
India established specialized development financial institutions across distinct developmental phases.

A, B, C, D

A. IFCI (Industrial Finance Corporation of India) — established in July 1948 as India first development finance institution.

B. IDBI (Industrial Development Bank of India) — set up in July 1964 as an apex institution for term lending to industry.

C. NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) — established in July 1982 on the recommendation of the CRAFICARD Committee.

D. SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India) — set up in April 1990 as the principal financial institution for micro, small, and medium enterprises.
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Question 10
Which of the following is a horizontal agreement?
1. Tie in arrangement
2. Resale Price maintenance
3. Cartel
4. Exclusive Distribution
1. ATie in arrangement
2. BResale Price maintenance
3. CCartel
4. DExclusive Distribution
Answer: (C) Cartel
Explanation
Under competition law, horizontal agreements occur between competing enterprises at the same stage of production or distribution.

A. Tie in arrangement — vertical agreement under Section 3(4) of the Competition Act, 2002, tying one product purchase to another.

B. Resale Price maintenance — vertical agreement dictating minimum selling prices between manufacturer and distributor.

C. Cartel — correct. A cartel is an association of competing producers or sellers operating at the same market level to fix prices or limit supply, constituting a horizontal agreement under Section 3(3).

D. Exclusive Distribution — vertical agreement restricting the territory or customers to which a distributor may sell.
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Question 11

Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct option:

LIST-I	LIST-II
A. Deduction of Tax at source on fees for professional and technical services	I. Section 194 B
B. Deduction of Tax at source from income by way of rent	II. Section 193
C. Deduction of Tax at source from winnings from lotteries or crossword puzzles, etc.	III. Section 194-I
D. Deduction of Tax at source from interest on securities	IV. Section 194 J

AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
BA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
CA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
DA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Answer: (C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Explanation

Specific provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961 mandate tax deduction at source for distinct heads of payment.

A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

A. Fees for professional and technical services — matches IV. Governed by Section 194J.
B. Income by way of rent — matches III. Governed by Section 194-I.
C. Winnings from lotteries or crossword puzzles — matches I. Governed by Section 194B.
D. Interest on securities — matches II. Governed by Section 193.

Question 12
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to mathematical properties of standard deviation?

A. Standard deviation is independent of change of origin and change of scale.
B. Standard deviation is independent of change of origin but not of scale.
C. The standard deviation of first n natural numbers is √((n²-1)/12)
D. The standard deviation of first n natural numbers is √((n²-1)/6)
E. For moderately skewed distributions standard deviation is 0.8 of mean deviation.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AB and C Only
2. BB, C, and E Only
3. CA and C Only
4. DB, D and E Only
Answer: (A) B and C Only
Explanation
Standard deviation measures dispersion and exhibits specific mathematical and algebraic properties.

Statement A — incorrect. Standard deviation is affected by change of scale.

Statement B — correct. Adding or subtracting a constant leaves dispersion unchanged, whereas multiplying by a constant scales the standard deviation by that constant factor.

Statement C — correct. The variance of the first n natural numbers is (n² - 1)/12, so standard deviation is √((n² - 1)/12).

Statement D — incorrect. The denominator under the square root is 12, not 6.

Statement E — incorrect. In a moderately skewed distribution, Mean Deviation is approximately 0.8 (4/5) of Standard Deviation, which means Standard Deviation is 1.25 times Mean Deviation.
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Question 13
Arrange the following steps of incorporation of a new Limited Liability Partnership in proper sequence:

A. Reserve LLP Name
B. Preparation of Documents for Incorporation of LLP
C. Procure Digital Signature Certificate
D. LLP incorporation and DIN Application and apply for PAN and TAN
E. Drafting and filling LLP Agreement

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AB, A, C, D, E
2. BA, B, C, E, D
3. CC, A, B, D, E
4. DD, E, B, A, C
Answer: (C) C, A, B, D, E
Explanation
Incorporating a Limited Liability Partnership under the LLP Act, 2008 follows an orderly statutory procedure.

C, A, B, D, E

Step C (Procure Digital Signature Certificate) — proposed designated partners must first obtain digital signatures for e-filing.

Step A (Reserve LLP Name) — name reservation application is filed online through RUN-LLP.

Step B (Preparation of Documents) — subscriber sheets, consent letters, and proof of registered office are drafted.

Step D (LLP incorporation and DIN Application) — Form FiLLiP is filed for incorporation along with integrated DIN, PAN, and TAN applications.

Step E (Drafting and filling LLP Agreement) — the executed LLP Agreement is submitted in Form 3 within 30 days of incorporation.
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Question 14
A company has 10%, 20 lakh debentures. The EBIT of the company is ₹5,00,000 and the equity capitalisation rate is 16%. Calculate overall cost of capital.
1. 9.5%
2. 10.8%
3. 12.9%
4. 14.5%
1. A9.5%
2. B10.8%
3. C12.9%
4. D14.5%
Answer: (C) 12.9%
Explanation
Under the Net Income approach, overall cost of capital equals operating earnings divided by total market value of the enterprise.

Interest on debentures = 10% of ₹20,00,000 = ₹2,00,000
Earnings available to equity shareholders (NI) = EBIT - Interest = ₹5,00,000 - ₹2,00,000 = ₹3,00,000
Market value of equity (S) = NI / Ke = ₹3,00,000 / 0.16 = ₹18,75,000
Market value of debt (B) = ₹20,00,000
Total market value of firm (V) = S + B = ₹18,75,000 + ₹20,00,000 = ₹38,75,000
Overall cost of capital (Ko) = EBIT / V = ₹5,00,000 / ₹38,75,000 = 12.903% ≈ 12.9%
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Question 15
Symbols, Icons, Rituals and values are the manifestations of:
1. Social class
2. Culture
3. Sub-culture
4. Social Factors
1. ASocial class
2. BCulture
3. CSub-culture
4. DSocial Factors
Answer: (B) Culture
Explanation
Culture manifests at multiple observable and unobservable layers that shape human behaviour.

A. Social class — reflects hierarchical social divisions based on occupation, income, and education rather than cultural symbols and rituals.

B. Culture — correct. In cultural frameworks, culture is represented as an onion diagram whose outer layers comprise symbols, heroes or icons, and rituals, with core values at the center.

C. Sub-culture — represents smaller segments within a culture sharing distinct life experiences, but the four pillars define culture as a whole.

D. Social Factors — external reference groups, family, and roles that influence buyer choices.
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Question 16
In the PESTLE framework, what does 'L' stand for?
1. Labour
2. Legal
3. Land
4. Latest
1. ALabour
2. BLegal
3. CLand
4. DLatest
Answer: (B) Legal
Explanation
The PESTLE model audits the macro-environmental forces impacting an industry.

A. Labour — factor of production, not a standalone dimension in the macro acronym.

B. Legal — correct. The letters in PESTLE stand for Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Legal, and Environmental.

C. Land — classical factor of production.

D. Latest — colloquial term without environmental framework relevance.
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Question 17

Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct option:

LIST-I (Relative measures of Skewness)	LIST-II (Formula)
A. Karl Pearson's coefficient of skewness	I. (μ₃)²/(μ₂)³
B. Bowley's coefficient of skewness	II. (P₉₀+P₁₀-2 Median)/(P₉₀-P₁₀)
C. Kelly's coefficient of skewness	III. (Q₃+Q₁-2 Median)/(Q₃-Q₁)
D. Moment coefficient of skewness	IV. (Mean-Mode)/Standard Deviation

AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
BA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
CA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
DA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Answer: (B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Explanation

Skewness measures the degree of asymmetry in a statistical frequency distribution using distinct statistical measures.

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

A. Karl Pearson coefficient of skewness — matches IV. Defined as (Mean - Mode) / Standard Deviation.
B. Bowley coefficient of skewness — matches III. Based on quartiles, computed as (Q₃ + Q₁ - 2 Median) / (Q₃ - Q₁).
C. Kelly coefficient of skewness — matches II. Based on percentiles or deciles, formulated as (P₉₀ + P₁₀ - 2 Median) / (P₉₀ - P₁₀).
D. Moment coefficient of skewness — matches I. Given by β₁ = (μ₃)² / (μ₂)³.

Question 18

Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct option:

LIST-I (Product Life Cycle Stages)	LIST-II (Adopter Categories)
A. Introduction	I. Laggards
B. Growth	II. Early Adopters
C. Maturity	III. Middle Majority
D. Decline	IV. Innovators

AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
BA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
CA-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
DA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Answer: (C) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Explanation

Product life cycle stages correspond directly with customer adopter groups in the diffusion of innovations.

A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

A. Introduction — matches IV. Innovators are the first venturesome buyers who adopt the offering at launch.
B. Growth — matches II. Early adopters follow innovators and drive the rapid market expansion phase.
C. Maturity — matches III. The middle majority (early and late majority) adopts the product as it reaches full market saturation.
D. Decline — matches I. Laggards are tradition-bound consumers who only buy when the product is in obsolescence.

Question 19
Geographical Price differentials include which of the following?

A. F.O.B Factory Pricing
B. Zone Pricing
C. Loss Leader Pricing
D. Postage Stamp Pricing
E. Basing Point Pricing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C, D Only
2. BB, C, D, E Only
3. CA, B, D, E Only
4. DB, D, E Only
Answer: (C) A, B, D, E Only
Explanation
Geographical pricing structures vary prices according to freight charges and customer distance from the seller.

A. F.O.B Factory Pricing — buyer pays all freight costs from the factory gate.

B. Zone Pricing — customers within designated geographic zones pay uniform delivered prices.

C. Loss Leader Pricing — promotional pricing technique selling select items below cost to generate store footfall, not a geographical pricing differential.

D. Postage Stamp Pricing — uniform delivered pricing where identical prices are charged regardless of buyer location.

E. Basing Point Pricing — prices include factory price plus freight from a designated basing point city.
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Question 20

Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct option:

LIST-I	LIST-II
A. Prefatory Information	I. Executive Summary
B. Introductory Information	II. Glossary
C. Main Research Body	III. Problem Definition
D. Supplementary Information	IV. Research Design

AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
CA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
DA-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

Answer: (D) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

Explanation

A formal research report is structured into prefatory, introductory, core technical, and supplementary sections.

A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

A. Prefatory Information — matches I. Contains executive summaries, letter of transmittal, and title pages that precede the main text.
B. Introductory Information — matches III. Sets the background, problem definition, objectives, and scope of study.
C. Main Research Body — matches IV. Details the methodology, research design, sampling plan, and findings.
D. Supplementary Information — matches II. Consists of appendices, glossaries, and technical references placed at the end of the report.

Question 21
Any assessee (except an eligible assessee in respect of an eligible business referred to in section 44 AD or 44 ADA) must pay upto 75 percent of advance tax payable:
1. on or before June 15 of the previous year
2. on or before September 15 of the previous year
3. on or before December 15 of the previous year
4. on or before March 15 of the previous year
1. Aon or before June 15 of the previous year
2. Bon or before September 15 of the previous year
3. Con or before December 15 of the previous year
4. Don or before March 15 of the previous year
Answer: (C) on or before December 15 of the previous year
Explanation
Section 211 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 prescribes the statutory schedule of advance tax installments for corporate and non-corporate assessees.

A. June 15 — requires payment of not less than 15 percent of advance tax liability.

B. September 15 — requires cumulative payment of not less than 45 percent of advance tax liability.

C. December 15 — correct. Requires cumulative payment of not less than 75 percent of advance tax liability.

D. March 15 — requires payment of 100 percent of the advance tax liability.
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Question 22
Arrange the following needs in the correct sequence according to Maslow’s hierarchy:

A. Social Needs
B. Safety Needs
C. Esteem Needs
D. Physiological Needs
E. Self-actualisation Needs

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AD, B, A, C, E
2. BA, B, C, D, E
3. CB, D, C, E, A
4. DD, A, B, C, E
Answer: (A) D, B, A, C, E
Explanation
Maslow need hierarchy model orders human needs from fundamental physiological necessities to highest self-fulfillment.

D, B, A, C, E

D. Physiological Needs — basic biological survival needs such as food, water, and shelter.

B. Safety Needs — security, stability, and protection from physical and economic harm.

A. Social Needs — affection, belongingness, acceptance, and interpersonal relationships.

C. Esteem Needs — self-respect, autonomy, status, recognition, and attention.

E. Self-actualisation Needs — self-fulfillment and realizing one fullest personal potential.
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Question 23

Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct option:

LIST-I	LIST-II
A. Total Utility	I. MU₁+MU₂+______MUₙ
B. Marginal Utility	II. TUₙ - TUₙ₋₁
C. Average Fixed Cost	III. ΔTC/ΔQ
D. Marginal Cost	IV. TFC/Q

AA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
BA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
CA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
DA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Answer: (C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Explanation

Standard microeconomic formulas define consumer utility accumulation and production cost behavior.

A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

A. Total Utility — matches I. Total utility is the cumulative sum of marginal utilities derived from consuming n units, MU₁ + MU₂ + ... + MUₙ.
B. Marginal Utility — matches II. The change in total utility from consuming one additional unit is TUₙ - TUₙ₋₁.
C. Average Fixed Cost — matches IV. Total fixed cost divided by quantity produced, TFC / Q.
D. Marginal Cost — matches III. The rate of change in total cost per unit increase in output, ΔTC / ΔQ.

Question 24

Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct option:

LIST-I (Section)	LIST-II (Company Type)
A. Section 2(85)	I. Associate Company
B. Section 455	II. Producer Company
C. Section 378A	III. Dormant Company
D. Section 2(6)	IV. Small Company

AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
BA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
CA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
DA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Answer: (D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Explanation

The Companies Act, 2013 provides specific statutory definitions and registration chapters for different enterprise classes.

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

A. Section 2(85) — matches IV. Defines Small Company.
B. Section 455 — matches III. Governs Dormant Company status.
C. Section 378A — matches II. Governs Producer Companies inserted into Chapter XXIA of the Companies Act, 2013.
D. Section 2(6) — matches I. Defines Associate Company.

Question 25
What rights does an unpaid seller have against the goods?

A. Right of lien
B. Right to sue for specific performance
C. Right of resale
D. Right of stoppage of goods in transit
E. Right to reorganise possession of goods

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C Only
2. BB, C, D Only
3. CC, D, E Only
4. DA, C, D Only
Answer: (D) A, C, D Only
Explanation
Under Section 46 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, the unpaid seller possesses statutory rights exercised directly against the goods.

A. Right of lien — right to retain possession of the goods until the purchase price is paid.

B. Right to sue for specific performance — action against the buyer personally, not a real right against the goods.

C. Right of resale — right to resell perishable goods or goods upon giving notice to the buyer.

D. Right of stoppage of goods in transit — right to resume possession while goods are in course of transit if the buyer becomes insolvent.

E. Right to reorganise possession — non-statutory phrase without basis in the Sale of Goods Act.
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Question 26
What is the amount of net cash from operating activities of A Ltd. if it has net profit before tax ₹5,90,000, Depreciation on Property, Plant and Equipment ₹4,30,000, Decrease in current Assets ₹30,000, Decrease in Current Liabilities ₹85,000, and Tax Paid ₹80,000?
1. ₹9,65,000
2. ₹8,85,000
3. ₹10,75,000
4. ₹9,95,000
1. A₹9,65,000
2. B₹8,85,000
3. C₹10,75,000
4. D₹9,95,000
Answer: (B) ₹8,85,000
Explanation
Operating cash flow is computed by adjusting profit before tax for non-cash expenses, working capital changes, and tax payments.

Operating profit before working capital changes = Net profit before tax + Depreciation = ₹5,90,000 + ₹4,30,000 = ₹10,20,000
Working capital adjustments:

Decrease in Current Assets = ₹30,000

Decrease in Current Liabilities = ₹85,000
Cash generated from operations = ₹10,20,000 + ₹30,000 - ₹85,000 = ₹9,65,000
Less income tax paid = ₹9,65,000 - ₹80,000 = ₹8,85,000

The resulting net cash inflow from operating activities is ₹8,85,000.
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Question 27

Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct option:

LIST-I (Ind AS)	LIST-II (Subject)
A. Ind AS 2	I. Property, Plant and Equipment
B. Ind AS 16	II. Fair Value Measurement
C. Ind AS 103	III. Inventories
D. Ind AS 113	IV. Business Combinations

AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
BA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
CA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
DA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Answer: (C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Explanation

Indian Accounting Standards prescribe standardized valuation and presentation rules for corporate assets and transactions.

A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

A. Ind AS 2 — matches III. Deals with the measurement and reporting of Inventories.
B. Ind AS 16 — matches I. Governs the accounting treatment for Property, Plant and Equipment.
C. Ind AS 103 — matches IV. Details the acquisition method for Business Combinations.
D. Ind AS 113 — matches II. Provides the framework and hierarchy for Fair Value Measurement.

Question 28
Which of the following statements are incorrect for amalgamation in the nature of merger?

A. All the assets and liabilities of the transferor company are taken over by transferee company.
B. Shareholders holding not less than 95% of the face value of the equity shares of the transferor company become equity shareholders of the transferee company.
C. Payment of purchase consideration may be made in cash per share.
D. Journal entries for recording the merger are passed by pooling of intrest method.
E. The business of the transferor company is not intended to be carried on by the transferee company.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, and C Only
2. BB, C and D Only
3. CA and D Only
4. DB, C and E Only
Answer: (D) B, C and E Only
Explanation
Accounting Standard 14 defines specific statutory conditions to qualify as an amalgamation in the nature of merger.

Statement A — correct condition. All assets and liabilities of the transferor must be transferred to the transferee.

Statement B — incorrect condition. AS 14 requires equity shareholders holding not less than 90 percent of the face value of equity shares to become equity shareholders of the transferee company, not 95 percent.

Statement C — incorrect condition. Consideration must be discharged solely by equity shares, with cash allowed only for fractional shares.

Statement D — correct condition. Mergers must be recorded using the pooling of interests method.

Statement E — incorrect condition. The business of the transferor company is intended to be carried on by the transferee company.
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Question 29
The term ‘marketing myopia’ was coined by:
1. Philip Kotler
2. Gary Armstrong
3. Peter Drucker
4. Theodore Levitt
1. APhilip Kotler
2. BGary Armstrong
3. CPeter Drucker
4. DTheodore Levitt
Answer: (D) Theodore Levitt
Explanation
Marketing myopia describes a short-sighted and inward-looking approach to marketing focused on products rather than customer needs.

A. Philip Kotler — prominent marketing author who developed the societal marketing concept and comprehensive marketing management textbooks.

B. Gary Armstrong — co-author with Kotler of introductory marketing texts.

C. Peter Drucker — management thinker who stated that the business enterprise has two basic functions, marketing and innovation.

D. Theodore Levitt — correct. Coined the phrase in his seminal 1960 Harvard Business Review paper arguing that railroads stagnated because they defined themselves as railroad-oriented rather than transportation-oriented.
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Question 30
In case the income of an individual includes the income of ₹25,000 of his minor child in terms of section 64(IA), such individual shall be entitled to an exemption under section 10 (32) of:
1. ₹25,000
2. ₹1,500
3. ₹2,500
4. ₹15,000
1. A₹25,000
2. B₹1,500
3. C₹2,500
4. D₹15,000
Answer: (B) ₹1,500
Explanation
Section 10(32) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 provides an exemption to a parent whose minor child income is clubbed under Section 64(1A).

A. ₹25,000 — full income amount, which cannot be exempted in its entirety.

B. ₹1,500 — correct. The exemption is limited to the income of the minor child or ₹1,500 per minor child, whichever is lower.

C. ₹2,500 — arbitrary figure not found in Section 10(32).

D. ₹15,000 — incorrect threshold.
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Question 31
The cross price elasticity between two goods ‘A’ and ‘B’ is (-) 0.8. If the price of good ‘B’ rise by 20%, how will the demand for 'A' change?
1. (-)16%
2. 6%
3. (-)8%
4. (-)12%
1. A(-)16%
2. B6%
3. C(-)8%
4. D(-)12%
Answer: (A) (-)16%
Explanation
Cross price elasticity of demand calculates the percentage change in quantity demanded of one good in response to a percentage change in the price of another good.

Cross elasticity = Percentage change in demand of A / Percentage change in price of B
-0.8 = Percentage change in demand of A / 20%
Percentage change in demand of A = -0.8 × 20% = -16%

A negative cross elasticity indicates complementary goods, so an increase in the price of B reduces the quantity demanded of A by 16 percent.
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Question 32
ABC ltd. issued 2,000, 10% preference shares of ₹100 each at ₹95. Calculate the cost of preference shares.
1. 8.50%
2. 10.53%
3. 12.35%
4. 15.25%
1. A8.50%
2. B10.53%
3. C12.35%
4. D15.25%
Answer: (B) 10.53%
Explanation
The cost of irredeemable preference capital is calculated by dividing annual preference dividend by net issue proceeds per share.

Annual dividend per share = 10% of ₹100 = ₹10
Net proceeds per share = ₹95
Cost of preference shares (Kp) = Dividend / Net Proceeds = ₹10 / ₹95 = 0.10526 = 10.526% ≈ 10.53%

Issuing shares at a discount increases the effective cost above the nominal coupon rate of 10 percent.
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Question 33

Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct option:

LIST-I (Item)	LIST-II (Section)
A. Deduction in respect of medical insurance premium	I. Section 80CCH
B. Deduction in case of a person with disability	II. Section 80D
C. Deduction in respect of interest on loan taken for higher education	III. Section 80U
D. Deduction in respect of contribution to Agnipath Scheme	IV. Section 80E

AA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
BA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
CA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
DA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Answer: (C) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Explanation

Chapter VI-A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 provides deductions from gross total income for eligible payments and statuses.

A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

A. Medical insurance premium — matches II. Covered under Section 80D.
B. Person with disability — matches III. Covered under Section 80U for resident individual assessees with disability.
C. Interest on loan taken for higher education — matches IV. Covered under Section 80E.
D. Contribution to Agnipath Scheme — matches I. Inserted under Section 80CCH for contributions to the Agniveer Corpus Fund.

Question 34
Arm's length price as per section 92F is the price applied or proposed to be applied when:
1. two unrelated persons enter into a transaction in uncontrolled conditions
2. two related persons enter into a transaction in uncontrolled conditions
3. two unrelated persons enter into a transaction in controlled conditions
4. two related persons enter into a transaction in controlled conditions
1. Atwo unrelated persons enter into a transaction in uncontrolled conditions
2. Btwo related persons enter into a transaction in uncontrolled conditions
3. Ctwo unrelated persons enter into a transaction in controlled conditions
4. Dtwo related persons enter into a transaction in controlled conditions
Answer: (A) two unrelated persons enter into a transaction in uncontrolled conditions
Explanation
Section 92F(ii) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 defines the benchmark pricing standard for transfer pricing regulations.

A. two unrelated persons enter into a transaction in uncontrolled conditions — correct. Arm length price is defined as the price applied or proposed to be applied in a transaction between persons other than associated enterprises (unrelated parties), in uncontrolled conditions.

B. two related persons enter into a transaction in uncontrolled conditions — related persons form associated enterprises whose pricing is subject to testing.

C. two unrelated persons enter into a transaction in controlled conditions — uncontrolled conditions are required to reflect free market dynamics.

D. two related persons enter into a transaction in controlled conditions — this describes the actual controlled inter-company transfer price rather than the arm length benchmark.
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Question 35
Which of the following are applications of conservatism principle?

A. Valuation of stock in trade at the lower of cost or market value
B. Debiting drawings account and crediting purchases account when goods are withdrawn by proprietor
C. Making provision for bad and doubtful debts
D. Making provision for discount on creditors
E. Creation of investment fluctuation fund

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA and C Only
2. BA, B and D Only
3. CB, C and E Only
4. DA, C and E Only
Answer: (D) A, C and E Only
Explanation
The conservatism or prudence convention dictates anticipating all future losses while recognizing no unrealized gains.

A. Valuation of stock in trade at lower of cost or market value — application of prudence preventing asset overstatement.

B. Debiting drawings and crediting purchases — application of the separate business entity concept, not conservatism.

C. Making provision for bad and doubtful debts — anticipates potential future default losses from trade receivables.

D. Making provision for discount on creditors — violates conservatism because it anticipates an unrealized gain or discount before settlement.

E. Creation of investment fluctuation fund — creates a dedicated reserve buffer against prospective downward drops in market value of marketable securities.
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Question 36
Which of the following methods belong to the category of demand/market-based pricing?

A. Surge pricing
B. Premium pricing
C. ‘What the traffic can bear’ pricing
D. Discount pricing
E. Parity pricing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C and D Only
2. BB, C and D Only
3. CA, B and C Only
4. DC, D and E Only
Answer: (A) A, B, C and D Only
Explanation
Demand-based pricing strategies set price levels according to perceived customer value, elasticity, and buying pressure rather than production cost.

A. Surge pricing — adjusts rates upward in response to surges in consumer demand intensity.

B. Premium pricing — prices products high based on superior customer perceived quality and status demand.

C. What the traffic can bear pricing — sets price at the maximum amount customers are willing to pay.

D. Discount pricing — strategically lowers prices to attract price-sensitive demand segments.

E. Parity pricing — matches prevailing competitor rates and represents competition-based pricing rather than demand-based pricing.
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Question 37
A term loan becomes Non Performing Asset (NPA) if its interest and/or instalment of principal remains overdue for a period of more than:
1. 30 days
2. 60 days
3. 75 days
4. 90 days
1. A30 days
2. B60 days
3. C75 days
4. D90 days
Answer: (D) 90 days
Explanation
Reserve Bank of India prudential norms on income recognition and asset classification define non-performing status.

A. 30 days — marks Special Mention Account zero (SMA-0) threshold, not NPA.

B. 60 days — marks Special Mention Account one (SMA-1) boundary.

C. 75 days — falls within the SMA-2 category.

D. 90 days — correct. A term loan is classified as an NPA when interest or instalment of principal remains overdue for a period of more than 90 days.
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Question 38
The scheme of partial integration of tax or non-agricultural income with income derived from agricultural is applicable if an individual has:
1. Non-Agricultural income of more than the exemption limit or agricultural income exceeding ₹5000
2. Non-Agricultural income of more than the exemption limit or agricultural income exceeding ₹2500
3. Non-Agricultural income of more than the exemption limit and agricultural income exceeding ₹2500
4. Non-Agricultural income of more than the exemption limit and agricultural income exceeding ₹5000
1. ANon-Agricultural income of more than the exemption limit or agricultural income exceeding ₹5000
2. BNon-Agricultural income of more than the exemption limit or agricultural income exceeding ₹2500
3. CNon-Agricultural income of more than the exemption limit and agricultural income exceeding ₹2500
4. DNon-Agricultural income of more than the exemption limit and agricultural income exceeding ₹5000
Answer: (D) Non-Agricultural income of more than the exemption limit and agricultural income exceeding ₹5000
Explanation
Partial integration of agricultural income with non-agricultural income applies progressive tax rates when two cumulative conditions are met.

Condition 1 — net agricultural income must exceed ₹5,000 per annum.

Condition 2 — non-agricultural income must exceed the basic maximum exemption limit applicable to the individual.

Both criteria must be satisfied simultaneously (connected by 'and'), making statement 4 the accurate statutory rule.
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Question 39
Which of the following are key objectives of WTO?

A. Set rules for international trade
B. Resolve trade disputes
C. Resolve border disputes
D. Provide forum for negotiating trade liberalisation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, D Only
2. BA, C Only
3. CB, C, D Only
4. DA, B, C, D
Answer: (A) A, B, D Only
Explanation
The World Trade Organization operates as the global multilateral body administering international commercial trade rules.

A. Set rules for international trade — core objective through multilateral covered agreements such as GATT, GATS, and TRIPS.

B. Resolve trade disputes — primary mandate administered by the Dispute Settlement Body (DSB).

C. Resolve border disputes — territorial and geopolitical border disputes are sovereign political conflicts handled by the United Nations or International Court of Justice, not the WTO.

D. Provide forum for negotiating trade liberalisation — facilitates rounds of negotiations to progressively reduce tariff and non-tariff barriers.
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Question 40
In India, the term of every utility patent granted shall be of ______ years.
1. 10
2. 20
3. 30
4. 50
1. A10
2. B20
3. C30
4. D50
Answer: (B) 20
Explanation
Section 53(1) of the Patents Act, 1970 prescribes the statutory duration of patent protection in India.

A. 10 — design registrations run for an initial period of 10 years, not patents.

B. 20 — correct. In accordance with TRIPS compliance under the Patents (Amendment) Act, 2002, every patent granted is valid for a term of 20 years from the date of filing the application.

C. 30 — invalid statutory patent duration.

D. 50 — copyright runs for the lifetime of author plus 60 years, not 50 years for patents.
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Question 41
Under Current Purchasing Power (CPP) accounting, which of the following is a non-monetary item?
1. Cash
2. Debentures
3. Debtors
4. Inventories
1. ACash
2. BDebentures
3. CDebtors
4. DInventories
Answer: (D) Inventories
Explanation
Current Purchasing Power accounting distinguishes monetary assets and liabilities from non-monetary physical assets.

A. Cash — monetary asset whose nominal monetary claim is legally fixed regardless of price level changes.

B. Debentures — monetary liability payable as a fixed sum of money.

C. Debtors — monetary asset representing contractual rights to receive fixed monetary amounts.

D. Inventories — correct. Inventories are physical goods whose real economic values fluctuate with market changes and must be restated using conversion factors.
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Question 42
Arrange the following steps in multinational capital budgeting in proper sequence:

A. Estimate net cash flow from project
B. Determine net investment outlay
C. Apply appropriate evaluation technique
D. Identify appropriate discount rate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C, D
2. BC, A, B, D
3. CD, C, B, A
4. DB, A, D, C
Answer: (D) B, A, D, C
Explanation
Evaluating cross-border long-term investments requires a structured sequence of capital budgeting decisions.

B, A, D, C

Step B (Determine net investment outlay) — the firm calculates initial capital expenditure and foreign currency setup costs.

Step A (Estimate net cash flow from project) — forecast future operating cash flows and remittable parent cash flows across the project lifespan.

Step D (Identify appropriate discount rate) — determine the project cost of capital incorporating country risk, currency volatility, and inflation differentials.

Step C (Apply appropriate evaluation technique) — apply criteria such as Net Present Value or Adjusted Present Value to reach an investment decision.
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Question 43
Which of the following Ind AS deals with consolidated financial statements?
1. Ind AS 29
2. Ind AS 101
3. Ind AS 110
4. Ind AS 41
1. AInd AS 29
2. BInd AS 101
3. CInd AS 110
4. DInd AS 41
Answer: (C) Ind AS 110
Explanation
Specific Indian Accounting Standards establish reporting principles for group entities and consolidation.

A. Ind AS 29 — Financial Reporting in Hyperinflationary Economies.

B. Ind AS 101 — First-time Adoption of Indian Accounting Standards.

C. Ind AS 110 — correct. Governs Consolidated Financial Statements, establishing control as the single basis for consolidation.

D. Ind AS 41 — Agriculture.
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Question 44
Which type of FDI includes creation of new assets and production facilities?
1. Brownfield investment
2. Merger and Acquisition
3. Strategic alliances
4. Greenfield investment
1. ABrownfield investment
2. BMerger and Acquisition
3. CStrategic alliances
4. DGreenfield investment
Answer: (D) Greenfield investment
Explanation
Foreign Direct Investment entry modes differ based on whether existing facilities are purchased or new ones built.

A. Brownfield investment — foreign firm purchases or leases pre-existing production facilities and reprofiles them.

B. Merger and Acquisition — takes over or combines with an existing operational enterprise in the host country.

C. Strategic alliances — cooperative commercial agreements between independent firms without complete operational creation.

D. Greenfield investment — correct. Involves establishing brand new production plants, offices, and infrastructure from the ground up.
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Question 45
The Harmonic Mean of two numbers whose Arithmetic Mean and Geometric Mean are 30 and 24 respectively is:
1. 4.8
2. 9.6
3. 19.2
4. 76.8
1. A4.8
2. B9.6
3. C19.2
4. D76.8
Answer: (C) 19.2
Explanation
For any two non-zero positive numbers, the fundamental relationship among mathematical averages is Geometric Mean squared equals Arithmetic Mean multiplied by Harmonic Mean.

GM² = AM × HM
24² = 30 × HM
576 = 30 × HM
HM = 576 / 30 = 19.2

The harmonic mean of the two numbers is 19.2.
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Question 46
What is the primary liability of drawer of a bill of exchange or cheque?
1. Liability to compensate the holder incase of dishonour.
2. Liability to pay the amount at maturity.
3. Liability to provide sufficient funds to the drawee.
4. Liability to pay the holder without any condition.
1. ALiability to compensate the holder incase of dishonour.
2. BLiability to pay the amount at maturity.
3. CLiability to provide sufficient funds to the drawee.
4. DLiability to pay the holder without any condition.
Answer: (A) Liability to compensate the holder incase of dishonour.
Explanation
Under Section 30 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the drawer liability is secondary and conditional upon dishonour by the drawee.

A. Liability to compensate the holder incase of dishonour — correct. The drawer engages that on due presentment the bill or cheque shall be accepted and paid, and promises to compensate the holder if dishonoured upon due notice.

B. Liability to pay at maturity — primary and unconditional liability rests with the acceptor of a bill of exchange under Section 32, not the drawer.

C. Liability to provide sufficient funds — an implied obligation between customer and banker, not the statutory liability on the negotiable instrument.

D. Liability to pay without condition — maker of a promissory note undertakes unconditional primary liability, unlike a drawer.
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Question 47
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to transmission of shares?

A. No instrument of transfer is required.
B. Transmission of securities is generally made without any consideration.
C. Shares continue to be subject to the original liabilities.
D. Transmission takes place on death or insolvency of a holder of securities.
E. Stamp duty is payable on transmission of securities.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C, D Only
2. BB, C, D Only
3. CC, D, E Only
4. DA, B, C Only
Answer: (A) A, B, C, D Only
Explanation
Transmission of securities occurs automatically by operation of law rather than through voluntary contractual transfer.

Statement A — correct. No formal instrument of transfer (share transfer deed) is required for transmission.

Statement B — correct. Shares pass to legal heirs or official assignees without monetary consideration.

Statement C — correct. The shares remain subject to original claims and liabilities such as unpaid calls.

Statement D — correct. Transmission operates upon death, lunacy, or insolvency of the registered shareholder.

Statement E — incorrect. Unlike voluntary transfers, no stamp duty is payable on transmission of shares.
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Question 48
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to tax avoidance?

A. Tax avoidance is legitimate arrangement of affairs in such a way so as to minimize tax liability.
B. There is an element of malafide motive involved in tax avoidance.
C. Tax avoidance takes into account the loop-holes of law.
D. Tax avoidance is intentional attempt to avoid payment of tax after the liability to tax has arisen.
E. Tax avoidance is same as tax omission.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, C Only
2. BA, B, C Only
3. CB, D, E Only
4. DA, C, E Only
Answer: (A) A, C Only
Explanation
Tax avoidance operates strictly within the legal framework by taking advantage of statutory ambiguities.

Statement A — correct. Tax avoidance legally arranges affairs to minimize tax liability by adhering strictly to the letter of the law.

Statement B — incorrect. Malafide intention and deceit are hallmarks of illegal tax evasion, not tax avoidance.

Statement C — correct. Tax avoidance exploits lacunae, loopholes, or deficiencies in tax legislation.

Statement D — incorrect. Illegally refusing or evading payment after liability has accrued is tax evasion.

Statement E — incorrect. Tax omission refers to failure to submit required filings or reports.
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Question 49
Arrange the following steps of New Product Development in correct order:

A. Product Development
B. Feasibility Analysis
C. Concept Development and Testing
D. Identifying Prospective customers
E. Idea Generation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C, E, D
2. BD, E, B, C, A
3. CE, D, C, B, A
4. DE, B, C, A, D
Answer: (C) E, D, C, B, A
Explanation
The new product development process converts creative product concepts into commercial reality through ordered stages.

E, D, C, B, A

Step E (Idea Generation) — systematic search for new product opportunities and ideas.

Step D (Identifying Prospective customers) — screening ideas against target customer segments.

Step C (Concept Development and Testing) — turning ideas into detailed product concepts tested with consumers.

Step B (Feasibility Analysis) — conducting business and economic feasibility analysis to evaluate financial viability.

Step A (Product Development) — developing physical prototypes and engineering models.
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Question 50
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to properties of regression coefficient?

A. Correlation coefficient and two regression coefficients have same signs.
B. Coefficient of correlation is harmonic mean between regression coefficients.
C. If one regression coefficient is greater than unity, other must also be greater than unity.
D. If one regression coefficient is greater than unity, other must be less than unity.
E. Regression coefficient are independent of change of origin but not of scale.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, D Only
2. BB, C, E Only
3. CA, B, C Only
4. DA, D, E Only
Answer: (D) A, D, E Only
Explanation
Regression coefficients byx and bxy possess well-established mathematical properties linking them to Pearson r.

Statement A — correct. The correlation coefficient r and both regression coefficients byx and bxy must share the same positive or negative sign.

Statement B — incorrect. The correlation coefficient is the geometric mean of the regression coefficients, r = ±√(byx × bxy).

Statement C — incorrect. If both exceeded unity, their product would exceed 1, making r² > 1, which is mathematically impossible.

Statement D — correct. Since r² ≤ 1, if one regression coefficient is greater than 1, the other must be less than 1.

Statement E — correct. Regression coefficients are invariant to change of origin but change proportionally with a change of scale.
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Question 51
Arrange the following steps of adoption process in correct order:

A. Interest
B. Awareness
C. Trial
D. Evaluation
E. Adoption

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, D, C, B, E
2. BA, B, C, D, E
3. CB, C, A, E, D
4. DB, A, D, C, E
Answer: (D) B, A, D, C, E
Explanation
Everett Rogers individual adoption model traces the mental stages through which a consumer passes before adopting an innovation.

B, A, D, C, E

Step B (Awareness) — the consumer first becomes exposed to the innovation without full details.

Step A (Interest) — stimulated curiosity prompts the individual to seek additional information.

Step D (Evaluation) — the consumer mentally assesses whether trying the product makes sense.

Step C (Trial) — the product is tested on a limited scale to gauge real utility.

Step E (Adoption) — the decision is made to make full and regular use of the product.
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Question 52
Arrange the following in chronological order of their establishment (Old to New):

A. NAFTA
B. European Union
C. SAARC
D. ASEAN

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C, D
2. BB, A, D, C
3. CD, C, B, A
4. DC, D, A, B
Answer: (C) D, C, B, A
Explanation
Regional economic and political integration blocs were formed across distinct postwar decades.

D, C, B, A

D. ASEAN — founded on August 8, 1967 with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration.

C. SAARC — established on December 8, 1985 in Dhaka.

B. European Union — formally created on November 1, 1993 following the enforcement of the Maastricht Treaty.

A. NAFTA — came into force on January 1, 1994 between Canada, Mexico, and the United States.
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Question 53

Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct option:

LIST-I (Concept)	LIST-II (Formula)
A. Production Function	I. K(K,L)
B. Average Product	II. TPₙ - TPₙ₋₁
C. Marginal Product	III. Total Product/No. of units of variable factor
D. Constant Return to scale	IV. Q=f(a,b,c,......n)

AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
CA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
DA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Answer: (D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Explanation

Microeconomic production theory defines output relationships and returns to scale through formal equations.

A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

A. Production Function — matches IV. Expressed functionally as Q = f(a, b, c, ... n), showing maximum output achievable from given inputs.
B. Average Product — matches III. Computed as Total Product divided by the number of units of the variable factor.
C. Marginal Product — matches II. The incremental addition to total output from employing one more input unit, TPₙ - TPₙ₋₁.
D. Constant Return to scale — matches I. Represents linear homogeneity of degree one in capital and labour.

Question 54
Which of the following are the discounted cash flow techniques of capital budgeting?

A. Payback Period
B. Accounting rate of return (ARR)
C. Net Present Value (NPV)
D. Internal Rate of Return (IRR)
E. Profitability Index

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, C, D Only
2. BB, C, E Only
3. CC and D Only
4. DC, D and E Only
Answer: (D) C, D and E Only
Explanation
Capital budgeting methods divide into traditional non-discounted techniques and discounted cash flow techniques.

A. Payback Period — traditional rule measuring time to recover initial outlay without discounting cash flows.

B. Accounting rate of return (ARR) — uses accounting profits rather than discounted cash flows.

C. Net Present Value (NPV) — discounts future cash inflows at the cost of capital and subtracts initial investment.

D. Internal Rate of Return (IRR) — discount rate that equates the present value of future cash inflows with initial outlay.

E. Profitability Index — ratio of the present value of cash inflows to initial outlay.
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Question 55
If a random variable X follows a Poisson distribution such that P(X=1) = 4P(X=2), the variance of X is:
1. 1/2
2. 1
3. 2
4. 1/4
1. A1/2
2. B1
3. C2
4. D1/4
Answer: (A) 1/2
Explanation
In a Poisson distribution with parameter λ, the probability mass function is P(X=k) = (e^(-λ) × λ^k) / k!.

P(X=1) = e^(-λ) × λ
P(X=2) = (e^(-λ) × λ²) / 2
Given P(X=1) = 4 × P(X=2):
e^(-λ) × λ = 4 × [(e^(-λ) × λ²) / 2] = 2 × e^(-λ) × λ²
Dividing both sides by e^(-λ) × λ yields 1 = 2λ, so λ = 1/2

Because the mean and variance of a Poisson distribution both equal λ, the variance is 1/2.
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Question 56
A type of validity which demonstrates statistically a relationship between scores on a selection procedure and job performance is called:
1. Test validity
2. Criterion validity
3. Content validity
4. Construct validity
1. ATest validity
2. BCriterion validity
3. CContent validity
4. DConstruct validity
Answer: (B) Criterion validity
Explanation
Criterion validity evaluates whether assessment scores correlate with actual job outcome criteria.

A. Test validity — umbrella term for whether a test measures what it claims to measure.

B. Criterion validity — correct. Demonstrates a statistical relationship, such as correlation, between test scores and actual measures of employee job performance.

C. Content validity — confirms that test items adequately represent the full domain of tasks performed on the job.

D. Construct validity — establishes that a test accurately reflects an underlying psychological construct or trait.
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Question 57
Which of the following is NOT an element of Micro environment?
1. Customers
2. Suppliers
3. Technology
4. Competitors
1. ACustomers
2. BSuppliers
3. CTechnology
4. DCompetitors
Answer: (C) Technology
Explanation
The micro-environment comprises operating forces in immediate proximity to the firm, whereas macro-environmental forces are broad societal drivers.

A. Customers — immediate market participants whose purchasing decisions directly impact the firm.

B. Suppliers — direct partners providing operational inputs and raw materials.

C. Technology — correct non-element. Technological forces belong to the broad macro-environment (PESTLE).

D. Competitors — rival market players competing for identical customer segments.
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Question 58
“Active concealment of fact” is associated with which one of the following?
1. Misrepresentation
2. Undue influence
3. Fraud
4. Mistake
1. AMisrepresentation
2. BUndue influence
3. CFraud
4. DMistake
Answer: (C) Fraud
Explanation
Section 17 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 explicitly enumerates acts constituting statutory fraud.

A. Misrepresentation — governed by Section 18, involving positive assertions without intent to deceive.

B. Undue influence — governed by Section 16, where one party uses dominant position to obtain unfair advantage.

C. Fraud — correct. Under Section 17(2), fraud expressly includes the active concealment of a fact by one having knowledge or belief of the fact with intent to deceive.

D. Mistake — governed by Sections 20 to 22, dealing with erroneous beliefs concerning facts or law.
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Question 59
A Company holds raw material for 60 days, gets credit from suppliers for 15 days, production process takes 15 days, finished goods are held 30 days, and 30 days credit is given to debtors. Calculate the total working capital cycle:
1. 150 days
2. 120 days
3. 100 days
4. 90 days
1. A150 days
2. B120 days
3. C100 days
4. D90 days
Answer: (B) 120 days
Explanation
The net operating cycle measures the time between paying for materials and receiving cash from receivables.

Gross Operating Cycle = Raw Material Holding Period + Conversion/Production Period + Finished Goods Storage Period + Debtors Collection Period
Gross Operating Cycle = 60 + 15 + 30 + 30 = 135 days
Net Operating Cycle = Gross Operating Cycle - Creditors Payment Period
Net Operating Cycle = 135 - 15 = 120 days

The resulting net working capital cycle is 120 days.
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Question 60

Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct option:

LIST-I (Concept)	LIST-II (Definition)
A. Job enlargement	I. A list of jobs 'human requirements', i.e the requisite education, skills, personality etc.
B. Job descriptions	II. A list of jobs duties, responsibilities, reporting relationships, working conditions and supervisory responsibilities.
C. Job specifications	III. Assigning workers additional same level activities.
D. Job enrichment	IV. Redesigning jobs in a way that increases opportunities for workers to experience feelings of responsibility, achievement, growth and recognition.

AA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
BA-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
CA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
DA-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Answer: (A) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Explanation

Human resource management distinguishes job design strategies from the written outputs of job analysis.

A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

A. Job enlargement — matches III. Expands the scope of a job horizontally by adding more tasks of similar complexity.
B. Job descriptions — matches II. Outlines duties, responsibilities, reporting channels, and working conditions.
C. Job specifications — matches I. Specifies employee human qualities, education, experience, and competencies required.
D. Job enrichment — matches IV. Enhances job depth vertically by incorporating higher autonomy, responsibility, and growth.

Question 61
Which of the following requirements have to be satisfied in order that an assessee is entitled to claim deduction under section 91 for doubly taxed income?

A. The assessee must have been non-resident in India in the relevant previous year.
B. The assessee must have been resident in India in the relevant previous year.
C. Income must have been accrued or arisen to him during that previous year in India.
D. Income must have been accrued or arisen to him during that previous year outside India.
E. In respect of that income which accrued or arose outside India, he must have paid by deduction or otherwise tax under the law in force in the country in question.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA and C Only
2. BB and D Only
3. CB, D and E Only
4. DA, C and E Only
Answer: (C) B, D and E Only
Explanation
Section 91 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 grants unilateral relief from double taxation when no bilateral DTAA exists.

Requirement B — the assessee must be a resident in India during the relevant previous year.

Requirement D — the doubly taxed income must have accrued or arisen outside India.

Requirement E — the assessee must have paid tax in that foreign country by deduction or otherwise.

Non-residents cannot claim Section 91 relief, and income accruing in India is ineligible, confirming that only B, D, and E must be satisfied.
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Question 62
The price of a product decreases from ₹100 to ₹60 per unit. If the price elasticity of demand is 1.5 and the original quantity demanded is 30 units, what will be the new quantity demanded?
1. 38
2. 48
3. 56
4. 62
1. A38
2. B48
3. C56
4. D62
Answer: (B) 48
Explanation
Price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in product price.

Percentage change in price = [(60 - 100) / 100] × 100 = -40%
Price elasticity (magnitude) = 1.5
Percentage change in quantity demanded = 1.5 × 40% = 60%
Increase in quantity = 60% of 30 units = 18 units
New quantity demanded = 30 + 18 = 48 units

A 40 percent price drop leads to a 60 percent expansion in demand to 48 units.
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Question 63
Which of the following statements is incorrect for Management Audit?
1. Management audit is a statutory requirement.
2. Management audit is a comprehensive and critical review of all aspects of management process.
3. Management audit covers wide area of management activities and may be for more than one financial year.
4. The shareholders or board of directors may appoint the management auditor.
1. AManagement audit is a statutory requirement.
2. BManagement audit is a comprehensive and critical review of all aspects of management process.
3. CManagement audit covers wide area of management activities and may be for more than one financial year.
4. DThe shareholders or board of directors may appoint the management auditor.
Answer: (A) Management audit is a statutory requirement.
Explanation
Management audit is an optional internal evaluation mechanism rather than a legally mandated audit.

A. Management audit is a statutory requirement — incorrect statement. Management audit is voluntary and non-statutory, conducted to appraise managerial efficiency and policy adherence.

B. Comprehensive and critical review — accurate description of its scope evaluating managerial performance and planning.

C. Covers wide area across years — true because management audits are forward-looking and examine multi-year strategic progress.

D. Appointment by shareholders or directors — correct, management auditors are voluntarily engaged by governing corporate bodies.
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Question 64
The questions that are actually asked from the respondent are known as:
1. Management Questions
2. Research Questions
3. Investigative Questions
4. Measurement Questions
1. AManagement Questions
2. BResearch Questions
3. CInvestigative Questions
4. DMeasurement Questions
Answer: (D) Measurement Questions
Explanation
In business research design, the question hierarchy moves from administrative dilemmas to concrete survey instruments.

A. Management Questions — managerial dilemmas or action problems faced by decision-makers.

B. Research Questions — translation of the managerial dilemma into an inquiry framework.

C. Investigative Questions — specific issues the researcher must answer to resolve the research question.

D. Measurement Questions — correct. These are the specific survey questions and questionnaire items presented directly to respondents.
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Question 65
State Bank of India came into existence in which of the following years?
1. 1947
2. 1950
3. 1955
4. 1969
1. A1947
2. B1950
3. C1955
4. D1969
Answer: (C) 1955
Explanation
State Bank of India was constituted to foster rural credit and banking outreach across India.

A. 1947 — year of Indian independence.

B. 1950 — year the Indian Constitution came into force.

C. 1955 — correct. SBI was established on July 1, 1955 under the State Bank of India Act, 1955, taking over the Imperial Bank of India following recommendations of the All India Rural Credit Survey Committee.

D. 1969 — nationalization of 14 major commercial banks occurred in 1969.
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Question 66
Identify the areas of macro economics:

A. National Income
B. Balance of Payments
C. Level of savings and investment
D. Location of industry
E. Behaviour of firms

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B and C Only
2. BB, C and E Only
3. CB, C and D Only
4. DA, B, C, D and E
Answer: (A) A, B and C Only
Explanation
Macroeconomics studies aggregate economic phenomena across the economy rather than individual business units.

A. National Income — macro aggregate measuring total goods and services produced.

B. Balance of Payments — macro record of all economic transactions between an economy and the world.

C. Level of savings and investment — macroeconomic determinants of capital formation and aggregate output.

D. Location of industry — microeconomic and regional economic decision regarding individual factory placement.

E. Behaviour of firms — core subject of microeconomic theory of the firm.
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Question 67
In which of the following year Investor Protection and Education Fund Regulations was issued by the Securities and Exchange Board of India?
1. 1992
2. 1999
3. 2003
4. 2009
1. A1992
2. B1999
3. C2003
4. D2009
Answer: (D) 2009
Explanation
SEBI issued regulations to establish and administer a fund dedicated to investor education and advocacy.

A. 1992 — year the statutory SEBI Act, 1992 was enacted.

B. 1999 — year the Verma Committee submitted reports on weak banks.

C. 2003 — year major equity derivatives reforms were enacted.

D. 2009 — correct. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (Investor Protection and Education Fund) Regulations were officially notified in May 2009.
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Question 68
According to Levitt and Drucker, the essence of marketing is:
1. Profit Orientation
2. Product Orientation
3. Market Orientation
4. Customer Orientation
1. AProfit Orientation
2. BProduct Orientation
3. CMarket Orientation
4. DCustomer Orientation
Answer: (D) Customer Orientation
Explanation
Foundational management thinkers anchor marketing in understanding and fulfilling buyer satisfaction.

A. Profit Orientation — profit is an outcome of business success rather than the essence of the marketing concept.

B. Product Orientation — focuses internally on product quality while risking marketing myopia.

C. Market Orientation — broader operational stance, but Drucker and Levitt centered their philosophies directly on the customer.

D. Customer Orientation — correct. Peter Drucker asserted that the sole purpose of a business is to create and serve a customer, and Theodore Levitt urged building around customer desires.
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Question 69
Arrange the following in chronological order of the Milestone achieved by the National Stock Exchange of India:

A. Commencement of Trading in Index options
B. Launch of securities Lending and Borrowing Scheme
C. Commencement of Derivatives Trading in Index Futures
D. Launch of Mutual Fund Service System
E. Launch of S & P CNX Nifty

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AB, D, E, A, C
2. BA, C, E, B, D
3. CE, A, C, D, B
4. DE, C, A, B, D
Answer: (D) E, C, A, B, D
Explanation
The National Stock Exchange of India achieved landmark operational milestones in an established chronological progression.

E, C, A, B, D

E. Launch of S & P CNX Nifty — launched in April 1996 as the flagship benchmark index.

C. Trading in Index Futures — commenced in June 2000 on Nifty 50.

A. Trading in Index options — commenced in June 2001.

B. Securities Lending and Borrowing Scheme — formally launched in April 2008.

D. Mutual Fund Service System — launched in November 2009.
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Question 70
Which of the following types of audit report are termed together as modified reports as per standards on Auditing (SA) 705?

A. Qualified Report
B. Audit Report with an ‘Emphasis of Matter’ paragraph
C. Disclaimer of opinion Report
D. Adverse Report

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA and B Only
2. BA, B and C Only
3. CB and C Only
4. DA, C and D Only
Answer: (D) A, C and D Only
Explanation
Standard on Auditing 705 defines the three specific modifications to an independent auditor opinion.

A. Qualified Report — issued when financial statements contain material but not pervasive misstatements.

B. Emphasis of Matter — governed separately under SA 706 and does not constitute a modified opinion under SA 705.

C. Disclaimer of opinion Report — issued when unable to obtain sufficient audit evidence and effects could be material and pervasive.

D. Adverse Report — issued when misstatements are both material and pervasive to financial statements.
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Question 71
Which of the following formula correctly show the relationship Average Revenue (AR), Marginal Revenue (MR) and Price elasticity of demand?
1. MR = AR + e-1
2. AR = MR x e - 1/e
3. MR = AR x (e - 1)/e
4. MR = AR + e - 1/e + 1
1. AMR = AR + e-1
2. BAR = MR x e - 1/e
3. CMR = AR x (e - 1)/e
4. DMR = AR + e - 1/e + 1
Answer: (C) MR = AR x (e - 1)/e
Explanation
Joan Robinson established the algebraic relationship linking price, marginal revenue, and elasticity of demand.

MR = AR × (1 - 1/e) = AR × [(e - 1) / e]

When e = 1, MR = 0.

When e > 1, MR > 0.

When e < 1, MR < 0.

The correct algebraic relationship is MR = AR × (e - 1)/e.
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Question 72
Arrange the following exchange rate arrangements of international monetary system in chronological order (Old to New):

A. Gold Standard
B. Commodity Specie Standard
C. Fixed parity System
D. Floating exchange Rate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C, D
2. BB, A, C, D
3. CC, B, D, A
4. DB, C, A, D
Answer: (B) B, A, C, D
Explanation
The international monetary architecture evolved across successive monetary regimes over modern economic history.

B, A, C, D

B. Commodity Specie Standard — earliest system where physical silver, bimetallic, or gold coins circulated as currency.

A. Gold Standard — classical international gold standard prevailed from the 1870s until World War I in 1914.

C. Fixed parity System — Bretton Woods adjustable peg regime operated from 1944 until its breakdown in 1971.

D. Floating exchange Rate — generalized floating exchange rates became generalized following the 1973 collapse and 1976 Jamaica Accords.
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Question 73
Who can file petition to the Tribunal for the Winding up of a Limited Liability Partnership?

A. Secured Creditors
B. LLP or any of its Partners
C. Registrar of Companies
D. Any person authorised by the central Government
E. Any Voluntary Association

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C Only
2. BA and B Only
3. CA, B, C and D Only
4. DB, C and E Only
Answer: (C) A, B, C and D Only
Explanation
The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 and winding up rules specify eligible parties entitled to petition the NCLT.

A. Secured Creditors — any creditor has statutory standing to petition for winding up on grounds of inability to pay debts.

B. LLP or any of its Partners — the entity itself or individual partners can petition for winding up.

C. Registrar of Companies — authorized to petition on specific statutory default grounds.

D. Person authorised by Central Government — authorized following an investigative inspection.

E. Any Voluntary Association — third-party voluntary associations have no legal locus standi to petition for winding up an LLP.
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Question 74
If the employee pays tax within the parameters of alternative tax regime under section 115 BAC then from assessment year 2025-26, standard deduction from salary income is:
1. NIL
2. ₹50,000 or gross salary, whichever is lower
3. ₹75,000 or gross salary, whichever is lower
4. ₹40,000 or gross salary, whichever is lower
1. ANIL
2. B₹50,000 or gross salary, whichever is lower
3. C₹75,000 or gross salary, whichever is lower
4. D₹40,000 or gross salary, whichever is lower
Answer: (C) ₹75,000 or gross salary, whichever is lower
Explanation
Finance (No. 2) Act, 2024 revised the standard deduction under Section 16(ia) for salaried employees electing the Section 115BAC new tax regime.

A. NIL — standard deduction was initially unavailable when Section 115BAC was first enacted.

B. ₹50,000 — previous limit applicable for Assessment Year 2024-25.

C. ₹75,000 or gross salary, whichever is lower — correct. Effective from Assessment Year 2025-26, the standard deduction is enhanced to ₹75,000.

D. ₹40,000 — old standard deduction limit reintroduced in Finance Act 2018.
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Question 75
Which of the following are part of micro economics?

A. Product pricing
B. Consumer behaviour
C. Interest rate
D. Factor pricing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B and C Only
2. BA, B and D Only
3. CA and D Only
4. DA, B, C and D
Answer: (B) A, B and D Only
Explanation
Microeconomic theory studies individual economic units and their optimizing behavior across three traditional pillars.

A. Product pricing — analysis of demand and production cost determining individual commodity prices.

B. Consumer behaviour — utility and indifference curve analysis of individual consumer choices.

C. Interest rate — economy-wide interest rate determination across financial markets is primarily a macroeconomic topic.

D. Factor pricing — marginal productivity theories determining wages, rent, and profits for individual production factors.
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Question 76
An unsecured short term promissory note, negotiable and transferable by endorsement and delivery with a fixed maturity period, issued at a discount by creditworthy corporates, primary dealers and all-India financial institutions is known as:
1. Treasury Bill
2. Commercial Paper
3. Certificates of Deposit
4. Repo
1. ATreasury Bill
2. BCommercial Paper
3. CCertificates of Deposit
4. DRepo
Answer: (B) Commercial Paper
Explanation
Commercial paper serves as an unsecured short-term debt instrument in the money market.

A. Treasury Bill — short-term sovereign debt instrument issued exclusively by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the Central Government.

B. Commercial Paper — correct. Introduced in India in 1990 as an unsecured promissory note issued at a discount with fixed maturity by highly rated corporate borrowers, primary dealers, and financial institutions.

C. Certificates of Deposit — negotiable money market receipt issued by scheduled commercial banks against deposited funds.

D. Repo — repurchase agreement for short-term borrowing backed by government securities collateral.
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Question 77
The type of market where few sellers are selling competing products to many buyers is known as:
1. Monopoly
2. Monopolistic Competition
3. Oligopoly
4. Perfect Competition
1. AMonopoly
2. BMonopolistic Competition
3. COligopoly
4. DPerfect Competition
Answer: (C) Oligopoly
Explanation
Market structures are defined by seller concentration and competitive interdependence.

A. Monopoly — market with a single producer having exclusive control over supply.

B. Monopolistic Competition — market structure with many sellers offering differentiated products.

C. Oligopoly — correct. Characterized by a few large sellers dominating the market and exhibiting strategic mutual interdependence.

D. Perfect Competition — characterized by numerous buyers and sellers trading identical, homogeneous products.
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Question 78
A company produces and sells 10,000 toys. The selling price per toy is ₹500, variable cost is ₹200 per unit and fixed operating cost is ₹25,00,000. Calculate operating Leverage:
1. 4 times
2. 5 times
3. 6 times
4. 8 times
1. A4 times
2. B5 times
3. C6 times
4. D8 times
Answer: (C) 6 times
Explanation
Degree of operating leverage measures the sensitivity of operating profit (EBIT) to changes in sales volume.

Sales = 10,000 × ₹500 = ₹50,00,000
Variable Cost = 10,000 × ₹200 = ₹20,00,000
Contribution = Sales - Variable Cost = ₹50,00,000 - ₹20,00,000 = ₹30,00,000
Fixed Cost = ₹25,00,000
Operating Profit (EBIT) = Contribution - Fixed Cost = ₹30,00,000 - ₹25,00,000 = ₹5,00,000
Operating Leverage = Contribution / EBIT = ₹30,00,000 / ₹5,00,000 = 6 times

The resulting operating leverage is 6 times.
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Question 79
Which of the following statements are correct?

A. If a company is an Indian company, it is automatically treated as a domestic company.
B. Foreign company means a company which is not a domestic company.
C. The residential status of an Indian company can be non-resident in India.
D. The residential status of a foreign company can never be resident in India.
E. Foreign income of a resident company in India is taxable.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B and C Only
2. BB, C and D Only
3. CA, C and E Only
4. DA, B and E Only
Answer: (D) A, B and E Only
Explanation
The Income-tax Act, 1961 establishes clear rules for corporate residential status and scope of total income.

Statement A — correct. Under Section 2(22A), an Indian company is by definition always a domestic company.

Statement B — correct. Under Section 2(23A), a foreign company means any company that is not a domestic company.

Statement C — incorrect. Under Section 6(3), an Indian company is perpetually resident in India and can never be non-resident.

Statement D — incorrect. Under Section 6(3)(ii), a foreign company is resident in India if its Place of Effective Management (POEM) in that previous year is in India.

Statement E — correct. A resident company is assessed on its global income, including foreign source income.
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Question 80
Identify the correct order in which the assets of the firm shall be applied in case of dissolution of a partnership firm:

A. Paying to each partner rateably what is due to him from the firm for advances as distinguished from capital.
B. Paying the residues if any to partners in the proportion in which they were entitled to share profit.
C. Paying the debts of the firm to third parties.
D. Paying to each partner rateably what is due to him on account of capital.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, C, D, B
2. BC, A, B, D
3. CC, A, D, B
4. DA, B, C, D
Answer: (C) C, A, D, B
Explanation
Section 48(b) of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 prescribes the statutory priority for applying firm assets upon dissolution.

C, A, D, B

Step C — first in paying the debts of the firm to third parties.

Step A — second in paying each partner rateably what is due to him from the firm for advances (loans) as distinguished from capital.

Step D — third in paying to each partner rateably what is due to him on account of capital contributions.

Step B — fourth the residue, if any, is divided among the partners in their profit-sharing proportions.
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Question 81
Identify the factors that determine the demand:

A. Price of the Commodity
B. Income of the Consumer
C. Taste and Preferences of Consumer
D. Size of Population

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA and B Only
2. BA, B and C Only
3. CB, C and D Only
4. DA, B, C and D
Answer: (D) A, B, C and D
Explanation
Market demand for an economic good is governed by both individual and aggregate demographic determinants.

A. Price of the Commodity — primary price determinant governing the inverse relationship in the law of demand.

B. Income of the Consumer — dictates purchasing power and shifts demand curves for normal and inferior goods.

C. Taste and Preferences of Consumer — subjective consumer inclinations and fashion trends shaping demand.

D. Size of Population — aggregate market determinant expanding the total customer base.
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Question 82
Arrange the following steps involved in the process of Voluntary Liquidation of a Limited Liability Partnership in correct order:

A. Declaration of Solvency
B. Designated Partners' Meeting
C. Partners' Meeting
D. Identification of an Insolvency Professional as liquidator
E. Filing of resolutions with Registrar of Companies and Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C, D, E
2. BC, B, D, A, E
3. CA, D, B, C, E
4. DE, D, C, B, A
Answer: (C) A, D, B, C, E
Explanation
Voluntary liquidation of an LLP under Section 59 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 proceeds through statutory checkpoints.

A, D, B, C, E

Step A (Declaration of Solvency) — majority of designated partners make an affidavit declaring solvency and lack of fraud.

Step D (Identification of an Insolvency Professional) — designated partners identify and obtain written consent from an IP to act as liquidator.

Step B (Designated Partners Meeting) — meeting of designated partners is held to approve the proposal and summon partners.

Step C (Partners Meeting) — general meeting of partners convenes to pass the special liquidation resolution within four weeks of solvency declaration.

Step E (Filing of resolutions) — approved resolutions are notified to the Registrar of Companies and IBBI within seven days.
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Question 83
Matrix Structure can be made more effective by following which of the guidelines given below?

A. Collective learning, coordination and integration of skills for obtaining the streams of technology.
B. Define the objectives of the project or task.
C. Clarify the roles, authority and responsibilities of managers and team members.
D. Ensure that influence is based on knowledge, information, rather than on rank.
E. Balance the power of functional and project managers.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C, D Only
2. BA, B, D and E Only
3. CB, C, D, and E Only
4. DA, B, C, E Only
Answer: (C) B, C, D, and E Only
Explanation
Matrix organizations balance dual command lines through clear governance and egalitarian communication.

A. Collective learning for streams of technology — refers to Prahalad and Hamel definition of organizational core competencies rather than matrix operations.

B. Define objectives — provides project teams with unambiguous benchmarks across both functional and project dimensions.

C. Clarify roles and authority — prevents role ambiguity and jurisdiction disputes between dual reporting lines.

D. Knowledge-based influence — ensures decisions rely on technical expertise rather than hierarchical rank.

E. Balance power — maintains structural equilibrium between project leaders and functional department heads.
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Question 84

Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct option:

LIST-I	LIST-II
A. Perception	I. A descriptive thought that a person holds about something.
B. Learning	II. A person's consistently favourable or unfavourable evaluations, feelings and tendencies toward an object or idea.
C. Belief	III. Changes in an individual's behaviour arising from experience.
D. Attitude	IV. The process by which people select, organise and interpret information to form a meaningful picture of the world.

AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
BA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
CA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
DA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Answer: (C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Explanation

Psychological constructs influence consumer decision-making through sensory interpretation and learned evaluations.

A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

A. Perception — matches IV. The process of selecting, organizing, and interpreting sensory inputs into a meaningful picture.
B. Learning — matches III. Enduring behavioural changes produced through direct or indirect experience.
C. Belief — matches I. A descriptive conviction or cognitive thought held regarding an object.
D. Attitude — matches II. An enduring predisposition of favourable or unfavourable evaluations and action tendencies.

Question 85

Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct option:

LIST-I (BOP)	LIST-II (Concept)
A. Balance of payment-current A/C	I. Inflow and outflow of capital
B. Balance of payment-capital A/C	II. International Transactions of goods and services
C. Balance of Trade	III. Import and export of goods only
D. Balancing item	IV. Entry for net errors and omissions

AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
BA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
CA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
DA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Answer: (D) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Explanation

The Balance of Payments accounting framework categorizes international transactions into distinct accounts.

A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

A. Balance of payment-current A/C — matches II. Records international trade in goods, services, income, and unilateral transfers.
B. Balance of payment-capital A/C — matches I. Records cross-border capital inflows and outflows such as loans and investments.
C. Balance of Trade — matches III. Represents net merchandise trade, covering the export and import of physical goods only.
D. Balancing item — matches IV. Statistical residual entry representing net errors and omissions to balance double-entry credits and debits.

Question 86
Which of the following countries were part of NAFTA?

A. United States
B. Canada
C. Mexico
D. Brazil

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B Only
2. BA, B, C Only
3. CB, C, D Only
4. DB, C Only
Answer: (B) A, B, C Only
Explanation
The North American Free Trade Agreement established a trilateral free-trade zone among three North American nations.

A. United States — founding member signatory to NAFTA in 1994.

B. Canada — founding member signatory to NAFTA in 1994.

C. Mexico — founding member signatory to NAFTA in 1994.

D. Brazil — South American nation that belongs to Mercosur and was never a member of NAFTA.
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Question 87
Arrange the following theories of international trade in chronological order (old to new):

A. Mercantilism Theory
B. Comparative Advantage Theory
C. Product Life Cycle Theory
D. Heckscher-Ohlin Theory

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AA, B, C, D
2. BA, B, D, C
3. CC, B, A, D
4. DB, A, C, D
Answer: (B) A, B, D, C
Explanation
Theories of international trade developed progressively from early bullionist doctrines to factor-endowment and modern innovation cycles.

A, B, D, C

A. Mercantilism Theory — dominant economic doctrine from the 16th to 18th centuries advocating trade surpluses.

B. Comparative Advantage Theory — formulated by David Ricardo in 1817 in On the Principles of Political Economy and Taxation.

D. Heckscher-Ohlin Theory — developed by Eli Heckscher in 1919 and Bertil Ohlin in 1933 based on factor proportions.

C. Product Life Cycle Theory — introduced by Raymond Vernon in 1966 to explain multinational production patterns.
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Question 88
Keeping a record of uncommonly good or undesirable examples of an employee's work-related behaviour and reviewing it with the employee at pre-determined times is known as:
1. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale
2. Critical Incident Method
3. Paired Comparison Method
4. Mixed Standard Scales
1. ABehaviorally Anchored Rating Scale
2. BCritical Incident Method
3. CPaired Comparison Method
4. DMixed Standard Scales
Answer: (B) Critical Incident Method
Explanation
Appraisal techniques utilize behavioural documentation to provide objective employee performance reviews.

A. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale — combines rating scales with critical incident anchors along graded behavioral continuum points.

B. Critical Incident Method — correct. Supervisors log specific outstanding and undesirable behavioral incidents as they occur and discuss them during periodic appraisals.

C. Paired Comparison Method — compares every employee against every other employee pairwise.

D. Mixed Standard Scales — uses hidden behavioral descriptions to reduce rating bias.
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Question 89
The parametric test that can be used for hypothesis testing of paired samples is:
1. t test
2. z test
3. Chi-Square test
4. Mann-whitney test
1. At test
2. Bz test
3. CChi-Square test
4. DMann-whitney test
Answer: (A) t test
Explanation
Parametric tests assume normal distributions to compare population parameters across related samples.

A. t test — correct. The paired samples t-test is the standard parametric statistical test used to compare means between two related or paired observations, such as before and after treatments.

B. z test — used when population variance is known and sample size is large, typically for single or two independent samples.

C. Chi-Square test — non-parametric test of categorical independence or goodness of fit.

D. Mann-whitney test — non-parametric equivalent of the independent two-sample t-test.
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Question 90

Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct option:

LIST-I (Term)	LIST-II (Explanation)
A. Nostro Account	I. Account held by a foreign bank with a local bank
B. Vostro Account	II. An Indian Bank's Swiss Franc A/C with a bank in Switzerland.
C. Bid	III. Price at which the dealer is willing to buy another currency.
D. Offer	IV. Price at which the dealer is willing to sell another currency.

AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
BA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
CA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
DA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Answer: (B) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Explanation

Foreign exchange operations rely on standardized correspondent banking accounts and market quotation terms.

A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

A. Nostro Account — matches II. Our account with you, referring to a domestic bank account held in foreign currency with a bank abroad.
B. Vostro Account — matches I. Your account with us, referring to an account maintained by a foreign bank with a domestic bank.
C. Bid — matches III. The rate at which the foreign exchange dealer is willing to purchase foreign currency.
D. Offer — matches IV. The ask rate at which the foreign exchange dealer is willing to sell foreign currency.

Question 91
Which strategy would be most effective in retaining employees and reducing attrition rate?
1. Making the resignation process more difficult
2. Increasing workload
3. Offering voluntary retirement
4. Offering increments and career growth opportunities
A mid-sized IT firm in India is facing multiple HR challenges as it expands. The company recently hired 200 employees but is struggling with high attrition, lack of structured training program and a weak performance appraisal system. Employees often feel over worked and underappreciated, leading to low engagement and motivation. The HR manager Priya wants to improve HR practices by implementing a structured performance appraisal system launching employee wellness program and using HR technology for recruitment. However she face resistance from senior management, who think those initiative will increase cost without direct financial benefits.

Additionally, employee feedback indicates dissatisfaction with work life balance and unclear career progression. Some employees also feel that promotions are biased and that the company lack a proper succession plan.

Priya is considering introducing flexible work arrangements, setting up leadership development program and adopting AI- driven HR analytics to improve decision making. However, she needs to convince top management of the long term benefits of those changes.
1. AMaking the resignation process more difficult
2. BIncreasing workload
3. COffering voluntary retirement
4. DOffering increments and career growth opportunities
Answer: (D) Offering increments and career growth opportunities
Explanation
Employee retention improves when organizations resolve fundamental sources of job dissatisfaction.

A. Making resignation difficult — artificial bureaucratic barriers worsen employee frustration and destroy organizational culture.

B. Increasing workload — the passage explicitly notes employees already feel overworked and underappreciated.

C. Offering voluntary retirement — downsizes the workforce rather than retaining skilled staff.

D. Offering increments and career growth — correct. Provides direct recognition and clears up the career progression ambiguity identified in employee feedback.
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Question 92
Priya needs to address employee dissatisfaction with career progression. What should be her first step?
1. Encouraging employee to find new jobs
2. Reducing training budgets
3. Conducting skill gap analysis and creating career development plan
4. Promoting only senior employee
A mid-sized IT firm in India is facing multiple HR challenges as it expands. The company recently hired 200 employees but is struggling with high attrition, lack of structured training program and a weak performance appraisal system. Employees often feel over worked and underappreciated, leading to low engagement and motivation. The HR manager Priya wants to improve HR practices by implementing a structured performance appraisal system launching employee wellness program and using HR technology for recruitment. However she face resistance from senior management, who think those initiative will increase cost without direct financial benefits.

Additionally, employee feedback indicates dissatisfaction with work life balance and unclear career progression. Some employees also feel that promotions are biased and that the company lack a proper succession plan.

Priya is considering introducing flexible work arrangements, setting up leadership development program and adopting AI- driven HR analytics to improve decision making. However, she needs to convince top management of the long term benefits of those changes.
1. AEncouraging employee to find new jobs
2. BReducing training budgets
3. CConducting skill gap analysis and creating career development plan
4. DPromoting only senior employee
Answer: (C) Conducting skill gap analysis and creating career development plan
Explanation
Structured career paths require identifying employee current capabilities against organizational requirements.

A. Encouraging employee to find new jobs — directly contradicts retention objectives.

B. Reducing training budgets — worsening the already noted lack of structured training programs.

C. Conducting skill gap analysis and career development plans — correct. Establishes objective benchmarks and transparent advancement ladders to remove perceived promotion bias.

D. Promoting only senior employee — reinforces perceptions of biased, non-meritocratic advancement.
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Question 93
To convince senior management about HR investments, Priya should highlight:
1. The number of training program conducted
2. The positive feed back of customers
3. The financial impact of HR initiatives on business growth
4. The employees performance appraisal methods
A mid-sized IT firm in India is facing multiple HR challenges as it expands. The company recently hired 200 employees but is struggling with high attrition, lack of structured training program and a weak performance appraisal system. Employees often feel over worked and underappreciated, leading to low engagement and motivation. The HR manager Priya wants to improve HR practices by implementing a structured performance appraisal system launching employee wellness program and using HR technology for recruitment. However she face resistance from senior management, who think those initiative will increase cost without direct financial benefits.

Additionally, employee feedback indicates dissatisfaction with work life balance and unclear career progression. Some employees also feel that promotions are biased and that the company lack a proper succession plan.

Priya is considering introducing flexible work arrangements, setting up leadership development program and adopting AI- driven HR analytics to improve decision making. However, she needs to convince top management of the long term benefits of those changes.
1. AThe number of training program conducted
2. BThe positive feed back of customers
3. CThe financial impact of HR initiatives on business growth
4. DThe employees performance appraisal methods
Answer: (C) The financial impact of HR initiatives on business growth
Explanation
Senior executive resistance is overcome by linking human resource investments to commercial bottom-line results.

A. Number of training programs — operational activity metric that fails to demonstrate return on investment.

B. Positive customer feedback — general metric not directly tying HR operational cost to financial returns.

C. Financial impact of HR initiatives on business growth — correct. The passage notes senior management resists because they view initiatives as costs without direct financial benefits, so demonstrating commercial growth directly resolves their objection.

D. Appraisal methods — procedural detail rather than business justification.
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Question 94
If Priya wants to use HR analytics to predict labour turnover, which data should she analyse?
1. Employees social media engagements
2. Attrition trends and exit interview feedback
3. The number of training program
4. The number of leaves taken by employees
A mid-sized IT firm in India is facing multiple HR challenges as it expands. The company recently hired 200 employees but is struggling with high attrition, lack of structured training program and a weak performance appraisal system. Employees often feel over worked and underappreciated, leading to low engagement and motivation. The HR manager Priya wants to improve HR practices by implementing a structured performance appraisal system launching employee wellness program and using HR technology for recruitment. However she face resistance from senior management, who think those initiative will increase cost without direct financial benefits.

Additionally, employee feedback indicates dissatisfaction with work life balance and unclear career progression. Some employees also feel that promotions are biased and that the company lack a proper succession plan.

Priya is considering introducing flexible work arrangements, setting up leadership development program and adopting AI- driven HR analytics to improve decision making. However, she needs to convince top management of the long term benefits of those changes.
1. AEmployees social media engagements
2. BAttrition trends and exit interview feedback
3. CThe number of training program
4. DThe number of leaves taken by employees
Answer: (B) Attrition trends and exit interview feedback
Explanation
Predictive turnover analytics requires analyzing historical departure patterns and root-cause departure feedback.

A. Social media engagements — extraneous personal information with weak predictive validity for job turnover.

B. Attrition trends and exit interview feedback — correct. Directly reveals departure correlations, departmental turnover rates, and specific employee drivers of dissatisfaction.

C. Number of training programs — measures training volume rather than turnover intent.

D. Number of leaves taken — reflects leave utilization rather than systemic reasons for resignation.
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Question 95
Which HR strategy will help in developing future leaders in the organization?
1. Implementing intensive employee development program
2. Hiring only external candidates for leadership roles
3. Implementing performance-linked bonuses
4. Promoting employees based on seniority
A mid-sized IT firm in India is facing multiple HR challenges as it expands. The company recently hired 200 employees but is struggling with high attrition, lack of structured training program and a weak performance appraisal system. Employees often feel over worked and underappreciated, leading to low engagement and motivation. The HR manager Priya wants to improve HR practices by implementing a structured performance appraisal system launching employee wellness program and using HR technology for recruitment. However she face resistance from senior management, who think those initiative will increase cost without direct financial benefits.

Additionally, employee feedback indicates dissatisfaction with work life balance and unclear career progression. Some employees also feel that promotions are biased and that the company lack a proper succession plan.

Priya is considering introducing flexible work arrangements, setting up leadership development program and adopting AI- driven HR analytics to improve decision making. However, she needs to convince top management of the long term benefits of those changes.
1. AImplementing intensive employee development program
2. BHiring only external candidates for leadership roles
3. CImplementing performance-linked bonuses
4. DPromoting employees based on seniority
Answer: (A) Implementing intensive employee development program
Explanation
Developing future leadership internally requires comprehensive leadership development and developmental programs.

A. Implementing intensive employee development program — correct. The passage highlights setting up a leadership development program to build a leadership pipeline and resolve the lack of succession planning.

B. Hiring only external candidates — destroys internal succession pipelines and discourages employee commitment.

C. Performance-linked bonuses — provides short-term incentive compensation rather than leadership development.

D. Promoting based on seniority — rewards tenure rather than leadership competence.
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Question 96
In a volatile stock market, how the company can reduce financing risk when raising funds through equity?
1. Issue share only when market is at peak
2. Raise funds through long term bonds only
3. Reduce dividend payout to increase internal funds
4. Diversify source of funds by combining debt and equity financing
A large real estate company in India is facing challenges in raising funds for expansion. Despite solid track record the company is struggling to attract investors due to increasing concern about liquidity in the financial market. The company has earlier relied on bank loans and debt instruments for financing but now looking for other funding option.

The CFO of the company is evaluating different option such as corporate bonds, Private equity, public deposit and securitization to raise capital. He is also looking at the evolving role of financial institution such as investment banks, development banks and insurance companies in providing finance. However, he is concerned about the volatility of the stock market and the risk of inflation affecting company’s future cashflow.

To address these challenges, the company plan to consult with financial advisors and explore new avenues of funding, including green bonds and venture capital. The CFO must navigate the complex world of financial markets to ensure that the company secures the right funding at the right cost.
1. AIssue share only when market is at peak
2. BRaise funds through long term bonds only
3. CReduce dividend payout to increase internal funds
4. DDiversify source of funds by combining debt and equity financing
Answer: (D) Diversify source of funds by combining debt and equity financing
Explanation
Market volatility is mitigated by spreading capital requirements across diverse financing avenues.

A. Issue shares only at peak — market timing is uncertain and difficult to execute reliably during volatile conditions.

B. Raise funds through long term bonds only — increases financial leverage risk and debt servicing obligations.

C. Reduce dividend payout — retains earnings but may be insufficient for massive capital expansion.

D. Diversify source of funds by combining debt and equity — correct. The passage highlights exploring balanced funding mixes across venture capital, private equity, and bonds to minimize exposure to any single market segment.
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Question 97
Which of the following is a primary function of financial markets in the economy?
1. Facilitating buying and selling of financial instruments
2. Offering financial advice to individual investors
3. Providing loan without collateral
4. Increasing revenues for the Government
A large real estate company in India is facing challenges in raising funds for expansion. Despite solid track record the company is struggling to attract investors due to increasing concern about liquidity in the financial market. The company has earlier relied on bank loans and debt instruments for financing but now looking for other funding option.

The CFO of the company is evaluating different option such as corporate bonds, Private equity, public deposit and securitization to raise capital. He is also looking at the evolving role of financial institution such as investment banks, development banks and insurance companies in providing finance. However, he is concerned about the volatility of the stock market and the risk of inflation affecting company’s future cashflow.

To address these challenges, the company plan to consult with financial advisors and explore new avenues of funding, including green bonds and venture capital. The CFO must navigate the complex world of financial markets to ensure that the company secures the right funding at the right cost.
1. AFacilitating buying and selling of financial instruments
2. BOffering financial advice to individual investors
3. CProviding loan without collateral
4. DIncreasing revenues for the Government
Answer: (A) Facilitating buying and selling of financial instruments
Explanation
Financial markets intermediate between economic units with surplus savings and units requiring investment capital.

A. Facilitating buying and selling of financial instruments — correct. The core primary function is providing marketplace liquidity and price discovery by enabling the trading of securities, bonds, and equities.

B. Offering financial advice — specialized service provided by financial advisors and planners, not the primary market function.

C. Providing loan without collateral — specific credit practice of select financial intermediaries, not the general market role.

D. Increasing revenues for the Government — fiscal outcome achieved through taxation, not the primary function of financial markets.
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Question 98
What would be the main concern for the company if it has to issue green bonds for financing?
1. High interest rate
2. Less repayment period
3. Limited investor demand due to niche market
4. Government restriction
A large real estate company in India is facing challenges in raising funds for expansion. Despite solid track record the company is struggling to attract investors due to increasing concern about liquidity in the financial market. The company has earlier relied on bank loans and debt instruments for financing but now looking for other funding option.

The CFO of the company is evaluating different option such as corporate bonds, Private equity, public deposit and securitization to raise capital. He is also looking at the evolving role of financial institution such as investment banks, development banks and insurance companies in providing finance. However, he is concerned about the volatility of the stock market and the risk of inflation affecting company’s future cashflow.

To address these challenges, the company plan to consult with financial advisors and explore new avenues of funding, including green bonds and venture capital. The CFO must navigate the complex world of financial markets to ensure that the company secures the right funding at the right cost.
1. AHigh interest rate
2. BLess repayment period
3. CLimited investor demand due to niche market
4. DGovernment restriction
Answer: (C) Limited investor demand due to niche market
Explanation
Green bonds are specialized debt securities earmarked exclusively for sustainable and environmental projects.

A. High interest rate — green bonds often command a pricing premium (greenium) that offers lower yields rather than high interest.

B. Less repayment period — green bonds typically feature standard medium-to-long term maturities.

C. Limited investor demand due to niche market — correct. As specialized ESG instruments in emerging markets, they face a narrower investor base compared to conventional bond issuances.

D. Government restriction — regulatory frameworks actively encourage and incentivize green financing rather than restricting it.
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Question 99
What is the main advantage of raising capital through venture capital?
1. To avoid giving up ownership or control
2. To access expertise and guidance from investors
3. To get the fund for a very long term
4. To get a low cost funding
A large real estate company in India is facing challenges in raising funds for expansion. Despite solid track record the company is struggling to attract investors due to increasing concern about liquidity in the financial market. The company has earlier relied on bank loans and debt instruments for financing but now looking for other funding option.

The CFO of the company is evaluating different option such as corporate bonds, Private equity, public deposit and securitization to raise capital. He is also looking at the evolving role of financial institution such as investment banks, development banks and insurance companies in providing finance. However, he is concerned about the volatility of the stock market and the risk of inflation affecting company’s future cashflow.

To address these challenges, the company plan to consult with financial advisors and explore new avenues of funding, including green bonds and venture capital. The CFO must navigate the complex world of financial markets to ensure that the company secures the right funding at the right cost.
1. ATo avoid giving up ownership or control
2. BTo access expertise and guidance from investors
3. CTo get the fund for a very long term
4. DTo get a low cost funding
Answer: (B) To access expertise and guidance from investors
Explanation
Venture capital provides smart money by combining equity funding with strategic operational capability.

A. Avoid giving up ownership — venture capitalists always require significant equity ownership and board representation.

B. Access expertise and guidance — correct. Beyond capital, venture capitalists bring industry knowledge, network contacts, strategic governance, and business guidance to fuel rapid growth.

C. Fund for very long term — venture capital funds operate on strict 5 to 7 year exit cycles seeking liquidity events.

D. Low cost funding — equity dilution makes venture capital one of the most expensive forms of capital in terms of expected returns.
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Question 100
The company is considering corporate bonds as a funding option. Which factor is most likely to affect the interest rate of bond?
1. The number of projects completed by the company
2. The interest rate on Government securities
3. The credit rating of the bond
4. The level of Foreign Direct Investment
A large real estate company in India is facing challenges in raising funds for expansion. Despite solid track record the company is struggling to attract investors due to increasing concern about liquidity in the financial market. The company has earlier relied on bank loans and debt instruments for financing but now looking for other funding option.

The CFO of the company is evaluating different option such as corporate bonds, Private equity, public deposit and securitization to raise capital. He is also looking at the evolving role of financial institution such as investment banks, development banks and insurance companies in providing finance. However, he is concerned about the volatility of the stock market and the risk of inflation affecting company’s future cashflow.

To address these challenges, the company plan to consult with financial advisors and explore new avenues of funding, including green bonds and venture capital. The CFO must navigate the complex world of financial markets to ensure that the company secures the right funding at the right cost.
1. AThe number of projects completed by the company
2. BThe interest rate on Government securities
3. CThe credit rating of the bond
4. DThe level of Foreign Direct Investment
Answer: (C) The credit rating of the bond
Explanation
The coupon rate and required yield of a corporate bond reflect its specific creditworthiness and default risk premium.

A. Number of projects completed — qualitative historical indicator that does not directly price bond yields.

B. Interest rate on Government securities — sets the baseline risk-free benchmark, but the firm-specific rate is determined by the credit spread.

C. Credit rating of the bond — correct. The credit rating assigned by rating agencies evaluates financial stability and default risk, directly establishing the credit spread and interest rate the company must offer.

D. Level of FDI — macroeconomic indicator with indirect influence on domestic bond pricing.
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Attempt Paper 2 — Commerce as a timed test

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Frequently asked questions

How many questions were in the UGC NET Commerce June 2025 exam?

Paper 1 had 50 questions and Paper 2 (Commerce) had 100 questions, for 150 in total across 3 hours.

Is there negative marking in UGC NET?

No. Each correct answer earns 2 marks and there is no penalty for a wrong answer, so leaving a question blank is never better than attempting it.

Are the June 2025 answers on this page official?

Answers follow the official NTA answer key for this session. If you spot a discrepancy, use the report option inside the practice test and we will review it.

Can I attempt the June 2025 paper as a timed mock test?

Yes. Every paper on this page has an "Attempt this paper" button that opens the same questions in the timed test interface, with instant scoring and weak-area analysis afterwards.

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Attempt Paper 1 + Paper 2 (Commerce) together in a single timed session.

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More Commerce practice

All 2025 sessions All Commerce PYQs Commerce topic-wise practice Paper 1 topic-wise practice

Practice Paper 1 from other subjects

Every subject's exam sitting has its own Paper 1 (General Aptitude) set — more real PYQs to solve.

Paper 1 · English Literature sittings Paper 1 · Economics sittings Paper 1 · Computer Science & Applications sittings Paper 1 · Management sittings

Student	S1 (Out of 160)	S2 (Out of 160)	S3 (Out of 120)	S4 (Out of 120)	S5 (Out of 200)	S6 (Out of 240)
A	76	84	66	56	154	144
B	120	100	84	76	136	132
C	128	72	64	70	144	160
D	84	130	96	84	104	168
E	64	128	90	92	174	70
F	70	96	60	56	164	96

Student	S1 (Out of 160)	S2 (Out of 160)	S3 (Out of 120)	S4 (Out of 120)	S5 (Out of 200)	S6 (Out of 240)
A	76	84	66	56	154	144
B	120	100	84	76	136	132
C	128	72	64	70	144	160
D	84	130	96	84	104	168
E	64	128	90	92	174	70
F	70	96	60	56	164	96

Student	S1 (Out of 160)	S2 (Out of 160)	S3 (Out of 120)	S4 (Out of 120)	S5 (Out of 200)	S6 (Out of 240)
A	76	84	66	56	154	144
B	120	100	84	76	136	132
C	128	72	64	70	144	160
D	84	130	96	84	104	168
E	64	128	90	92	174	70
F	70	96	60	56	164	96

Student	S1 (Out of 160)	S2 (Out of 160)	S3 (Out of 120)	S4 (Out of 120)	S5 (Out of 200)	S6 (Out of 240)
A	76	84	66	56	154	144
B	120	100	84	76	136	132
C	128	72	64	70	144	160
D	84	130	96	84	104	168
E	64	128	90	92	174	70
F	70	96	60	56	164	96

Student	S1 (Out of 160)	S2 (Out of 160)	S3 (Out of 120)	S4 (Out of 120)	S5 (Out of 200)	S6 (Out of 240)
A	76	84	66	56	154	144
B	120	100	84	76	136	132
C	128	72	64	70	144	160
D	84	130	96	84	104	168
E	64	128	90	92	174	70
F	70	96	60	56	164	96

List-I (Cities)	List-II (Institutes)
A. New Delhi	I. Bhartendu Natya Akademy
B. Pune	II. Asian Academy of Films & T.V.
C. Noida	III. National Film Archive of India
D. Lucknow	IV. National School of Drama

List-I (Scientist)	List-II (Invention)
A. Tim Berners Lee	I. Computer Architecture
B. Fred Cohen	II. Father of modern computer
C. Charles Babbage	III. Virus
D. John Von Neumann	IV. World Wide Web

List-I (Cognitive domain level)	List-II (Suggested word)
A. Evaluation	I. Define
B. Knowledge	II. Appraise
C. Analysis	III. Distinguish
D. Application	IV. Demonstrate

List-I (n = number of Trials; p = probability of Success)	List-II (Means of Binomial Distribution)
A. n = 16, p = 0.8	I. 9.1
B. n = 21, p = 0.6	II. 9.2
C. n = 13, p = 0.7	III. 12.8
D. n = 23, p = 0.4	IV. 12.6

Student	S1 (Out of 160)	S2 (Out of 160)	S3 (Out of 120)	S4 (Out of 120)	S5 (Out of 200)	S6 (Out of 240)
A	76	84	66	56	154	144
B	120	100	84	76	136	132
C	128	72	64	70	144	160
D	84	130	96	84	104	168
E	64	128	90	92	174	70
F	70	96	60	56	164	96

Student	S1 (Out of 160)	S2 (Out of 160)	S3 (Out of 120)	S4 (Out of 120)	S5 (Out of 200)	S6 (Out of 240)
A	76	84	66	56	154	144
B	120	100	84	76	136	132
C	128	72	64	70	144	160
D	84	130	96	84	104	168
E	64	128	90	92	174	70
F	70	96	60	56	164	96

Student	S1 (Out of 160)	S2 (Out of 160)	S3 (Out of 120)	S4 (Out of 120)	S5 (Out of 200)	S6 (Out of 240)
A	76	84	66	56	154	144
B	120	100	84	76	136	132
C	128	72	64	70	144	160
D	84	130	96	84	104	168
E	64	128	90	92	174	70
F	70	96	60	56	164	96

Student	S1 (Out of 160)	S2 (Out of 160)	S3 (Out of 120)	S4 (Out of 120)	S5 (Out of 200)	S6 (Out of 240)
A	76	84	66	56	154	144
B	120	100	84	76	136	132
C	128	72	64	70	144	160
D	84	130	96	84	104	168
E	64	128	90	92	174	70
F	70	96	60	56	164	96

Student	S1 (Out of 160)	S2 (Out of 160)	S3 (Out of 120)	S4 (Out of 120)	S5 (Out of 200)	S6 (Out of 240)
A	76	84	66	56	154	144
B	120	100	84	76	136	132
C	128	72	64	70	144	160
D	84	130	96	84	104	168
E	64	128	90	92	174	70
F	70	96	60	56	164	96

UGC NET Commerce June 2025 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

UGC NET June 2025 at a glance

General Aptitude

Commerce

Paper 1 — General Aptitude

Question 1

Question 2

Question 3

Question 4

Question 5

Question 6

Question 7

Question 8

Question 9

Question 10

Question 11

Question 12

Question 13

Question 14

Question 15

Question 16

Question 17

Question 18

Question 19

Question 20

Question 21

Question 22

Question 23

Question 24

Question 25

Question 26

Question 27

Question 28

Question 29

Question 30

Question 31

Question 32

Question 33

Question 34

Question 35

Question 36

Question 37

Question 38

Question 39

Question 40

Question 41

Question 42

Question 43

Question 44

Question 45

Question 46

Question 47

Question 48

Question 49

Question 50

Paper 2 — Commerce

Question 1

Question 2

Question 3

Question 4

Question 5

Question 6

Question 7

Question 8

Question 9

Question 10

Question 11

Question 12

Question 13

Question 14

Question 15

Question 16

Question 17

Question 18

Question 19

Question 20

Question 21

Question 22

Question 23

Question 24

Student	S1 (Out of 160)	S2 (Out of 160)	S3 (Out of 120)	S4 (Out of 120)	S5 (Out of 200)	S6 (Out of 240)
A	76	84	66	56	154	144
B	120	100	84	76	136	132
C	128	72	64	70	144	160
D	84	130	96	84	104	168
E	64	128	90	92	174	70
F	70	96	60	56	164	96

Student	S1 (Out of 160)	S2 (Out of 160)	S3 (Out of 120)	S4 (Out of 120)	S5 (Out of 200)	S6 (Out of 240)
A	76	84	66	56	154	144
B	120	100	84	76	136	132
C	128	72	64	70	144	160
D	84	130	96	84	104	168
E	64	128	90	92	174	70
F	70	96	60	56	164	96

Student	S1 (Out of 160)	S2 (Out of 160)	S3 (Out of 120)	S4 (Out of 120)	S5 (Out of 200)	S6 (Out of 240)
A	76	84	66	56	154	144
B	120	100	84	76	136	132
C	128	72	64	70	144	160
D	84	130	96	84	104	168
E	64	128	90	92	174	70
F	70	96	60	56	164	96

Student	S1 (Out of 160)	S2 (Out of 160)	S3 (Out of 120)	S4 (Out of 120)	S5 (Out of 200)	S6 (Out of 240)
A	76	84	66	56	154	144
B	120	100	84	76	136	132
C	128	72	64	70	144	160
D	84	130	96	84	104	168
E	64	128	90	92	174	70
F	70	96	60	56	164	96

Student	S1 (Out of 160)	S2 (Out of 160)	S3 (Out of 120)	S4 (Out of 120)	S5 (Out of 200)	S6 (Out of 240)
A	76	84	66	56	154	144
B	120	100	84	76	136	132
C	128	72	64	70	144	160
D	84	130	96	84	104	168
E	64	128	90	92	174	70
F	70	96	60	56	164	96