|Computer Science & Applications · December 2023

UGC NET Computer Science & Applications December 2023 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

The complete UGC NET December 2023 question paper for Computer Science & Applications, covering Paper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (Computer Science & Applications). Every question below is shown with its options and the correct answer, and a detailed explanation you can unlock by signing in. All 150 questions are free to practise.

UGC NET December 2023 at a glance

ExamUGC NET December 2023
PapersPaper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (Computer Science & Applications)
Exam date(s)December 7, 2023
Shift(s)Shift 2
Paper 1 questions50 questions · 60 minutes · 100 marks
Paper 2 questions100 questions · 120 minutes · 200 marks
Total150 questions
Marking scheme+2 per correct answer · No negative marking
Paper 1

General Aptitude

UGC NET December 2023 · Computer Science & Applications sitting

50 questions60 min100 marks
Practice Now
Paper 2

Computer Science & Applications

UGC NET December 2023

100 questions120 min200 marks
Practice Now

Paper 1 — General Aptitude

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50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

  1. Question 1

    Across the state S, the total number of buildings constructed in 2016 is approximately what percentage of the total number constructed in 2018?

    Town2016201720182019202020212022
    A3000316032203272330033203400
    B2500256826402670279228002900
    C2960300030903100319232003268
    D3448350036003640366437603792
    E2040210022002230232023502380
    F2272238024602480253025602588
    1. A81
    2. B94
    3. C84
    4. D74

    Answer: (B) 94

    Explanation

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  2. Question 2

    What is the total number of buildings constructed in Town B over all the seven years?

    Town2016201720182019202020212022
    A3000316032203272330033203400
    B2500256826402670279228002900
    C2960300030903100319232003268
    D3448350036003640366437603792
    E2040210022002230232023502380
    F2272238024602480253025602588
    1. A17870
    2. B18780
    3. C17780
    4. D18870

    Answer: (D) 18870

    Explanation

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  3. Question 3

    What is the percentage increase in the number of buildings constructed in Town D in 2018 with reference to the previous year?

    Town2016201720182019202020212022
    A3000316032203272330033203400
    B2500256826402670279228002900
    C2960300030903100319232003268
    D3448350036003640366437603792
    E2040210022002230232023502380
    F2272238024602480253025602588
    1. A3.85%
    2. B2.85%
    3. C4.85%
    4. D4%

    Answer: (B) 2.85%

    Explanation

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  4. Question 4

    In the context of towns E and F together, what is the difference between the number of buildings constructed in 2021 and that in 2017?

    Town2016201720182019202020212022
    A3000316032203272330033203400
    B2500256826402670279228002900
    C2960300030903100319232003268
    D3448350036003640366437603792
    E2040210022002230232023502380
    F2272238024602480253025602588
    1. A630
    2. B830
    3. C430
    4. D410

    Answer: (C) 430

    Explanation

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  5. Question 5

    Total number of buildings constructed over the years from 2020 to 2022 is more than 8500 in exactly how many towns?

    Town2016201720182019202020212022
    A3000316032203272330033203400
    B2500256826402670279228002900
    C2960300030903100319232003268
    D3448350036003640366437603792
    E2040210022002230232023502380
    F2272238024602480253025602588
    1. A2
    2. B3
    3. C4
    4. D5

    Answer: (B) 3

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  6. Question 6

    Which collaborative ICT tool allows users to create digital bulletin boards to share and gather information?

    1. AX-mind
    2. BPadlet
    3. CBook creator
    4. DPlotagon

    Answer: (B) Padlet

    Explanation

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  7. Question 7

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: In Round-Robin cooperative learning strategy, students work together to achieve a common goal or complete a task.
    Statement II: In group investigation cooperative learning strategy, students take turns sharing their ideas, thoughts or solutions within their group.

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

    Explanation

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  8. Question 8

    Swayam Prabha channel 07 - Kautilya is related to which of the following subjects?

    A. Economics
    B. Library Science
    C. Commerce
    D. Finance
    E. Mathematics

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AB, D and E only
    2. BC and E only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (C) A, C and D only

    Explanation

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  9. Question 9

    In which strategy of cooperative learning are students separated into an inner and outer circle, where the inner circle discusses and the outer circle listens?

    1. ASnowball
    2. BFishbowl
    3. CJigsaw
    4. DThink-pair-share

    Answer: (B) Fishbowl

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  10. Question 10

    Which of the following are examples of Information Development Model?

    A. Self Awareness Model
    B. Gagne’s Information Model
    C. Jerome Bruner’s Model
    D. Schuman’s Model
    E. Group Investigation Model

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA, D and E only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DA, C and E only

    Answer: (C) B, C and D only

    Explanation

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  11. Question 11

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: The process of deduction involves drawing generalizable inferences out of observations.
    Statement II: Positivism advocates the application of methods of the natural sciences to the study of social reality.

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Explanation

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  12. Question 12

    Identify the threats to the internal validity of an investigation:

    A. History
    B. Instrumentation
    C. Maturation

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA and C only
    4. DA, B and C

    Answer: (D) A, B and C

    Explanation

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  13. Question 13

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Pearson’s coefficient of correlation r is a useful measure of the strength and direction of the relationship between two nominal variables.
    Statement II: Pearson’s coefficient of correlation r always lies between 0 and 1.

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

    Explanation

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  14. Question 14

    Which of the following refers to a method of sampling in which an initially sampled core group recruits or recommends other potential participants?

    1. ASimple random sampling
    2. BSnowball sampling
    3. CQuota sampling
    4. DStratified random sampling

    Answer: (B) Snowball sampling

    Explanation

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  15. Question 15

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Under UGC Regulations 2018 on Prevention of Plagiarism, a student must submit an undertaking that a thesis is original and free from plagiarism.
    Statement II: Under these regulations, the research supervisor is not required to certify that the work done under them is plagiarism free.

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

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  16. Question 16

    In conversations, the relevancy maxim means making:

    1. AMetaphoric remarks
    2. BAllusions
    3. CPertinent comments
    4. DRudimentary comments

    Answer: (C) Pertinent comments

    Explanation

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  17. Question 17

    Failure to understand the cultural environment can lead to:

    1. AInformation richness
    2. BExhibitionism
    3. CHigh-brow communication
    4. DMiscommunication

    Answer: (D) Miscommunication

    Explanation

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  18. Question 18

    The Buddhist mode of interpersonal communication emphasises:

    A. Unfettered use of language
    B. Unintelligible moral frames
    C. Symmetrical relations
    D. Consensus through interaction
    E. Verifiability of communication

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DA, D and E only

    Answer: (C) C, D and E only

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  19. Question 19

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Paralinguistic features express emotions and communicate personality traits.
    Statement II: Subtle vocal inflections can give special significance to verbal messages.

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    Explanation

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  20. Question 20

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: Type of meta communicationsList-II: Description/Example
    A. ExplicitI. An aggressive gesture modified with a smile
    B. ImplicitII. Comments on others’ communication behaviour
    C. VerbalIII. Sarcastic remarks
    D. Non-verbalIV. Comments about non-verbal behaviour
    1. A(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
    2. B(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
    3. C(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
    4. D(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

    Answer: (B) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

    Explanation

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  21. Question 21

    A milkman buys 20 litres of milk at Rs. 50 per litre. He adds mineral water costing Rs. 20 per litre, then sells the mixture at Rs. 60 per litre and makes a profit of Rs. 400. How much water did he add?

    1. A10 litres
    2. B8 litres
    3. C5 litres
    4. D4 litres

    Answer: (C) 5 litres

    Explanation

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  22. Question 22

    Identify the correct sequence of letters that completes the series:

    aabed _ _ _ bedbe _ _ _ dedab _ _ _

    1. Aabaabceedd
    2. Babcabacdd
    3. Cabaabdedd
    4. Dabcadbbed

    Answer: (A) abaabceedd

    Explanation

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  23. Question 23

    The total monthly salary of a couple is Rs. 2.0 lakh. Their salaries are in the ratio 5:3. If the husband and wife spend 40% and 20% of their salaries respectively, what is the ratio of their savings?

    1. A3:2
    2. B5:3
    3. C5:4
    4. D3:1

    Answer: (C) 5:4

    Explanation

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  24. Question 24

    In a certain coding scheme:

    “Family values are important” is written as “pa, ya, si, sa”.
    “Values are generally contagious” is written as “ya, da, ja, sa”.
    “Some diseases are contagious” is written as “ka, da, sa, ro”.

    What are the codes for “Contagious” and “Values”?

    1. Ada, sa
    2. Bda, si
    3. Cka, ya
    4. Dda, ya

    Answer: (D) da, ya

    Explanation

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  25. Question 25

    What is the next term in the number series?

    3, 14, 39, 84, ?

    1. A176
    2. B155
    3. C142
    4. D186

    Answer: (B) 155

    Explanation

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  26. Question 26

    Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing denotation?

    1. ACow, bovine, mammal, vertebrate, animal
    2. BMammal, vertebrate, bovine, animal, cow
    3. CVertebrate, animal, mammal, bovine, cow
    4. DAnimal, vertebrate, mammal, bovine, cow

    Answer: (A) Cow, bovine, mammal, vertebrate, animal

    Explanation

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  27. Question 27

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Truth and falsehood are attributes of individual propositions.
    Statement II: Validity can be attributed to any single proposition by itself.

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

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  28. Question 28

    Which fallacy is committed in the argument: “The universe must be spherical in form because all its constituent parts are spherical in form”?

    1. ACircular argument
    2. BRed herring
    3. CSlippery slope
    4. DFallacy of composition

    Answer: (D) Fallacy of composition

    Explanation

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  29. Question 29

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: “Pradeep’s mind is a cave: deep, dark and full of bats” is an analogy only descriptive in nature.
    Statement II: The same statement is an analogy that contains an argument.

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

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  30. Question 30

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Nyaya syllogism has three propositions.
    Statement II: Aristotelian syllogism has five propositions.

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

    Explanation

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  31. Question 31

    Which of the following is an online storehouse of academic awards such as certificates, diplomas, degrees and marksheets?

    1. ASWAYAM
    2. BNational Digital Library
    3. CNational Academic Library
    4. DNational Academic Depository

    Answer: (D) National Academic Depository

    Explanation

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  32. Question 32

    Identify the correct sequence of the missing units A-D used to represent file size, from smallest to largest.

    bit, __, __, __, __, teraByte (TB)
    A. byte
    B. gigaByte (GB)
    C. megaByte (MB)
    D. nibble

    1. AA, C, B, D
    2. BD, A, C, B
    3. CD, B, A, C
    4. DA, D, C, B

    Answer: (B) D, A, C, B

    Explanation

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  33. Question 33

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: A wiki is usually represented in reverse chronological order, whereas a blog has a structure determined by content and users.
    Statement II: A blog is usually personal or someone’s opinion, whereas a wiki is usually objective.

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Explanation

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  34. Question 34

    Which statements about firewalls in computer networks are true?

    A. Firewalls are only hardware devices and only examine traffic entering a network.
    B. Firewalls allow a user to set rules for network traffic.
    C. Firewalls automatically stop all malicious traffic.
    D. Firewalls back up all data transmitted around a network.
    E. Firewalls can block access to certain websites.

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA, C and D only
    2. BB and E only
    3. CB, D and C only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (B) B and E only

    Explanation

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  35. Question 35

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: Automatic data capture methodList-II: Description
    A. OCRI. System that reads pencil or pen marks on a piece of paper in predetermined positions
    B. OMRII. System that reads characters printed in a special ink, for example at the bottom of a bank cheque
    C. RFIDIII. Reading data directly from hard copy and converting into computer-readable form
    D. MICRIV. Use of minute electronic devices containing a microchip and antenna that can read from distances up to a few metres
    1. A(A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
    2. B(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
    3. C(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
    4. D(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

    Answer: (C) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

    Explanation

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  36. Question 36

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: The absence of fluoride in drinking water causes tooth decay.
    Statement II: Absence of fluoride in drinking water causes mottling of teeth, also known as dental fluorosis.

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

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  37. Question 37

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Under the Montreal Protocol, developed and developing nations have differentiated responsibilities.
    Statement II: Under the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol, CFCs and HCFCs were to be phased out.

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

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  38. Question 38

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Naturally occurring volatile organic compounds generally oxidise to form carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide.
    Statement II: Anthropogenically emitted volatile organic compounds play an important role in formation of smog.

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    Explanation

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  39. Question 39

    Which gas has the maximum contribution to global warming?

    1. AChlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
    2. BMethane (CH₄)
    3. CSulfur hexafluoride (SF₆)
    4. DCarbon dioxide (CO₂)

    Answer: (D) Carbon dioxide (CO₂)

    Explanation

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  40. Question 40

    Which statements are true about Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)?

    A. They are extremely widespread and occur from tropics to Arctic.
    B. They often accumulate in food webs and reach toxic concentrations.
    C. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are examples of POPs.
    D. They are widely used as flame retardants and in deodorants.
    E. Some chemicals used in non-stick, waterproof and stain-resistant products are categorised as POPs.

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA, B, C and D only
    2. BB, C, D and E only
    3. CA, B, D and E only
    4. DA, C and E only

    Answer: (C) A, B, D and E only

    Explanation

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  41. Question 41

    The Hindu College in Benares set up by Annie Besant before Independence proposed to impart:

    1. APhysical education
    2. BReligious and moral education
    3. CWestern education
    4. DMedical education

    Answer: (B) Religious and moral education

    Explanation

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  42. Question 42

    Which University was the largest in the initial years of Lord Curzon’s regime?

    1. ACalcutta
    2. BMadras
    3. CBombay
    4. DPunjab

    Answer: (A) Calcutta

    Explanation

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  43. Question 43

    Which were recommendations of the first educational conference held at Shimla in 1901?

    A. Appointment of only Indians as Vice-Chancellors of Indian Universities
    B. Importance to teaching and research in Sanskrit
    C. A thorough reform of Indian Universities
    D. Appointment of a Director-General of Indian education
    E. Co-ordination of rules for examinations

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DA, B and E only

    Answer: (C) C, D and E only

    Explanation

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  44. Question 44

    Which administrative reforms in universities were suggested by the National Knowledge Commission?

    A. Appointment of vice-chancellors on academic and administrative credentials
    B. De-politicisation of appointments
    C. Centralised control of universities
    D. Restrictions on academic freedom
    E. Creation of a good research environment

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DA, B and E only

    Answer: (D) A, B and E only

    Explanation

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  45. Question 45

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: The monastery of Vikramasila possessed a university with six colleges.
    Statement II: Vikramasila was a well-known centre of Tantric Buddhism and attracted students from other countries.

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    Explanation

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  46. Question 46

    The following are true about the country Bharat:

    A. It does not preserve its cultural heritage.
    B. It is overflowing with cultures.
    C. It does not have a variety of religions.
    D. It is a country of historical values.

    Choose the correct answer.

    Bharat, the country of historical values and sentiments overflowing with cultures and religions, changes with every mile, but is still known for preserving its rich cultural heritage. Moving towards global tourism, the ministry of ports, shipping and waterways recently created an experience for people that brought forth the historical, cultural and religious significance of our rivers. In January and February, the global tourism and cruise sector was abuzz with the news of the world’s longest river cruise MV Ganga Vilas. The cruise covered nearly 32,000 Km over 51 days, crossing 27 river systems across five states and two countries, via the Ganga-Brahmaputra river system. Starting from the heart of Uttar Pradesh in Varanasi to Dibrugarh in Assam, it had several stops and visits to nearly 50 locations.

    The Act East Policy of Prime Minister Narendra Modi and the focus on developing the national waterways made this historic voyage a reality. It was also a true demonstration of Atmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliant India) with a domestically manufactured vessel, a fully Indian crew, Indian decor, Indian cuisine, Indian art and craft, and products being showcased. The vessel with a zero-discharge policy also used the Indian Oil Corporation manufactured green fuel with the Dolphin Deterrent Device.

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BC and D only
    3. CA and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (D) B and D only

    Explanation

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  47. Question 47

    Which of the following is correct about MV Ganga Vilas?

    Bharat, the country of historical values and sentiments overflowing with cultures and religions, changes with every mile, but is still known for preserving its rich cultural heritage. Moving towards global tourism, the ministry of ports, shipping and waterways recently created an experience for people that brought forth the historical, cultural and religious significance of our rivers. In January and February, the global tourism and cruise sector was abuzz with the news of the world’s longest river cruise MV Ganga Vilas. The cruise covered nearly 32,000 Km over 51 days, crossing 27 river systems across five states and two countries, via the Ganga-Brahmaputra river system. Starting from the heart of Uttar Pradesh in Varanasi to Dibrugarh in Assam, it had several stops and visits to nearly 50 locations.

    The Act East Policy of Prime Minister Narendra Modi and the focus on developing the national waterways made this historic voyage a reality. It was also a true demonstration of Atmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliant India) with a domestically manufactured vessel, a fully Indian crew, Indian decor, Indian cuisine, Indian art and craft, and products being showcased. The vessel with a zero-discharge policy also used the Indian Oil Corporation manufactured green fuel with the Dolphin Deterrent Device.

    1. AIt is a tourist spot.
    2. BIt started from Haridwar.
    3. CIt is the world’s longest river cruise.
    4. DIt covered nearly 32,000 km over 27 days.

    Answer: (C) It is the world’s longest river cruise.

    Explanation

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  48. Question 48

    MV Ganga Vilas is a true demonstration of self-reliant India because:

    A. The decor is done by Indian designers.
    B. It serves both Indian and Western cuisine.
    C. It showcases Indian arts and crafts.
    D. It is operated by an all-Indian crew.

    Choose the correct answer.

    Bharat, the country of historical values and sentiments overflowing with cultures and religions, changes with every mile, but is still known for preserving its rich cultural heritage. Moving towards global tourism, the ministry of ports, shipping and waterways recently created an experience for people that brought forth the historical, cultural and religious significance of our rivers. In January and February, the global tourism and cruise sector was abuzz with the news of the world’s longest river cruise MV Ganga Vilas. The cruise covered nearly 32,000 Km over 51 days, crossing 27 river systems across five states and two countries, via the Ganga-Brahmaputra river system. Starting from the heart of Uttar Pradesh in Varanasi to Dibrugarh in Assam, it had several stops and visits to nearly 50 locations.

    The Act East Policy of Prime Minister Narendra Modi and the focus on developing the national waterways made this historic voyage a reality. It was also a true demonstration of Atmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliant India) with a domestically manufactured vessel, a fully Indian crew, Indian decor, Indian cuisine, Indian art and craft, and products being showcased. The vessel with a zero-discharge policy also used the Indian Oil Corporation manufactured green fuel with the Dolphin Deterrent Device.

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA, B, C and D
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (C) A, C and D only

    Explanation

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  49. Question 49

    “This historic voyage” refers to:

    Bharat, the country of historical values and sentiments overflowing with cultures and religions, changes with every mile, but is still known for preserving its rich cultural heritage. Moving towards global tourism, the ministry of ports, shipping and waterways recently created an experience for people that brought forth the historical, cultural and religious significance of our rivers. In January and February, the global tourism and cruise sector was abuzz with the news of the world’s longest river cruise MV Ganga Vilas. The cruise covered nearly 32,000 Km over 51 days, crossing 27 river systems across five states and two countries, via the Ganga-Brahmaputra river system. Starting from the heart of Uttar Pradesh in Varanasi to Dibrugarh in Assam, it had several stops and visits to nearly 50 locations.

    The Act East Policy of Prime Minister Narendra Modi and the focus on developing the national waterways made this historic voyage a reality. It was also a true demonstration of Atmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliant India) with a domestically manufactured vessel, a fully Indian crew, Indian decor, Indian cuisine, Indian art and craft, and products being showcased. The vessel with a zero-discharge policy also used the Indian Oil Corporation manufactured green fuel with the Dolphin Deterrent Device.

    1. AGlobal tourism
    2. BAct East Policy of Prime Minister Narendra Modi
    3. CMV Ganga Vilas cruise
    4. DDevelopment of national waterways

    Answer: (C) MV Ganga Vilas cruise

    Explanation

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  50. Question 50

    Evaluate the statements:

    Statement I: MV Ganga Vilas is an environment-friendly vessel.
    Statement II: MV Ganga Vilas is not an indigenously manufactured vessel.

    Choose the most appropriate answer.

    Bharat, the country of historical values and sentiments overflowing with cultures and religions, changes with every mile, but is still known for preserving its rich cultural heritage. Moving towards global tourism, the ministry of ports, shipping and waterways recently created an experience for people that brought forth the historical, cultural and religious significance of our rivers. In January and February, the global tourism and cruise sector was abuzz with the news of the world’s longest river cruise MV Ganga Vilas. The cruise covered nearly 32,000 Km over 51 days, crossing 27 river systems across five states and two countries, via the Ganga-Brahmaputra river system. Starting from the heart of Uttar Pradesh in Varanasi to Dibrugarh in Assam, it had several stops and visits to nearly 50 locations.

    The Act East Policy of Prime Minister Narendra Modi and the focus on developing the national waterways made this historic voyage a reality. It was also a true demonstration of Atmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliant India) with a domestically manufactured vessel, a fully Indian crew, Indian decor, Indian cuisine, Indian art and craft, and products being showcased. The vessel with a zero-discharge policy also used the Indian Oil Corporation manufactured green fuel with the Dolphin Deterrent Device.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

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Paper 2 — Computer Science & Applications

Attempt this paper

100 questions with the answer key and explanations.

  1. Question 1

    What is the probability that a positive integer selected at random from the set of positive integer not exceeding 100 is divisible by either 2 or 5 ?

    1. A10/5
    2. B3/5
    3. C2/5
    4. D1/5

    Answer: (B) 3/5

    Explanation

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  2. Question 2

    Which of the following is not a palindromic subsequence of the string "ababcdabba" ?

    1. Aabcba
    2. Babba
    3. Cabbbba
    4. Dadba

    Answer: (D) adba

    Explanation

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  3. Question 3

    Which of the following is TRUE ?

    1. AThe cost of searching an AVL tree is @ (log n) but that of binary search is 0(n)
    2. BThe cost of searching an AVL tree in @ (log n) but that of complete binary tree is @ (n log n)
    3. CThe cost of searching a binary tree is O(log n) but that of AVL tree is @ (n)
    4. DThe cost of searching an AVL tree is @ (n log n) but that of binary search tree is 0(n)

    Answer: (A) The cost of searching an AVL tree is @ (log n) but that of binary search is 0(n)

    Explanation

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  4. Question 4

    What is the result of evaluating the postfix expression "4325+b—" ?

    1. A8
    2. B14
    3. C10
    4. D5

    Answer: (A) 8

    Explanation

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  5. Question 5

    Which of the following circuit is used to store one bit of data ?

    1. AEncoder
    2. BDecoder
    3. CFlip-Flop
    4. DRegister

    Answer: (C) Flip-Flop

    Explanation

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  6. Question 6

    Identify the code sequence : 1010 1011 1001 1000

    1. ABCD
    2. BExcess-3
    3. CGray
    4. DExcess-3 gray

    Answer: (C) Gray

    Explanation

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  7. Question 7

    The microoperation which divides a signed binary number by 2 is :

    1. ACircular shift
    2. BLogical shift
    3. CArithmetic shift right
    4. DArithmetic shift left

    Answer: (B) Logical shift

    Explanation

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  8. Question 8

    A program that is used by other routines to accomplish a particular task, is called :

    1. AMicro program
    2. BMicro operation
    3. CRoutine
    4. DSubroutine

    Answer: (D) Subroutine

    Explanation

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  9. Question 9

    Consider a triangle PQR with coordinates as P(0,0), Q(2,2) and R(10,4). If this triangle is to be magnified to four times its size while keeping R(10, 4) fixed, then the coordinates of the magnified triangle are :

    1. A(—20, —12), Q(—20, —4) and R(10, 4)
    2. B(—30, —12), Q(—22, —4) and R(10, 4)
    3. C(—25, —10), Q(22, —4) and R(10, 4)
    4. D(30, —12), Q(—22, 4) and R(10, 4)

    Answer: (B) (—30, —12), Q(—22, —4) and R(10, 4)

    Explanation

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  10. Question 10

    Which of the following statements is TRUE ?

    1. AVirtual functions do not implement polymorphism
    2. BVirtual functions do not permit calling of derived class functions using a base class pointer
    3. CWe can never build an object from a class containing a pure virtual function
    4. DPure virtual functions can never have a body

    Answer: (C) We can never build an object from a class containing a pure virtual function

    Explanation

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  11. Question 11

    What is the output of the following program ? #include<stdio.h> int main( ) { int i=3; while (i— —) { int i=10; i=} printf("%d", i); } printf("%d", i); }

    1. A990
    2. B9990
    3. C999-1
    4. D99-1

    Answer: (C) 999-1

    Explanation

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  12. Question 12

    The Hue of a colour is related to its :

    1. ALuminance
    2. BSaturation
    3. CIncandescence
    4. DWavelength

    Answer: (D) Wavelength

    Explanation

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  13. Question 13

    "CREATE TABLE T" in SQL is an example of : (14) Normalization

    1. ANormalization
    2. BDML
    3. CDDL
    4. DPrimary key

    Answer: (C) DDL

    Explanation

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  14. Question 14

    An Address in main memory is called :

    1. AVirtual address
    2. BMemory address
    3. CLogical address
    4. DPhysical address

    Answer: (D) Physical address

    Explanation

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  15. Question 15

    A system bus in which each data item is transferred during a time slice known in advance to both units source and destination is called :

    1. AMIMD
    2. BDMA
    3. Casynchronous bus
    4. Dsynchronous bus

    Answer: (D) synchronous bus

    Explanation

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  16. Question 16

    What is the output of the following program ? # include <stdio.h> # define SQR(x) (x*x) int main () {int a, b=3; a=SQR(b+2); printf("%d",a); return 0; }

    1. A25
    2. B11
    3. CGarbage value
    4. D24

    Answer: (B) 11

    Explanation

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  17. Question 17

    The head of a moving head disk with 200 tracks, numbered 0 to 199, has just finished a request at track 125, and currently serving a request at track 143. The queue of requests is given in the FIFO order as 86, 147, 91, 177, 94, 150, 102, 175, 130. What will be the total number of head movements required to satisfy these requests for SCAN algorithm ?

    1. A259 cylinders
    2. B169 cylinders
    3. C154 cylinders
    4. D264 cylinders

    Answer: (B) 169 cylinders

    Explanation

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  18. Question 18

    Given as 4 GB (= 4.3 x 10° bytes) of virtual space and typical page size of 4 KB and each page table entry is 5 bytes. How many virtual pages would this imply ? What is the size of whole page table ?

    1. A107500 and 20480 bytes
    2. B215000 and 40960 bytes
    3. C10750 and 10240 bytes
    4. D43000 and 1024 bytes

    Answer: (A) 107500 and 20480 bytes

    Explanation

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  19. Question 19

    In Linux, where is the user password stored ?

    1. A/etc/password
    2. B/root/password
    3. C/etc/passwd
    4. D/root/passwd

    Answer: (C) /etc/passwd

    Explanation

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  20. Question 20

    Has functions are used to produce the message digests which are then encrypted with a private key to get:

    1. APublic key
    2. BDigital signature
    3. CCipher text
    4. DData Encryption Standard

    Answer: (B) Digital signature

    Explanation

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  21. Question 21

    Let L={ab, aa, baa}. Which of the following strings are not in L*.

    1. Aabaabaaabaa
    2. Baaaabaaaa
    3. Cbaaaaabaaaab
    4. Dbaaaaabaa

    Answer: (C) baaaaabaaaab

    Explanation

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  22. Question 22

    Let A={a, b} and L=A*. Let x={a"b", n>0}. The languages L U X and X are respectively :

    1. ANot regular, Regular
    2. BRegular, Regular
    3. CRegular, Not regular
    4. DNot Regular, Not Regular

    Answer: (C) Regular, Not regular

    Explanation

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  23. Question 23

    Which of the following symbol table implementation is best suited if access time is to be minimum ?

    1. A_ Linear list
    2. BSearch tree
    3. CHash Table
    4. DSelf organisation list

    Answer: (C) Hash Table

    Explanation

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  24. Question 24

    Consider a Grammar E>E+n|ExXn|n for a sentence n+n Xn, the handles in the right-sentential form of the reduction are ?

    1. An,E+nandE+nxn
    2. Bn,E+nand E+Exn
    3. Cn,n+nandn+nxn
    4. Dn,E+nand Exn

    Answer: (D) n,E+nand Exn

    Explanation

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  25. Question 25

    Which data structure is typically used to implement hash table ?

    1. ALinked list
    2. BArray
    3. CBinary Tree
    4. DStack

    Answer: (B) Array

    Explanation

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  26. Question 26

    Which collision resolution technique involves maintaining a linked list of collided keys ?

    1. ALinear probing
    2. BQuadratic probing
    3. CChaining
    4. DDouble hashing

    Answer: (C) Chaining

    Explanation

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  27. Question 27

    Consider the following functions : f(n) = anv g(n) = 2" log? h(n) =n! Which of the following is true ?

    1. Aht) is 0 (fm)
    2. Bh(n) is 0 (g(n))
    3. Cg(n) is not 0 (f(n))
    4. D£(m) is 0 (g(m))

    Answer: (D) £(m) is 0 (g(m))

    Explanation

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  28. Question 28

    2-3-4 trees are B - trees of order 4. They are isometric of trees.

    1. AAVL
    2. BAA
    3. C2-3
    4. DRed-Black

    Answer: (D) Red-Black

    Explanation

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  29. Question 29

    The average time required to search a storage location in memory and obtain its contents is called :

    1. AAccess time
    2. BLatency time
    3. CResponse time
    4. DReading time

    Answer: (A) Access time

    Explanation

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  30. Question 30

    One of the purposes of using intermediate code in compilers is to :

    1. Amake parsing and semantic analysis simpler
    2. Bimprove error recovery and error reporting
    3. Cincrease the chances of reusing the machine independent code optimizer in other compilers
    4. Dimprove the register allocation

    Answer: (C) increase the chances of reusing the machine independent code optimizer in other compilers

    Explanation

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  31. Question 31

    The sum of minimum and maximum number of final states for a Deterministic Finite Automata (DFA) having 'P" state is equal to : () Pp

    1. Ap
    2. Bp-1
    3. Cp+1
    4. Dp+2

    Answer: (C) p+1

    Explanation

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  32. Question 32

    Test suite is consist of :

    1. ASet of defect cases
    2. BSet of boundary cases
    3. CSet of test cases
    4. DSet of nest cases

    Answer: (C) Set of test cases

    Explanation

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  33. Question 33

    A multiplexes combines for 100 Kbps channels using a time slot of 2 bits. What is the bit rate ?

    1. A100 Kbps
    2. B200 Kbps
    3. C40 Kbps
    4. D1000 Kbps

    Answer: (C) 40 Kbps

    Explanation

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  34. Question 34

    Which of the following is not a field in TCP header ?

    1. ASequence Number
    2. BChecksum
    3. CFregmentation offset
    4. DWindow size

    Answer: (C) Fregmentation offset

    Explanation

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  35. Question 35

    In "bit stuffing", each frame begins and ends with a bit pattern in hexadecimal ?

    1. AOx8c
    2. BOx6F
    3. COxEF
    4. DOx7E

    Answer: (D) Ox7E

    Explanation

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  36. Question 36

    Level - 0 DFD is also called as :

    1. AUse case Diagram
    2. BSequence Diagram
    3. CContext Diagram
    4. DPrototype Diagram

    Answer: (C) Context Diagram

    Explanation

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  37. Question 37

    What is the generic structure of Multi Agent System (MAS) ?

    1. ASingle agent with multiple objectives
    2. BMultiagents with a single objectives
    3. CMultiagents with diverse objectives and communication abilities
    4. DMultiagent with two objectives

    Answer: (C) Multiagents with diverse objectives and communication abilities

    Explanation

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  38. Question 38

    A point of fuzzy set A is a point xeX at which wA(x)=0.5

    1. ACore
    2. BSupport
    3. CCrossover
    4. Da-—cut

    Answer: (C) Crossover

    Explanation

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  39. Question 39

    In a genetic algorithm optimization problem the fitness function is defined as f(x) =x?- 4x +4. Given a population of four individuals with values of x : {1.5, 2.0, 3.0, 4.5} What is the fitness value of the individual that will be selected as the parent for reproduction in one generation ?

    1. A25
    2. B0
    3. C0
    4. D25

    Answer: (D) 25

    Explanation

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  40. Question 40

    In a feed forward neural network with the following specifications : Input layer has 4 neurons, hidden layer has 3 neurons and output layer has 2 neurons using the sigmoid activation function for given input values [0.5, 0.8, 0.2, 0.6] as well as the initial weights for the connections. WI : (0.1, 0.3, 0.5, 0.2] W2e [02,04 0.6,.0.2] Input layer to hidden layer weights W3 : [0.3, 0.5, 0.7, 0.2] W4 : (0.4, 0.1, 0.3] W5 : [0.5, 0.2, 0.4] Hidden layer to output layer weights What is the output of the output layer when the given input values are passed through neural network ? Round the answer to two decimal places :

    1. A[0.62, 0.68]
    2. B[0.72, 0.78]
    3. C[0.82, 0.88]
    4. D[0.92, 0.98]

    Answer: (A) [0.62, 0.68]

    Explanation

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  41. Question 41

    If universe of disclosure are all real numbers, then which of the following are true ?
    A. 3x ¥y (&+y=y)
    B. Wx Vy((K>0)\y<0)) xy) (©) 3x Sy (((X<0)(y<0))AGe—y>0))
    D. Vx Vy((x#0)A(y#0)>(xy#0)) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A) and (B) Only
    2. B(A), © and (D) Only
    3. C(A), (B) and (D) Only
    4. D(A), (B), () and (D) Only

    Answer: (D) (A), (B), () and (D) Only

    Explanation

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  42. Question 42

    If the universe of disclosure is set of integers, then which of the followings are TRUE ?
    A. Vn 3m(n2< m)
    B. 3n Vm(n < m2)
    C. Jn Vm(nm=m)
    D. Jn Sm(n?+m?=6)
    E. Jn dm(n+m=4 \ n—-m=1) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A), (B) and (©) Only
    2. B(B) and (C) Only
    3. C(©), (D) and @&) Only
    4. D(© and (E) Only

    Answer: (B) (B) and (C) Only

    Explanation

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  43. Question 43

    If N2=NXN, Nis set of natural numbers and R is relation on N2, s.t. RC N2xN2i.e. <x,y> R<u,v> xv =yu, then which of the followings are TRUE ?
    A. Reflexive
    B. Symmetric
    C. Transitive
    D. Assymmetric Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DA, B and C only

    Answer: (D) A, B and C only

    Explanation

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  44. Question 44

    The interface(s) that provide(s) I/O transfer of data directly to and from the memory unit peripheral is/are termed as :
    A. DMA (Direct Memory Access)
    B. IOP (Input-Output Processor)
    C. Serial Interface
    D. Parallel Interface Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. AA only
    2. BB only
    3. CA and B only
    4. DC and D only

    Answer: (C) A and B only

    Explanation

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  45. Question 45

    Which of the following(s) are main memory ?
    A. Virtual memory
    B. Cache memory
    C. RAM
    D. SSD Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A) and (© Only
    2. B(B) and (C) Only
    3. C(C) and (D) Only
    4. D(A), (B) and (© Only

    Answer: (B) (B) and (C) Only

    Explanation

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  46. Question 46

    Which of the following are tautology ?
    A. @3PAQ)3(23Q)
    B. (€3Q)Q)>PvQ) (CQ) (VAP) 3Q)((PV>P)R)
    D. (Q4(PAAP))3(R(PA=P)) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A) Only
    2. B(B) Only
    3. C(A) and(B) Only
    4. D(©) and (D) Only

    Answer: (C) (A) and(B) Only

    Explanation

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  47. Question 47

    Consider the three points P1(1, 2, 0), P2(3, 6, 20) and P3(2, 4, 6) and a view point C(0, 0, —10). Choose the correct options.
    A. P1 obscure P2, if viewed from
    C.
    B. 2 obscure P1, if viewed from
    C.
    C. P3 does not obscure P1, if viewed from
    C.
    D. P2 does not obscure P3, if viewed from
    C. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A), (B) and (© Only
    2. B(A), (© and (D) Only
    3. C(B), (©) and (D) Only
    4. D(A), (B) and (D) Only

    Answer: (B) (A), (© and (D) Only

    Explanation

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  48. Question 48

    Which of the statement are CORRECT ?
    A. Constructors are invoked automatically when the objects are created.
    B. Constructors do not have return types, not even void and therefore they cannot return values.
    C. Constructors cannot be inherited though a derived class can call the base class constructors.
    D. Constructors can be declared as virtual. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A), @) and (D) Only
    2. B(A), @) and (© Only
    3. C(B), (©) and (D) Only
    4. D(A), © and (D) Only

    Answer: (B) (A), @) and (© Only

    Explanation

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  49. Question 49

    Which one of the following statements are CORRECT ?
    A. Granularity is the size of data item in a database.
    B. Two operations in a schedule are said to be conflict if they belong to same transaction.
    C. Two schedulers are said to be conflict equivalent if the order of any two conflicting operations is the same in both schedules.
    D. Write operations which are performed without performing the write operation are known as Blind Writes. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A) and @) Only
    2. B(A), (B) and (C) Only
    3. C(A), (B) and (D) Only
    4. D(B) and (C) Only

    Answer: (B) (A), (B) and (C) Only

    Explanation

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  50. Question 50

    Which of the following is/are NOT CORRECT statement ?
    A. The first record in each block of the data file is known as actor record.
    B. Dense index has index entries for every search key value in the data file.
    C. Searching is harder in the B* tree than B— tree as the all external nodes linked to each other.
    D. In extendible hashing the size of directory is just an array of 24—, where d is global depth. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A), (B) and (©) Only
    2. B(A), (©) and (D) Only
    3. C(A), (B) and (D) Only
    4. D(A), (B), ©) and (D) Only

    Answer: (B) (A), (©) and (D) Only

    Explanation

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  51. Question 51

    Which of the following statements is/are NOT CORRECT about NUMA ?
    A. LOAD and STORE instructions are used to access remote memory.
    B. There is a single address space visible to all CPU.
    C. Access to local memory is slower than access to remote memory.
    D. When the access time to remote memory is hidden, the system is called NC - NUM
    A.
    E. In CC- NUMA, Coherent caches are present. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A) and (C) Only
    2. B(B) and (D) Only
    3. C(A) and (E) Only
    4. D(© and (D) Only

    Answer: (D) (© and (D) Only

    Explanation

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  52. Question 52

    Indexed/ grouped allocation is useful as :
    A. It supports both sequential and direct access.
    B. Entire block is available for data.
    C. It does not require lots of space for keeping pointers.
    D. No external fragmentation. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A) Only
    2. B(B) and (C) Only
    3. C(B) Only
    4. D(A), (B) and (D) Only

    Answer: (D) (A), (B) and (D) Only

    Explanation

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  53. Question 53

    Which of the following statements are CORRECT ?
    A. A process always check state of currently executing process to enter critical schema.
    B. Spin locks uses busy waiting.
    C. Periodically testing a variable until some value appear is known as busy waiting.
    D. Critical region is a part of program, where shared memory is kept.
    E. Printer daemon, continuously checks to see if there are any file to be printed. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A) and (B) Only
    2. B(B) and (C) Only
    3. C(B) and (D) Only
    4. D(B) and (B) Only

    Answer: (C) (B) and (D) Only

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  54. Question 54

    Three address codes can be represented in special structures known as :
    A. Quadruples
    B. Triples
    C. Patterns
    D. Indirect Triples Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A) and (B) Only
    2. B(A), (B) and (D) Only
    3. C(B) and (C) Only
    4. D(B), (Cand (D) Only

    Answer: (B) (A), (B) and (D) Only

    Explanation

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  55. Question 55

    Which of the statement is/are CORRECT ?
    A. Moore and Mealy machines are finite state machines with output capabilities.
    B. Any given Moore machine has an equivalent Mealy machine.
    C. Any given Mealy machine has an equivalent Moore machine.
    D. Moore machine is not a finite state machine. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A) and (B) Only
    2. B(A), (B) and (©) Only
    3. C(B) and (D) Only
    4. D(A), (B) and (D) Only

    Answer: (B) (A), (B) and (©) Only

    Explanation

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  56. Question 56

    The statement P(x) : "x=x?". If the universe of disclosure consists of integers, what are the following have truth values :
    A. PC)
    B. PC) () PQ)
    D. Ax P(x) (BE) Vx P(x) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A), @) and (E) Only
    2. B(A), (B) and (C) Only
    3. C(A), (B) and (D) Only
    4. D(B), (C) and (D) Only

    Answer: (C) (A), (B) and (D) Only

    Explanation

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  57. Question 57

    Which of the following statement are truth statements if universe of disclosure is set of integers :
    A. Vn(n?20)
    B. An(n?=2)
    C. Vn(n?>n)
    D. n(n*<0) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A) and (B) Only
    2. B(B) and (C) Only
    3. C(©) and (D) Only
    4. D(A) and (C) Only

    Answer: (D) (A) and (C) Only

    Explanation

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  58. Question 58

    Which of the following graphs are trees ? bs b @ d
    A. e f a b c d
    B. e f a b é d (9) e f a b c d
    D. e f Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A) and (B) Only
    2. B(A), (B) and (D) Only
    3. C(A) and (D) Only
    4. D(A), (B), (©) and (D) Only

    Answer: (A) (A) and (B) Only

    Explanation

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  59. Question 59

    Which of the following are example of CSMA channel sensing methods ?
    A. 1-persistent
    B. 2-persistent
    C. p-persistent
    D. o-persistent Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A), (B) and (D) Only
    2. B(A), © and (D) Only
    3. C(B), (C) and (D) Only
    4. D(A), (B) and (©) Only

    Answer: (B) (A), © and (D) Only

    Explanation

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  60. Question 60

    The selection of Spiral Model based on characteristics of requirements :
    A. Are requirements easily understandable and defined ?
    B. Do we change requirements quite often ?
    C. Can we define requirements early in the cycle ?
    D. Requirements are indicating a complex to be built Choose the correct answer from the options given below : @) © Only

    1. AC only
    2. BB only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (C) B and D only

    Explanation

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  61. Question 61

    The work done by UDP is/are :
    A. Congestion control
    B. Flow control
    C. Retransmission
    D. Segments transmission Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (Q)
    A. and
    D. Only

    1. AA and D only
    2. BC only
    3. CD only
    4. DB and C only

    Answer: (C) D only

    Explanation

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  62. Question 62

    Which of the following statement/s is/are NOT CORRECT ?
    A. OSPF is based on distance-vector routing protocol.
    B. Both link-state and distance-vector routing are based on the least cost goal.
    C. BGP4 is based on the path-vector algorithm.
    D. The three-node instability can be avoided using split horizon combined with poison reverse.
    E. _ RIP is based on link state algorithm. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A), (D) and &) Only
    2. B(A) and (B) Only
    3. C(B) and (C) Only
    4. D(8), ©) and (E) Only

    Answer: (A) (A), (D) and &) Only

    Explanation

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  63. Question 63

    Which of the following statement/s are CORRECT ?
    A. NRZ is a bipolar scheme in which the positive voltage define bit is 0 (zero).
    B. NRZ-L and NRZ-I both have an average signal rate of N/2.
    C. The idea of RZ and NRZ-L are combined into Manchester scheme.
    D. NRZ-L and NRZ-I both have DC component problems.
    E. The minimum bandwidth of Manchester and differential Manchester is 3 times that of NRZ. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A), @) and (©) Only
    2. B(A), (©), (©) and (&) Only
    3. C(B), (©) and (D) Only
    4. D(A), (B), (© and (E) Only

    Answer: (C) (B), (©) and (D) Only

    Explanation

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  64. Question 64

    Which of the following are commonly used parsing techniques in NLP (Natural Language Processing) for syntatic analysis.
    A. Top down parsing
    B. Bottom Up parsing
    C. Dependency parsing
    D. _ Statistical machine translation
    E. Earley parsing Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A), ©, (D), (E) Only
    2. B(B), (©), (P), (E) Only
    3. C(A), (B), (©), (E) Only
    4. D(A) and (B) Only

    Answer: (C) (A), (B), (©), (E) Only

    Explanation

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  65. Question 65

    In the content of Alpha Beta pruning in game trees which of the following statements are correct regarding cut off procedures ?
    A. Alpha Beta pruning can eliminate subtrees with certainly when the value of a node exceeds both the alpha and beta bonds.
    B. The primarily purpose of Alpha-Beta proning is to save computation time by searching fewer nodes in the same tree.
    C. Alpha Beta pruning guarantees the optimal solution in all cases by exploring the entire game tree.
    D. Alpha and Beta bonds are initialized to negative and positive infinity respectively at the root note. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A), ©), () Only
    2. B(B), (C), (DB) Only
    3. C(A), (B), (DB) Only
    4. D(©, (B) Only

    Answer: (C) (A), (B), (DB) Only

    Explanation

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  66. Question 66

    Match List-I with List-II.

    Source matching promptSource values
    See question stemSee answer choices
    1. A(A), (B)-(), (C)-C), (D)-(IV)
    2. B(A), (B)-@, (©), (D)-(IV)
    3. C(A)-(1, (B)-@, (C)-(V), (D)-C)
    4. D(A)-(0), (B)-(), (C)-(IV), (D)-

    Answer: (D) (A)-(0), (B)-(), (C)-(IV), (D)-

    Explanation

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  67. Question 67

    Arrange the following in ascending order :
    A. Remainder of 49!© when divided by 17
    B. Remainder of 24° when divided by 9
    C. Remainder of 155!" when divided by 17
    D. Last digits of the number 74° Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Q)
    A. @),.©,®) Q
    A. 8,0), ©

    1. AA, B, C, D
    2. BA, B, D, C
    3. CA, C, B, D
    4. DD, C, B, A

    Answer: (C) A, C, B, D

    Explanation

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  68. Question 68

    In most general case, the computer needs to process each instruction with the following sequence of steps :
    A. Calculate the effective address
    B. Execute the instruction
    C. Fetch the instruction from memory
    D. Fetch the operand from memory
    E. Decode the instruction Choose the correct answer from the options given below : @)
    A. , ®), ©, 0), ©

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BA, B, C, E, D
    3. CC, E, A, D, B
    4. DC, E, D, A, B

    Answer: (C) C, E, A, D, B

    Explanation

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  69. Question 69

    Consider the following code segment : int arr [] = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4}; int i=1, *ptr; ptr=arr+2; arrange the following printf statements in the increasing order of their output.
    A. printf ("%d", pti);
    B. printf ("%d", ptr[i+1]);
    C. _ printf ("%d", ptr[—i));
    D. printf ("%d", ptr[—i+1]); Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A©, (A), 8), ©)
    2. B(©, (), (A), 8)
    3. C(D), (A), (8). ©
    4. D(A), @), (D), ©

    Answer: (B) (©, (), (A), 8)

    Explanation

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  70. Question 70

    The steps for analysis and design of object oriented system.
    A. Draw interaction diagrams
    B. Draw state chart and object diagram
    C. Draw use case and activity diagram
    D. Draw component and deployment diagram
    E. Draw class diagram Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. AE → B → A → C → D
    2. BB → A → E → D → C
    3. CE → C → B → D → A
    4. DC → A → E → B → D

    Answer: (D) C → A → E → B → D

    Explanation

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  71. Question 71

    Arrange the following levels of interrupt protection within the Linux Kernel, in the order of increasing priority.
    A. user mode programs
    B. bottom half interrupt handlers
    C. kernel system service routines
    D. top half interrupt handlers Choose the correct answer from the options given below : ()
    A. ,
    B. , (P), ©

    1. ASource option 1: visual review required
    2. B(A), ©, (8), ©)
    3. C(A), ©, (), @)
    4. D(D), (A), (©), (B)

    Answer: (B) (A), ©, (8), ©)

    Explanation

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  72. Question 72

    Arrange the following phases of a compiler as per their order of execution (start to end)
    A. Target code generation
    B. Syntax Analysis
    C. Code optimization
    D. Semantic Analysis
    E. Lexical Analysis Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(B), (B), (D), (A), ©)
    2. B(&), (D), @), (A), (©
    3. C(&), (B), (D), (©), (A)
    4. D(B), (D), (E), (A), ©)

    Answer: (C) (&), (B), (D), (©), (A)

    Explanation

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  73. Question 73

    The prototyping model has the sequence :
    A. Customer Evaluation
    B. Quick design
    C. Requirements
    D. Implement
    E. Design Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. AC → A → D → B → E
    2. BB → C → A → D → E
    3. CC → B → D → A → E
    4. DE → B → C → D → A

    Answer: (C) C → B → D → A → E

    Explanation

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  74. Question 74

    Arrange the following encoding strategies used in Genetic Algorithms (GAs) in the correct sequence starting from the initial step and ending with the final representation of solutions :
    A. Binary Encoding
    B. Real valued Encoding
    C. Permutation Encoding
    D. Gray coding Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(D), (B), (A). (©)
    2. B(B), (D), (A), ©
    3. C(©), ), (A), @)
    4. D(B), (©, (A), (D)

    Answer: (C) (©), ), (A), @)

    Explanation

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  75. Question 75

    Arrange the following steps in the correct order for a DHCP Client to renew its IP lease with a DHCP server :
    A. DHCP client sends a DHCPREQUEST message
    B. DHCP server acknowledges the renewal with a DHCPACK message
    C. DHCP client checks the local lease timer and initiates renewal
    D. DHCP server updates its lease database Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    1. A(A), (B), ©, ©)
    2. B(©), ©), (B), (A)
    3. C(©), (8), (A), @)
    4. D(©, (A), (), (D)

    Answer: (D) (©, (A), (), (D)

    Explanation

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  76. Question 76

    Arrange the following steps in the correct sequence for applying an unsupervised learning technique such as K-means clustering is to a data set :
    A. Randomly initialize cluster centroids
    B. Assign each data point to nearest cluster centroid
    C. Update the cluster centroids based on the mean of data points assigned to each cluster
    D. Specify the number of clusters (K) to partation the data into
    E. Repeat steps B and C until convergence criteria are met Choose the correct answer from the options given below : @) (©),
    A. , ©, ©

    1. AD, A, B, C, E
    2. BA, B, C, D, E
    3. CC, B, A, D, E
    4. DD, C, A, B, E

    Answer: (A) D, A, B, C, E

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  77. Question 77

    Evaluate these statements: Statement I: If H is non empty finite subset of a group G and abeH V a, beH, then H is also a group. Statement II: There is no homomorphism exist from (Z, +) to (Q, +); where Z is set of integers and Q is set of rational number. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

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  78. Question 78

    Evaluate these statements: Statement I: The friend function and the member functions of a friend class directly access the private and protected data. Statement II: The friend function can access the private data through the member functions of the base class In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

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  79. Question 79

    Evaluate these statements: Statement I: A thread is a dispatchable unit of work that does not executes sequentially and is not interruptible Statement II: It is not possible to alter the behaviour of a thread by altering its context when thread is suspended. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

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  80. Question 80

    Evaluate these statements: Statement I: In Reuse Oriented Model, Modification of the old system parts appropriate to the new requirements. Statement II: In Reuse Oriented Model, Integration of the modified parts are not possible into the new systems. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

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  81. Question 81

    Evaluate these statements: Statement I: In datagram networks - routers hold state information about connections Statement II: In virtual circuit network- each virtual circuit requires router table space per connection In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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  82. Question 82

    The cost funtion of total food is :

    Food X contains 6 units of Vitamin D per gram and 7 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 12 per gram. Food Y contains 8 units of Vitamin D per gram and 12 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 20 per gram. The daily minimum requirements of vitamin D and vitamin E are 100 units and 120 units respectively. Let x and y be the quantities in grams of Food X and Food Y.

    1. AZ=6x+7y
    2. BZ=8x+12y
    3. CZ=12x +20y
    4. DZ=20x+12y

    Answer: (C) Z=12x +20y

    Explanation

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  83. Question 83

    Which of the following constrains when formulating the LPP ?

    Food X contains 6 units of Vitamin D per gram and 7 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 12 per gram. Food Y contains 8 units of Vitamin D per gram and 12 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 20 per gram. The daily minimum requirements of vitamin D and vitamin E are 100 units and 120 units respectively. Let x and y be the quantities in grams of Food X and Food Y.

    1. A6x+7y<100, 8x+12y<120, x,y 20
    2. B6x+8y<100, 7x+12y<120, x,y20
    3. C6x+7y 2100, 8x+12y>120, x,y>0
    4. D6x+8y 2100, 7x+12y 2120, x,y20

    Answer: (D) 6x+8y 2100, 7x+12y 2120, x,y20

    Explanation

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  84. Question 84

    Which of the following are quantities (in grams) of food X and Y respectively when the cost of food is minimum : 1

    Food X contains 6 units of Vitamin D per gram and 7 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 12 per gram. Food Y contains 8 units of Vitamin D per gram and 12 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 20 per gram. The daily minimum requirements of vitamin D and vitamin E are 100 units and 120 units respectively. Let x and y be the quantities in grams of Food X and Food Y.

    1. AOand 125 5
    2. B15 and 7 P 120 49
    3. C7 an
    4. D0 and 10

    Answer: (B) 15 and 7 P 120 49

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  85. Question 85

    The dual of the formulated LPP is :

    Food X contains 6 units of Vitamin D per gram and 7 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 12 per gram. Food Y contains 8 units of Vitamin D per gram and 12 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 20 per gram. The daily minimum requirements of vitamin D and vitamin E are 100 units and 120 units respectively. Let x and y be the quantities in grams of Food X and Food Y.

    1. AMax Z = 100u + 120v; 6u + 7v ≤ 12; 8u + 12v ≤ 20; u, v ≥ 0
    2. BMax Z = 12u + 20v; 6u + 7v ≤ 100; 8u + 12v ≤ 120; u, v ≥ 0
    3. CMax Z = 100u + 120v; 6u + 7u ≤ 12; 8u + 7v ≤ 20; u, v unrestricted
    4. DMax Z = 100u + 120u; 6u + 7v ≥ 12; 8u + 12v ≥ 20; u, v ≥ 0

    Answer: (A) Max Z = 100u + 120v; 6u + 7v ≤ 12; 8u + 12v ≤ 20; u, v ≥ 0

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  86. Question 86

    The minimum cost of food is :

    Food X contains 6 units of Vitamin D per gram and 7 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 12 per gram. Food Y contains 8 units of Vitamin D per gram and 12 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 20 per gram. The daily minimum requirements of vitamin D and vitamin E are 100 units and 120 units respectively. Let x and y be the quantities in grams of Food X and Food Y.

    1. A205
    2. B250
    3. C330
    4. D200

    Answer: (A) 205

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  87. Question 87

    Find the number of tuples by applying the operation Xb x05 aye"

    X (S, Si, C)Y (S, P, D)

    (J, 1, M)

    (B, 2, N)

    (R, 3, H)

    (T, 4, G)

    (J, S₁, CA)

    (B, P₁, AB)

    (R, D₁, DC)

    (A, H₁, MD)

    1. A1
    2. B3
    3. C4
    4. D6

    Answer: (C) 4

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  88. Question 88

    Result of *{x.s=y.s¥ is : [s|s[ec] er]. | J 1 M S, | CA B | 2/]N 1] P, | AB M |r |s3]uH |v, |} ve £ 4 G | Null] Null [s[s [ec] Pr]o] J 1 M S, | CA B}| 2 | N | P, | AB

    X (S, Si, C)Y (S, P, D)

    (J, 1, M)

    (B, 2, N)

    (R, 3, H)

    (T, 4, G)

    (J, S₁, CA)

    (B, P₁, AB)

    (R, D₁, DC)

    (A, H₁, MD)

    1. A(J, 1, M, S₁, CA); (B, 2, N, P₁, AB); (R, 3, H, D₁, DC); (T, 4, G, Null, Null)
    2. B(J, 1, M, S₁, CA); (B, 2, N, P₁, AB); (R, 3, H, D₁, DC); (A, Null, Null, H₁, MD)
    3. C(J, 1, M, S₁, CA); (B, 2, N, P₁, AB); (R, 3, H, D₁, DC); (T, 4, G, Null, MD); (A, Null, Null, H₁, Null)
    4. DNone of these

    Answer: (B) (J, 1, M, S₁, CA); (B, 2, N, P₁, AB); (R, 3, H, D₁, DC); (A, Null, Null, H₁, MD)

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  89. Question 89

    Which of the following join is used to get all the tuples of relation X and Y with Null values of corresponding missing values ?

    X (S, Si, C)Y (S, P, D)

    (J, 1, M)

    (B, 2, N)

    (R, 3, H)

    (T, 4, G)

    (J, S₁, CA)

    (B, P₁, AB)

    (R, D₁, DC)

    (A, H₁, MD)

    1. ALeft outer join
    2. BRight outer join
    3. CNatural join
    4. DFull outer join

    Answer: (D) Full outer join

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  90. Question 90

    Number of tuples by applying right outer join on relation X and Y is/are :

    X (S, Si, C)Y (S, P, D)

    (J, 1, M)

    (B, 2, N)

    (R, 3, H)

    (T, 4, G)

    (J, S₁, CA)

    (B, P₁, AB)

    (R, D₁, DC)

    (A, H₁, MD)

    1. A16
    2. B5
    3. C3
    4. D4

    Answer: (D) 4

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  91. Question 91

    Number of tuples obtained by applying cartesian product over X and Y are :

    X (S, Si, C)Y (S, P, D)

    (J, 1, M)

    (B, 2, N)

    (R, 3, H)

    (T, 4, G)

    (J, S₁, CA)

    (B, P₁, AB)

    (R, D₁, DC)

    (A, H₁, MD)

    1. A16
    2. B12
    3. C04
    4. D32

    Answer: (A) 16

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  92. Question 92

    Match List-I with List-II.

    Source matching promptSource values
    See question stemSee answer choices
    1. A(A)-C, @)-€V), ()-0), (P)-Ca)
    2. B(A)-CV), (B)-CM), ()-@), (P)-
    3. C(A)-CV), (BN), (C)-(), (P)-(IN)
    4. D(A)-(IID), (B)-(IV), (C)-(), (D)-()

    Answer: (B) (A)-CV), (B)-CM), ()-@), (P)-

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  93. Question 93

    Match List-I with List-II.

    Source matching promptSource values
    See question stemSee answer choices
    1. A(A)-(D, (B)-(), ©-€V), (D)-@)
    2. B(A)-(), (@)-C), ©-(, (B)-av)
    3. C(A)-(), (8)-(), ©-€V), (D)-@)
    4. D(A)-(ID), (B)-(IV), (C)-(H), (D)-()

    Answer: (C) (A)-(), (8)-(), ©-€V), (D)-@)

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  94. Question 94

    Match List-I with List-II.

    Source matching promptSource values
    See question stemSee answer choices
    1. A(A)-€0N, (B)-(), ()-@, ()-(IV)
    2. B(A)-CV), (B-(), (QC, (D)-(m)
    3. C(A)-C, @)-€), (C)-CV), (P)-
    4. D(A)-(IV), (B)-(D), (C)-(I1), (D)-()

    Answer: (B) (A)-CV), (B-(), (QC, (D)-(m)

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  95. Question 95

    Match List-I with List-II.

    Source matching promptSource values
    See question stemSee answer choices
    1. A(A)-@), (BU), (©-AV), (D)-()
    2. B(A)-(), ()-@), (-CV), (D)-(N)
    3. C(A)-(D, (B)-(), ©-(, (Dav)
    4. D(A)-(V), (BW), ©-(), (D)-@)

    Answer: (B) (A)-(), ()-@), (-CV), (D)-(N)

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  96. Question 96

    Match List-I with List-II.

    Source matching promptSource values
    See question stemSee answer choices
    1. A(A)-CV), BC, ()-@, (P)-()
    2. B(AC, B)-(), (CAV), (P)-(II)
    3. C(A)-
    4. D(A)-(V), (B)-(D, (C)-(0), (D)-)

    Answer: (B) (AC, B)-(), (CAV), (P)-(II)

    Explanation

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  97. Question 97

    Match List-I with List-II.

    Source matching promptSource values
    See question stemSee answer choices
    1. A(A)-0), (BC), (CC, (D)-(IV)
    2. B(A), (B)-(), (CCD, (D)-(IV)
    3. C(A)-CD, (B)-
    4. D(A)-CV), (BCD, ()-M), (P)-

    Answer: (B) (A), (B)-(), (CCD, (D)-(IV)

    Explanation

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  98. Question 98

    Match List-I with List-II.

    Source matching promptSource values
    See question stemSee answer choices
    1. A(A), (B)-V), ©)-(, (P)-CI)
    2. B(A), (B)-(D, (C)-@), (D)-(IV)
    3. C(A)-(HD), (B)-@D, (C)-CV), (B)-)
    4. D(A)-(), (B)-(V), (C)-@D), (D)-@)

    Answer: (A) (A), (B)-V), ©)-(, (P)-CI)

    Explanation

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  99. Question 99

    Match List-I with List-II.

    Source matching promptSource values
    See question stemSee answer choices
    1. A(A), (B)-(), (©-€V), (D)-()
    2. B(A)-(), (B)-CV), (©-(), (P)-@)
    3. C(A)-(, (B)-()), (©-€V), (D)-()
    4. D(A)-(1D), (B)-(), (C)-(IV), (D)-

    Answer: (A) (A), (B)-(), (©-€V), (D)-()

    Explanation

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  100. Question 100

    Match List-I with List-II.

    Source matching promptSource values
    See question stemSee answer choices
    1. A(D) Depth first search (IV) O(b' m) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    2. B(A)-C, B)-), (CCV), (D)-(Im)
    3. C(A), )-€V), (©), (P)-(Im)
    4. D(A)-(), (B)-(H), (C)-(D, (D)-@)

    Answer: (A) (D) Depth first search (IV) O(b' m) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

    Explanation

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Frequently asked questions

How many questions were in the UGC NET Computer Science & Applications December 2023 exam?

Paper 1 had 50 questions and Paper 2 (Computer Science & Applications) had 100 questions, for 150 in total across 3 hours.

Is there negative marking in UGC NET?

No. Each correct answer earns 2 marks and there is no penalty for a wrong answer, so leaving a question blank is never better than attempting it.

Are the December 2023 answers on this page official?

Answers follow the official NTA answer key for this session. If you spot a discrepancy, use the report option inside the practice test and we will review it.

Can I attempt the December 2023 paper as a timed mock test?

Yes. Every paper on this page has an "Attempt this paper" button that opens the same questions in the timed test interface, with instant scoring and weak-area analysis afterwards.

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Attempt Paper 1 + Paper 2 (Computer Science & Applications) together in a single timed session.

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