The complete UGC NET December 2023 question paper for Computer Science & Applications, covering Paper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (Computer Science & Applications). Every question below is shown with its options and the correct answer, and a detailed explanation you can unlock by signing in. All 150 questions are free to practise.
| Exam | UGC NET December 2023 |
|---|---|
| Papers | Paper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (Computer Science & Applications) |
| Exam date(s) | December 7, 2023 |
| Shift(s) | Shift 2 |
| Paper 1 questions | 50 questions · 60 minutes · 100 marks |
| Paper 2 questions | 100 questions · 120 minutes · 200 marks |
| Total | 150 questions |
| Marking scheme | +2 per correct answer · No negative marking |
UGC NET December 2023 · Computer Science & Applications sitting
UGC NET December 2023
50 questions with the answer key and explanations.
Across the state S, the total number of buildings constructed in 2016 is approximately what percentage of the total number constructed in 2018?
| Town | 2016 | 2017 | 2018 | 2019 | 2020 | 2021 | 2022 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| A | 3000 | 3160 | 3220 | 3272 | 3300 | 3320 | 3400 |
| B | 2500 | 2568 | 2640 | 2670 | 2792 | 2800 | 2900 |
| C | 2960 | 3000 | 3090 | 3100 | 3192 | 3200 | 3268 |
| D | 3448 | 3500 | 3600 | 3640 | 3664 | 3760 | 3792 |
| E | 2040 | 2100 | 2200 | 2230 | 2320 | 2350 | 2380 |
| F | 2272 | 2380 | 2460 | 2480 | 2530 | 2560 | 2588 |
Answer: (B) 94
Explanation
What is the total number of buildings constructed in Town B over all the seven years?
| Town | 2016 | 2017 | 2018 | 2019 | 2020 | 2021 | 2022 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| A | 3000 | 3160 | 3220 | 3272 | 3300 | 3320 | 3400 |
| B | 2500 | 2568 | 2640 | 2670 | 2792 | 2800 | 2900 |
| C | 2960 | 3000 | 3090 | 3100 | 3192 | 3200 | 3268 |
| D | 3448 | 3500 | 3600 | 3640 | 3664 | 3760 | 3792 |
| E | 2040 | 2100 | 2200 | 2230 | 2320 | 2350 | 2380 |
| F | 2272 | 2380 | 2460 | 2480 | 2530 | 2560 | 2588 |
Answer: (D) 18870
Explanation
What is the percentage increase in the number of buildings constructed in Town D in 2018 with reference to the previous year?
| Town | 2016 | 2017 | 2018 | 2019 | 2020 | 2021 | 2022 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| A | 3000 | 3160 | 3220 | 3272 | 3300 | 3320 | 3400 |
| B | 2500 | 2568 | 2640 | 2670 | 2792 | 2800 | 2900 |
| C | 2960 | 3000 | 3090 | 3100 | 3192 | 3200 | 3268 |
| D | 3448 | 3500 | 3600 | 3640 | 3664 | 3760 | 3792 |
| E | 2040 | 2100 | 2200 | 2230 | 2320 | 2350 | 2380 |
| F | 2272 | 2380 | 2460 | 2480 | 2530 | 2560 | 2588 |
Answer: (B) 2.85%
Explanation
In the context of towns E and F together, what is the difference between the number of buildings constructed in 2021 and that in 2017?
| Town | 2016 | 2017 | 2018 | 2019 | 2020 | 2021 | 2022 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| A | 3000 | 3160 | 3220 | 3272 | 3300 | 3320 | 3400 |
| B | 2500 | 2568 | 2640 | 2670 | 2792 | 2800 | 2900 |
| C | 2960 | 3000 | 3090 | 3100 | 3192 | 3200 | 3268 |
| D | 3448 | 3500 | 3600 | 3640 | 3664 | 3760 | 3792 |
| E | 2040 | 2100 | 2200 | 2230 | 2320 | 2350 | 2380 |
| F | 2272 | 2380 | 2460 | 2480 | 2530 | 2560 | 2588 |
Answer: (C) 430
Explanation
Total number of buildings constructed over the years from 2020 to 2022 is more than 8500 in exactly how many towns?
| Town | 2016 | 2017 | 2018 | 2019 | 2020 | 2021 | 2022 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| A | 3000 | 3160 | 3220 | 3272 | 3300 | 3320 | 3400 |
| B | 2500 | 2568 | 2640 | 2670 | 2792 | 2800 | 2900 |
| C | 2960 | 3000 | 3090 | 3100 | 3192 | 3200 | 3268 |
| D | 3448 | 3500 | 3600 | 3640 | 3664 | 3760 | 3792 |
| E | 2040 | 2100 | 2200 | 2230 | 2320 | 2350 | 2380 |
| F | 2272 | 2380 | 2460 | 2480 | 2530 | 2560 | 2588 |
Answer: (B) 3
Explanation
Which collaborative ICT tool allows users to create digital bulletin boards to share and gather information?
Answer: (B) Padlet
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In Round-Robin cooperative learning strategy, students work together to achieve a common goal or complete a task.
Statement II: In group investigation cooperative learning strategy, students take turns sharing their ideas, thoughts or solutions within their group.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Explanation
Swayam Prabha channel 07 - Kautilya is related to which of the following subjects?
A. Economics
B. Library Science
C. Commerce
D. Finance
E. Mathematics
Choose the correct answer.
Answer: (C) A, C and D only
Explanation
In which strategy of cooperative learning are students separated into an inner and outer circle, where the inner circle discusses and the outer circle listens?
Answer: (B) Fishbowl
Explanation
Which of the following are examples of Information Development Model?
A. Self Awareness Model
B. Gagne’s Information Model
C. Jerome Bruner’s Model
D. Schuman’s Model
E. Group Investigation Model
Choose the correct answer.
Answer: (C) B, C and D only
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The process of deduction involves drawing generalizable inferences out of observations.
Statement II: Positivism advocates the application of methods of the natural sciences to the study of social reality.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Explanation
Identify the threats to the internal validity of an investigation:
A. History
B. Instrumentation
C. Maturation
Choose the correct answer.
Answer: (D) A, B and C
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Pearson’s coefficient of correlation r is a useful measure of the strength and direction of the relationship between two nominal variables.
Statement II: Pearson’s coefficient of correlation r always lies between 0 and 1.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Explanation
Which of the following refers to a method of sampling in which an initially sampled core group recruits or recommends other potential participants?
Answer: (B) Snowball sampling
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Under UGC Regulations 2018 on Prevention of Plagiarism, a student must submit an undertaking that a thesis is original and free from plagiarism.
Statement II: Under these regulations, the research supervisor is not required to certify that the work done under them is plagiarism free.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Explanation
In conversations, the relevancy maxim means making:
Answer: (C) Pertinent comments
Explanation
Failure to understand the cultural environment can lead to:
Answer: (D) Miscommunication
Explanation
The Buddhist mode of interpersonal communication emphasises:
A. Unfettered use of language
B. Unintelligible moral frames
C. Symmetrical relations
D. Consensus through interaction
E. Verifiability of communication
Choose the correct answer.
Answer: (C) C, D and E only
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Paralinguistic features express emotions and communicate personality traits.
Statement II: Subtle vocal inflections can give special significance to verbal messages.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I: Type of meta communications | List-II: Description/Example |
|---|---|
| A. Explicit | I. An aggressive gesture modified with a smile |
| B. Implicit | II. Comments on others’ communication behaviour |
| C. Verbal | III. Sarcastic remarks |
| D. Non-verbal | IV. Comments about non-verbal behaviour |
Answer: (B) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Explanation
A milkman buys 20 litres of milk at Rs. 50 per litre. He adds mineral water costing Rs. 20 per litre, then sells the mixture at Rs. 60 per litre and makes a profit of Rs. 400. How much water did he add?
Answer: (C) 5 litres
Explanation
Identify the correct sequence of letters that completes the series:
aabed _ _ _ bedbe _ _ _ dedab _ _ _
Answer: (A) abaabceedd
Explanation
The total monthly salary of a couple is Rs. 2.0 lakh. Their salaries are in the ratio 5:3. If the husband and wife spend 40% and 20% of their salaries respectively, what is the ratio of their savings?
Answer: (C) 5:4
Explanation
In a certain coding scheme:
“Family values are important” is written as “pa, ya, si, sa”.
“Values are generally contagious” is written as “ya, da, ja, sa”.
“Some diseases are contagious” is written as “ka, da, sa, ro”.
What are the codes for “Contagious” and “Values”?
Answer: (D) da, ya
Explanation
What is the next term in the number series?
3, 14, 39, 84, ?
Answer: (B) 155
Explanation
Which of the following is arranged in order of increasing denotation?
Answer: (A) Cow, bovine, mammal, vertebrate, animal
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Truth and falsehood are attributes of individual propositions.
Statement II: Validity can be attributed to any single proposition by itself.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Explanation
Which fallacy is committed in the argument: “The universe must be spherical in form because all its constituent parts are spherical in form”?
Answer: (D) Fallacy of composition
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: “Pradeep’s mind is a cave: deep, dark and full of bats” is an analogy only descriptive in nature.
Statement II: The same statement is an analogy that contains an argument.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Nyaya syllogism has three propositions.
Statement II: Aristotelian syllogism has five propositions.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Explanation
Which of the following is an online storehouse of academic awards such as certificates, diplomas, degrees and marksheets?
Answer: (D) National Academic Depository
Explanation
Identify the correct sequence of the missing units A-D used to represent file size, from smallest to largest.
bit, __, __, __, __, teraByte (TB)
A. byte
B. gigaByte (GB)
C. megaByte (MB)
D. nibble
Answer: (B) D, A, C, B
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A wiki is usually represented in reverse chronological order, whereas a blog has a structure determined by content and users.
Statement II: A blog is usually personal or someone’s opinion, whereas a wiki is usually objective.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Explanation
Which statements about firewalls in computer networks are true?
A. Firewalls are only hardware devices and only examine traffic entering a network.
B. Firewalls allow a user to set rules for network traffic.
C. Firewalls automatically stop all malicious traffic.
D. Firewalls back up all data transmitted around a network.
E. Firewalls can block access to certain websites.
Choose the correct answer.
Answer: (B) B and E only
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I: Automatic data capture method | List-II: Description |
|---|---|
| A. OCR | I. System that reads pencil or pen marks on a piece of paper in predetermined positions |
| B. OMR | II. System that reads characters printed in a special ink, for example at the bottom of a bank cheque |
| C. RFID | III. Reading data directly from hard copy and converting into computer-readable form |
| D. MICR | IV. Use of minute electronic devices containing a microchip and antenna that can read from distances up to a few metres |
Answer: (C) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The absence of fluoride in drinking water causes tooth decay.
Statement II: Absence of fluoride in drinking water causes mottling of teeth, also known as dental fluorosis.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Under the Montreal Protocol, developed and developing nations have differentiated responsibilities.
Statement II: Under the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol, CFCs and HCFCs were to be phased out.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Naturally occurring volatile organic compounds generally oxidise to form carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide.
Statement II: Anthropogenically emitted volatile organic compounds play an important role in formation of smog.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation
Which gas has the maximum contribution to global warming?
Answer: (D) Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
Explanation
Which statements are true about Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)?
A. They are extremely widespread and occur from tropics to Arctic.
B. They often accumulate in food webs and reach toxic concentrations.
C. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are examples of POPs.
D. They are widely used as flame retardants and in deodorants.
E. Some chemicals used in non-stick, waterproof and stain-resistant products are categorised as POPs.
Choose the correct answer.
Answer: (C) A, B, D and E only
Explanation
The Hindu College in Benares set up by Annie Besant before Independence proposed to impart:
Answer: (B) Religious and moral education
Explanation
Which University was the largest in the initial years of Lord Curzon’s regime?
Answer: (A) Calcutta
Explanation
Which were recommendations of the first educational conference held at Shimla in 1901?
A. Appointment of only Indians as Vice-Chancellors of Indian Universities
B. Importance to teaching and research in Sanskrit
C. A thorough reform of Indian Universities
D. Appointment of a Director-General of Indian education
E. Co-ordination of rules for examinations
Choose the correct answer.
Answer: (C) C, D and E only
Explanation
Which administrative reforms in universities were suggested by the National Knowledge Commission?
A. Appointment of vice-chancellors on academic and administrative credentials
B. De-politicisation of appointments
C. Centralised control of universities
D. Restrictions on academic freedom
E. Creation of a good research environment
Choose the correct answer.
Answer: (D) A, B and E only
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The monastery of Vikramasila possessed a university with six colleges.
Statement II: Vikramasila was a well-known centre of Tantric Buddhism and attracted students from other countries.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation
The following are true about the country Bharat:
A. It does not preserve its cultural heritage.
B. It is overflowing with cultures.
C. It does not have a variety of religions.
D. It is a country of historical values.
Choose the correct answer.
Bharat, the country of historical values and sentiments overflowing with cultures and religions, changes with every mile, but is still known for preserving its rich cultural heritage. Moving towards global tourism, the ministry of ports, shipping and waterways recently created an experience for people that brought forth the historical, cultural and religious significance of our rivers. In January and February, the global tourism and cruise sector was abuzz with the news of the world’s longest river cruise MV Ganga Vilas. The cruise covered nearly 32,000 Km over 51 days, crossing 27 river systems across five states and two countries, via the Ganga-Brahmaputra river system. Starting from the heart of Uttar Pradesh in Varanasi to Dibrugarh in Assam, it had several stops and visits to nearly 50 locations.
The Act East Policy of Prime Minister Narendra Modi and the focus on developing the national waterways made this historic voyage a reality. It was also a true demonstration of Atmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliant India) with a domestically manufactured vessel, a fully Indian crew, Indian decor, Indian cuisine, Indian art and craft, and products being showcased. The vessel with a zero-discharge policy also used the Indian Oil Corporation manufactured green fuel with the Dolphin Deterrent Device.
Answer: (D) B and D only
Explanation
Which of the following is correct about MV Ganga Vilas?
Bharat, the country of historical values and sentiments overflowing with cultures and religions, changes with every mile, but is still known for preserving its rich cultural heritage. Moving towards global tourism, the ministry of ports, shipping and waterways recently created an experience for people that brought forth the historical, cultural and religious significance of our rivers. In January and February, the global tourism and cruise sector was abuzz with the news of the world’s longest river cruise MV Ganga Vilas. The cruise covered nearly 32,000 Km over 51 days, crossing 27 river systems across five states and two countries, via the Ganga-Brahmaputra river system. Starting from the heart of Uttar Pradesh in Varanasi to Dibrugarh in Assam, it had several stops and visits to nearly 50 locations.
The Act East Policy of Prime Minister Narendra Modi and the focus on developing the national waterways made this historic voyage a reality. It was also a true demonstration of Atmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliant India) with a domestically manufactured vessel, a fully Indian crew, Indian decor, Indian cuisine, Indian art and craft, and products being showcased. The vessel with a zero-discharge policy also used the Indian Oil Corporation manufactured green fuel with the Dolphin Deterrent Device.
Answer: (C) It is the world’s longest river cruise.
Explanation
MV Ganga Vilas is a true demonstration of self-reliant India because:
A. The decor is done by Indian designers.
B. It serves both Indian and Western cuisine.
C. It showcases Indian arts and crafts.
D. It is operated by an all-Indian crew.
Choose the correct answer.
Bharat, the country of historical values and sentiments overflowing with cultures and religions, changes with every mile, but is still known for preserving its rich cultural heritage. Moving towards global tourism, the ministry of ports, shipping and waterways recently created an experience for people that brought forth the historical, cultural and religious significance of our rivers. In January and February, the global tourism and cruise sector was abuzz with the news of the world’s longest river cruise MV Ganga Vilas. The cruise covered nearly 32,000 Km over 51 days, crossing 27 river systems across five states and two countries, via the Ganga-Brahmaputra river system. Starting from the heart of Uttar Pradesh in Varanasi to Dibrugarh in Assam, it had several stops and visits to nearly 50 locations.
The Act East Policy of Prime Minister Narendra Modi and the focus on developing the national waterways made this historic voyage a reality. It was also a true demonstration of Atmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliant India) with a domestically manufactured vessel, a fully Indian crew, Indian decor, Indian cuisine, Indian art and craft, and products being showcased. The vessel with a zero-discharge policy also used the Indian Oil Corporation manufactured green fuel with the Dolphin Deterrent Device.
Answer: (C) A, C and D only
Explanation
“This historic voyage” refers to:
Bharat, the country of historical values and sentiments overflowing with cultures and religions, changes with every mile, but is still known for preserving its rich cultural heritage. Moving towards global tourism, the ministry of ports, shipping and waterways recently created an experience for people that brought forth the historical, cultural and religious significance of our rivers. In January and February, the global tourism and cruise sector was abuzz with the news of the world’s longest river cruise MV Ganga Vilas. The cruise covered nearly 32,000 Km over 51 days, crossing 27 river systems across five states and two countries, via the Ganga-Brahmaputra river system. Starting from the heart of Uttar Pradesh in Varanasi to Dibrugarh in Assam, it had several stops and visits to nearly 50 locations.
The Act East Policy of Prime Minister Narendra Modi and the focus on developing the national waterways made this historic voyage a reality. It was also a true demonstration of Atmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliant India) with a domestically manufactured vessel, a fully Indian crew, Indian decor, Indian cuisine, Indian art and craft, and products being showcased. The vessel with a zero-discharge policy also used the Indian Oil Corporation manufactured green fuel with the Dolphin Deterrent Device.
Answer: (C) MV Ganga Vilas cruise
Explanation
Evaluate the statements:
Statement I: MV Ganga Vilas is an environment-friendly vessel.
Statement II: MV Ganga Vilas is not an indigenously manufactured vessel.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Bharat, the country of historical values and sentiments overflowing with cultures and religions, changes with every mile, but is still known for preserving its rich cultural heritage. Moving towards global tourism, the ministry of ports, shipping and waterways recently created an experience for people that brought forth the historical, cultural and religious significance of our rivers. In January and February, the global tourism and cruise sector was abuzz with the news of the world’s longest river cruise MV Ganga Vilas. The cruise covered nearly 32,000 Km over 51 days, crossing 27 river systems across five states and two countries, via the Ganga-Brahmaputra river system. Starting from the heart of Uttar Pradesh in Varanasi to Dibrugarh in Assam, it had several stops and visits to nearly 50 locations.
The Act East Policy of Prime Minister Narendra Modi and the focus on developing the national waterways made this historic voyage a reality. It was also a true demonstration of Atmanirbhar Bharat (self-reliant India) with a domestically manufactured vessel, a fully Indian crew, Indian decor, Indian cuisine, Indian art and craft, and products being showcased. The vessel with a zero-discharge policy also used the Indian Oil Corporation manufactured green fuel with the Dolphin Deterrent Device.
Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Explanation
100 questions with the answer key and explanations.
What is the probability that a positive integer selected at random from the set of positive integer not exceeding 100 is divisible by either 2 or 5 ?
Answer: (B) 3/5
Explanation
Which of the following is not a palindromic subsequence of the string "ababcdabba" ?
Answer: (D) adba
Explanation
Which of the following is TRUE ?
Answer: (A) The cost of searching an AVL tree is @ (log n) but that of binary search is 0(n)
Explanation
What is the result of evaluating the postfix expression "4325+b—" ?
Answer: (A) 8
Explanation
Which of the following circuit is used to store one bit of data ?
Answer: (C) Flip-Flop
Explanation
Identify the code sequence : 1010 1011 1001 1000
Answer: (C) Gray
Explanation
The microoperation which divides a signed binary number by 2 is :
Answer: (B) Logical shift
Explanation
A program that is used by other routines to accomplish a particular task, is called :
Answer: (D) Subroutine
Explanation
Consider a triangle PQR with coordinates as P(0,0), Q(2,2) and R(10,4). If this triangle is to be magnified to four times its size while keeping R(10, 4) fixed, then the coordinates of the magnified triangle are :
Answer: (B) (—30, —12), Q(—22, —4) and R(10, 4)
Explanation
Which of the following statements is TRUE ?
Answer: (C) We can never build an object from a class containing a pure virtual function
Explanation
What is the output of the following program ? #include<stdio.h> int main( ) { int i=3; while (i— —) { int i=10; i=} printf("%d", i); } printf("%d", i); }
Answer: (C) 999-1
Explanation
The Hue of a colour is related to its :
Answer: (D) Wavelength
Explanation
"CREATE TABLE T" in SQL is an example of : (14) Normalization
Answer: (C) DDL
Explanation
An Address in main memory is called :
Answer: (D) Physical address
Explanation
A system bus in which each data item is transferred during a time slice known in advance to both units source and destination is called :
Answer: (D) synchronous bus
Explanation
What is the output of the following program ? # include <stdio.h> # define SQR(x) (x*x) int main () {int a, b=3; a=SQR(b+2); printf("%d",a); return 0; }
Answer: (B) 11
Explanation
The head of a moving head disk with 200 tracks, numbered 0 to 199, has just finished a request at track 125, and currently serving a request at track 143. The queue of requests is given in the FIFO order as 86, 147, 91, 177, 94, 150, 102, 175, 130. What will be the total number of head movements required to satisfy these requests for SCAN algorithm ?
Answer: (B) 169 cylinders
Explanation
Given as 4 GB (= 4.3 x 10° bytes) of virtual space and typical page size of 4 KB and each page table entry is 5 bytes. How many virtual pages would this imply ? What is the size of whole page table ?
Answer: (A) 107500 and 20480 bytes
Explanation
In Linux, where is the user password stored ?
Answer: (C) /etc/passwd
Explanation
Has functions are used to produce the message digests which are then encrypted with a private key to get:
Answer: (B) Digital signature
Explanation
Let L={ab, aa, baa}. Which of the following strings are not in L*.
Answer: (C) baaaaabaaaab
Explanation
Let A={a, b} and L=A*. Let x={a"b", n>0}. The languages L U X and X are respectively :
Answer: (C) Regular, Not regular
Explanation
Which of the following symbol table implementation is best suited if access time is to be minimum ?
Answer: (C) Hash Table
Explanation
Consider a Grammar E>E+n|ExXn|n for a sentence n+n Xn, the handles in the right-sentential form of the reduction are ?
Answer: (D) n,E+nand Exn
Explanation
Which data structure is typically used to implement hash table ?
Answer: (B) Array
Explanation
Which collision resolution technique involves maintaining a linked list of collided keys ?
Answer: (C) Chaining
Explanation
Consider the following functions : f(n) = anv g(n) = 2" log? h(n) =n! Which of the following is true ?
Answer: (D) £(m) is 0 (g(m))
Explanation
2-3-4 trees are B - trees of order 4. They are isometric of trees.
Answer: (D) Red-Black
Explanation
The average time required to search a storage location in memory and obtain its contents is called :
Answer: (A) Access time
Explanation
One of the purposes of using intermediate code in compilers is to :
Answer: (C) increase the chances of reusing the machine independent code optimizer in other compilers
Explanation
The sum of minimum and maximum number of final states for a Deterministic Finite Automata (DFA) having 'P" state is equal to : () Pp
Answer: (C) p+1
Explanation
Test suite is consist of :
Answer: (C) Set of test cases
Explanation
A multiplexes combines for 100 Kbps channels using a time slot of 2 bits. What is the bit rate ?
Answer: (C) 40 Kbps
Explanation
Which of the following is not a field in TCP header ?
Answer: (C) Fregmentation offset
Explanation
In "bit stuffing", each frame begins and ends with a bit pattern in hexadecimal ?
Answer: (D) Ox7E
Explanation
Level - 0 DFD is also called as :
Answer: (C) Context Diagram
Explanation
What is the generic structure of Multi Agent System (MAS) ?
Answer: (C) Multiagents with diverse objectives and communication abilities
Explanation
A point of fuzzy set A is a point xeX at which wA(x)=0.5
Answer: (C) Crossover
Explanation
In a genetic algorithm optimization problem the fitness function is defined as f(x) =x?- 4x +4. Given a population of four individuals with values of x : {1.5, 2.0, 3.0, 4.5} What is the fitness value of the individual that will be selected as the parent for reproduction in one generation ?
Answer: (D) 25
Explanation
In a feed forward neural network with the following specifications : Input layer has 4 neurons, hidden layer has 3 neurons and output layer has 2 neurons using the sigmoid activation function for given input values [0.5, 0.8, 0.2, 0.6] as well as the initial weights for the connections. WI : (0.1, 0.3, 0.5, 0.2] W2e [02,04 0.6,.0.2] Input layer to hidden layer weights W3 : [0.3, 0.5, 0.7, 0.2] W4 : (0.4, 0.1, 0.3] W5 : [0.5, 0.2, 0.4] Hidden layer to output layer weights What is the output of the output layer when the given input values are passed through neural network ? Round the answer to two decimal places :
Answer: (A) [0.62, 0.68]
Explanation
If universe of disclosure are all real numbers, then which of the following are true ?
A. 3x ¥y (&+y=y)
B. Wx Vy((K>0)\y<0)) xy) (©) 3x Sy (((X<0)(y<0))AGe—y>0))
D. Vx Vy((x#0)A(y#0)>(xy#0)) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (D) (A), (B), () and (D) Only
Explanation
If the universe of disclosure is set of integers, then which of the followings are TRUE ?
A. Vn 3m(n2< m)
B. 3n Vm(n < m2)
C. Jn Vm(nm=m)
D. Jn Sm(n?+m?=6)
E. Jn dm(n+m=4 \ n—-m=1) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (B) (B) and (C) Only
Explanation
If N2=NXN, Nis set of natural numbers and R is relation on N2, s.t. RC N2xN2i.e. <x,y> R<u,v> xv =yu, then which of the followings are TRUE ?
A. Reflexive
B. Symmetric
C. Transitive
D. Assymmetric Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (D) A, B and C only
Explanation
The interface(s) that provide(s) I/O transfer of data directly to and from the memory unit peripheral is/are termed as :
A. DMA (Direct Memory Access)
B. IOP (Input-Output Processor)
C. Serial Interface
D. Parallel Interface Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (C) A and B only
Explanation
Which of the following(s) are main memory ?
A. Virtual memory
B. Cache memory
C. RAM
D. SSD Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (B) (B) and (C) Only
Explanation
Which of the following are tautology ?
A. @3PAQ)3(23Q)
B. (€3Q)Q)>PvQ) (CQ) (VAP) 3Q)((PV>P)R)
D. (Q4(PAAP))3(R(PA=P)) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (C) (A) and(B) Only
Explanation
Consider the three points P1(1, 2, 0), P2(3, 6, 20) and P3(2, 4, 6) and a view point C(0, 0, —10). Choose the correct options.
A. P1 obscure P2, if viewed from
C.
B. 2 obscure P1, if viewed from
C.
C. P3 does not obscure P1, if viewed from
C.
D. P2 does not obscure P3, if viewed from
C. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (B) (A), (© and (D) Only
Explanation
Which of the statement are CORRECT ?
A. Constructors are invoked automatically when the objects are created.
B. Constructors do not have return types, not even void and therefore they cannot return values.
C. Constructors cannot be inherited though a derived class can call the base class constructors.
D. Constructors can be declared as virtual. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (B) (A), @) and (© Only
Explanation
Which one of the following statements are CORRECT ?
A. Granularity is the size of data item in a database.
B. Two operations in a schedule are said to be conflict if they belong to same transaction.
C. Two schedulers are said to be conflict equivalent if the order of any two conflicting operations is the same in both schedules.
D. Write operations which are performed without performing the write operation are known as Blind Writes. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (B) (A), (B) and (C) Only
Explanation
Which of the following is/are NOT CORRECT statement ?
A. The first record in each block of the data file is known as actor record.
B. Dense index has index entries for every search key value in the data file.
C. Searching is harder in the B* tree than B— tree as the all external nodes linked to each other.
D. In extendible hashing the size of directory is just an array of 24—, where d is global depth. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (B) (A), (©) and (D) Only
Explanation
Which of the following statements is/are NOT CORRECT about NUMA ?
A. LOAD and STORE instructions are used to access remote memory.
B. There is a single address space visible to all CPU.
C. Access to local memory is slower than access to remote memory.
D. When the access time to remote memory is hidden, the system is called NC - NUM
A.
E. In CC- NUMA, Coherent caches are present. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (D) (© and (D) Only
Explanation
Indexed/ grouped allocation is useful as :
A. It supports both sequential and direct access.
B. Entire block is available for data.
C. It does not require lots of space for keeping pointers.
D. No external fragmentation. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (D) (A), (B) and (D) Only
Explanation
Which of the following statements are CORRECT ?
A. A process always check state of currently executing process to enter critical schema.
B. Spin locks uses busy waiting.
C. Periodically testing a variable until some value appear is known as busy waiting.
D. Critical region is a part of program, where shared memory is kept.
E. Printer daemon, continuously checks to see if there are any file to be printed. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (C) (B) and (D) Only
Explanation
Three address codes can be represented in special structures known as :
A. Quadruples
B. Triples
C. Patterns
D. Indirect Triples Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (B) (A), (B) and (D) Only
Explanation
Which of the statement is/are CORRECT ?
A. Moore and Mealy machines are finite state machines with output capabilities.
B. Any given Moore machine has an equivalent Mealy machine.
C. Any given Mealy machine has an equivalent Moore machine.
D. Moore machine is not a finite state machine. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (B) (A), (B) and (©) Only
Explanation
The statement P(x) : "x=x?". If the universe of disclosure consists of integers, what are the following have truth values :
A. PC)
B. PC) () PQ)
D. Ax P(x) (BE) Vx P(x) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (C) (A), (B) and (D) Only
Explanation
Which of the following statement are truth statements if universe of disclosure is set of integers :
A. Vn(n?20)
B. An(n?=2)
C. Vn(n?>n)
D. n(n*<0) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (D) (A) and (C) Only
Explanation
Which of the following graphs are trees ? bs b @ d
A. e f a b c d
B. e f a b é d (9) e f a b c d
D. e f Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (A) (A) and (B) Only
Explanation
Which of the following are example of CSMA channel sensing methods ?
A. 1-persistent
B. 2-persistent
C. p-persistent
D. o-persistent Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (B) (A), © and (D) Only
Explanation
The selection of Spiral Model based on characteristics of requirements :
A. Are requirements easily understandable and defined ?
B. Do we change requirements quite often ?
C. Can we define requirements early in the cycle ?
D. Requirements are indicating a complex to be built Choose the correct answer from the options given below : @) © Only
Answer: (C) B and D only
Explanation
The work done by UDP is/are :
A. Congestion control
B. Flow control
C. Retransmission
D. Segments transmission Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (Q)
A. and
D. Only
Answer: (C) D only
Explanation
Which of the following statement/s is/are NOT CORRECT ?
A. OSPF is based on distance-vector routing protocol.
B. Both link-state and distance-vector routing are based on the least cost goal.
C. BGP4 is based on the path-vector algorithm.
D. The three-node instability can be avoided using split horizon combined with poison reverse.
E. _ RIP is based on link state algorithm. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (A) (A), (D) and &) Only
Explanation
Which of the following statement/s are CORRECT ?
A. NRZ is a bipolar scheme in which the positive voltage define bit is 0 (zero).
B. NRZ-L and NRZ-I both have an average signal rate of N/2.
C. The idea of RZ and NRZ-L are combined into Manchester scheme.
D. NRZ-L and NRZ-I both have DC component problems.
E. The minimum bandwidth of Manchester and differential Manchester is 3 times that of NRZ. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (C) (B), (©) and (D) Only
Explanation
Which of the following are commonly used parsing techniques in NLP (Natural Language Processing) for syntatic analysis.
A. Top down parsing
B. Bottom Up parsing
C. Dependency parsing
D. _ Statistical machine translation
E. Earley parsing Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (C) (A), (B), (©), (E) Only
Explanation
In the content of Alpha Beta pruning in game trees which of the following statements are correct regarding cut off procedures ?
A. Alpha Beta pruning can eliminate subtrees with certainly when the value of a node exceeds both the alpha and beta bonds.
B. The primarily purpose of Alpha-Beta proning is to save computation time by searching fewer nodes in the same tree.
C. Alpha Beta pruning guarantees the optimal solution in all cases by exploring the entire game tree.
D. Alpha and Beta bonds are initialized to negative and positive infinity respectively at the root note. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (C) (A), (B), (DB) Only
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| Source matching prompt | Source values |
|---|---|
| See question stem | See answer choices |
Answer: (D) (A)-(0), (B)-(), (C)-(IV), (D)-
Explanation
Arrange the following in ascending order :
A. Remainder of 49!© when divided by 17
B. Remainder of 24° when divided by 9
C. Remainder of 155!" when divided by 17
D. Last digits of the number 74° Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Q)
A. @),.©,®) Q
A. 8,0), ©
Answer: (C) A, C, B, D
Explanation
In most general case, the computer needs to process each instruction with the following sequence of steps :
A. Calculate the effective address
B. Execute the instruction
C. Fetch the instruction from memory
D. Fetch the operand from memory
E. Decode the instruction Choose the correct answer from the options given below : @)
A. , ®), ©, 0), ©
Answer: (C) C, E, A, D, B
Explanation
Consider the following code segment : int arr [] = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4}; int i=1, *ptr; ptr=arr+2; arrange the following printf statements in the increasing order of their output.
A. printf ("%d", pti);
B. printf ("%d", ptr[i+1]);
C. _ printf ("%d", ptr[—i));
D. printf ("%d", ptr[—i+1]); Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (B) (©, (), (A), 8)
Explanation
The steps for analysis and design of object oriented system.
A. Draw interaction diagrams
B. Draw state chart and object diagram
C. Draw use case and activity diagram
D. Draw component and deployment diagram
E. Draw class diagram Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (D) C → A → E → B → D
Explanation
Arrange the following levels of interrupt protection within the Linux Kernel, in the order of increasing priority.
A. user mode programs
B. bottom half interrupt handlers
C. kernel system service routines
D. top half interrupt handlers Choose the correct answer from the options given below : ()
A. ,
B. , (P), ©
Answer: (B) (A), ©, (8), ©)
Explanation
Arrange the following phases of a compiler as per their order of execution (start to end)
A. Target code generation
B. Syntax Analysis
C. Code optimization
D. Semantic Analysis
E. Lexical Analysis Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (C) (&), (B), (D), (©), (A)
Explanation
The prototyping model has the sequence :
A. Customer Evaluation
B. Quick design
C. Requirements
D. Implement
E. Design Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (C) C → B → D → A → E
Explanation
Arrange the following encoding strategies used in Genetic Algorithms (GAs) in the correct sequence starting from the initial step and ending with the final representation of solutions :
A. Binary Encoding
B. Real valued Encoding
C. Permutation Encoding
D. Gray coding Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (C) (©), ), (A), @)
Explanation
Arrange the following steps in the correct order for a DHCP Client to renew its IP lease with a DHCP server :
A. DHCP client sends a DHCPREQUEST message
B. DHCP server acknowledges the renewal with a DHCPACK message
C. DHCP client checks the local lease timer and initiates renewal
D. DHCP server updates its lease database Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (D) (©, (A), (), (D)
Explanation
Arrange the following steps in the correct sequence for applying an unsupervised learning technique such as K-means clustering is to a data set :
A. Randomly initialize cluster centroids
B. Assign each data point to nearest cluster centroid
C. Update the cluster centroids based on the mean of data points assigned to each cluster
D. Specify the number of clusters (K) to partation the data into
E. Repeat steps B and C until convergence criteria are met Choose the correct answer from the options given below : @) (©),
A. , ©, ©
Answer: (A) D, A, B, C, E
Explanation
Evaluate these statements: Statement I: If H is non empty finite subset of a group G and abeH V a, beH, then H is also a group. Statement II: There is no homomorphism exist from (Z, +) to (Q, +); where Z is set of integers and Q is set of rational number. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Explanation
Evaluate these statements: Statement I: The friend function and the member functions of a friend class directly access the private and protected data. Statement II: The friend function can access the private data through the member functions of the base class In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation
Evaluate these statements: Statement I: A thread is a dispatchable unit of work that does not executes sequentially and is not interruptible Statement II: It is not possible to alter the behaviour of a thread by altering its context when thread is suspended. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Explanation
Evaluate these statements: Statement I: In Reuse Oriented Model, Modification of the old system parts appropriate to the new requirements. Statement II: In Reuse Oriented Model, Integration of the modified parts are not possible into the new systems. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Explanation
Evaluate these statements: Statement I: In datagram networks - routers hold state information about connections Statement II: In virtual circuit network- each virtual circuit requires router table space per connection In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Explanation
The cost funtion of total food is :
Food X contains 6 units of Vitamin D per gram and 7 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 12 per gram. Food Y contains 8 units of Vitamin D per gram and 12 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 20 per gram. The daily minimum requirements of vitamin D and vitamin E are 100 units and 120 units respectively. Let x and y be the quantities in grams of Food X and Food Y.
Answer: (C) Z=12x +20y
Explanation
Which of the following constrains when formulating the LPP ?
Food X contains 6 units of Vitamin D per gram and 7 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 12 per gram. Food Y contains 8 units of Vitamin D per gram and 12 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 20 per gram. The daily minimum requirements of vitamin D and vitamin E are 100 units and 120 units respectively. Let x and y be the quantities in grams of Food X and Food Y.
Answer: (D) 6x+8y 2100, 7x+12y 2120, x,y20
Explanation
Which of the following are quantities (in grams) of food X and Y respectively when the cost of food is minimum : 1
Food X contains 6 units of Vitamin D per gram and 7 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 12 per gram. Food Y contains 8 units of Vitamin D per gram and 12 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 20 per gram. The daily minimum requirements of vitamin D and vitamin E are 100 units and 120 units respectively. Let x and y be the quantities in grams of Food X and Food Y.
Answer: (B) 15 and 7 P 120 49
Explanation
The dual of the formulated LPP is :
Food X contains 6 units of Vitamin D per gram and 7 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 12 per gram. Food Y contains 8 units of Vitamin D per gram and 12 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 20 per gram. The daily minimum requirements of vitamin D and vitamin E are 100 units and 120 units respectively. Let x and y be the quantities in grams of Food X and Food Y.
Answer: (A) Max Z = 100u + 120v; 6u + 7v ≤ 12; 8u + 12v ≤ 20; u, v ≥ 0
Explanation
The minimum cost of food is :
Food X contains 6 units of Vitamin D per gram and 7 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 12 per gram. Food Y contains 8 units of Vitamin D per gram and 12 units of Vitamin E per gram and costs Rs. 20 per gram. The daily minimum requirements of vitamin D and vitamin E are 100 units and 120 units respectively. Let x and y be the quantities in grams of Food X and Food Y.
Answer: (A) 205
Explanation
Find the number of tuples by applying the operation Xb x05 aye"
| X (S, Si, C) | Y (S, P, D) |
|---|---|
(J, 1, M) (B, 2, N) (R, 3, H) (T, 4, G) | (J, S₁, CA) (B, P₁, AB) (R, D₁, DC) (A, H₁, MD) |
Answer: (C) 4
Explanation
Result of *{x.s=y.s¥ is : [s|s[ec] er]. | J 1 M S, | CA B | 2/]N 1] P, | AB M |r |s3]uH |v, |} ve £ 4 G | Null] Null [s[s [ec] Pr]o] J 1 M S, | CA B}| 2 | N | P, | AB
| X (S, Si, C) | Y (S, P, D) |
|---|---|
(J, 1, M) (B, 2, N) (R, 3, H) (T, 4, G) | (J, S₁, CA) (B, P₁, AB) (R, D₁, DC) (A, H₁, MD) |
Answer: (B) (J, 1, M, S₁, CA); (B, 2, N, P₁, AB); (R, 3, H, D₁, DC); (A, Null, Null, H₁, MD)
Explanation
Which of the following join is used to get all the tuples of relation X and Y with Null values of corresponding missing values ?
| X (S, Si, C) | Y (S, P, D) |
|---|---|
(J, 1, M) (B, 2, N) (R, 3, H) (T, 4, G) | (J, S₁, CA) (B, P₁, AB) (R, D₁, DC) (A, H₁, MD) |
Answer: (D) Full outer join
Explanation
Number of tuples by applying right outer join on relation X and Y is/are :
| X (S, Si, C) | Y (S, P, D) |
|---|---|
(J, 1, M) (B, 2, N) (R, 3, H) (T, 4, G) | (J, S₁, CA) (B, P₁, AB) (R, D₁, DC) (A, H₁, MD) |
Answer: (D) 4
Explanation
Number of tuples obtained by applying cartesian product over X and Y are :
| X (S, Si, C) | Y (S, P, D) |
|---|---|
(J, 1, M) (B, 2, N) (R, 3, H) (T, 4, G) | (J, S₁, CA) (B, P₁, AB) (R, D₁, DC) (A, H₁, MD) |
Answer: (A) 16
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| Source matching prompt | Source values |
|---|---|
| See question stem | See answer choices |
Answer: (B) (A)-CV), (B)-CM), ()-@), (P)-
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| Source matching prompt | Source values |
|---|---|
| See question stem | See answer choices |
Answer: (C) (A)-(), (8)-(), ©-€V), (D)-@)
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| Source matching prompt | Source values |
|---|---|
| See question stem | See answer choices |
Answer: (B) (A)-CV), (B-(), (QC, (D)-(m)
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| Source matching prompt | Source values |
|---|---|
| See question stem | See answer choices |
Answer: (B) (A)-(), ()-@), (-CV), (D)-(N)
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| Source matching prompt | Source values |
|---|---|
| See question stem | See answer choices |
Answer: (B) (AC, B)-(), (CAV), (P)-(II)
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| Source matching prompt | Source values |
|---|---|
| See question stem | See answer choices |
Answer: (B) (A), (B)-(), (CCD, (D)-(IV)
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| Source matching prompt | Source values |
|---|---|
| See question stem | See answer choices |
Answer: (A) (A), (B)-V), ©)-(, (P)-CI)
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| Source matching prompt | Source values |
|---|---|
| See question stem | See answer choices |
Answer: (A) (A), (B)-(), (©-€V), (D)-()
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| Source matching prompt | Source values |
|---|---|
| See question stem | See answer choices |
Answer: (A) (D) Depth first search (IV) O(b' m) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Explanation
Paper 1 had 50 questions and Paper 2 (Computer Science & Applications) had 100 questions, for 150 in total across 3 hours.
No. Each correct answer earns 2 marks and there is no penalty for a wrong answer, so leaving a question blank is never better than attempting it.
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