The complete UGC NET March 2023 question paper for Economics, covering Paper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (Economics). Every question below is shown with its options and the correct answer, and a detailed explanation you can unlock by signing in. All 298 questions are free to practise.
| Exam | UGC NET March 2023 |
|---|---|
| Papers | Paper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (Economics) |
| Exam date(s) | March 2, 2023 |
| Shift(s) | Shift 1 · Shift 2 |
| Paper 1 questions | 99 questions · 60 minutes · 100 marks |
| Paper 2 questions | 199 questions · 120 minutes · 200 marks |
| Total | 298 questions |
| Marking scheme | +2 per correct answer · No negative marking |
UGC NET March 2023 · Shift 1 · Economics sitting
UGC NET March 2023 · Shift 2 · Economics sitting
49 questions with the answer key and explanations.
Company ______ earned the maximum percentage profit in the year 2021.
| Company | Income (million Rs.) | Expenditure (million Rs.) |
|---|---|---|
| A | 35 | 45 |
| B | 50 | 40 |
| C | 40 | 45 |
| D | 40 | 30 |
| E | 50 | 45 |
The table shows the income and expenditure of five companies A-E in 2021. Profit/Loss % = [(Income - Expenditure) / Expenditure] x 100.
Answer: (D) D
Explanation
The companies A and B together had a percentage profit/loss of ______.
| Company | Income (million Rs.) | Expenditure (million Rs.) |
|---|---|---|
| A | 35 | 45 |
| B | 50 | 40 |
| C | 40 | 45 |
| D | 40 | 30 |
| E | 50 | 45 |
The table shows the income and expenditure of five companies A-E in 2021. Profit/Loss % = [(Income - Expenditure) / Expenditure] x 100.
Answer: (D) There was no loss or profit
Explanation
In 2021, the approximate percentage of profit/loss of all the five companies taken together was
| Company | Income (million Rs.) | Expenditure (million Rs.) |
|---|---|---|
| A | 35 | 45 |
| B | 50 | 40 |
| C | 40 | 45 |
| D | 40 | 30 |
| E | 50 | 45 |
The table shows the income and expenditure of five companies A-E in 2021. Profit/Loss % = [(Income - Expenditure) / Expenditure] x 100.
Answer: (A) 5% profit
Explanation
If the income of Company D in 2021 was 10% more than its income in 2020 and the company had earned a profit of 20% in 2020, then its expenditure (in million Rs.) in 2020 was approximately ______.
| Company | Income (million Rs.) | Expenditure (million Rs.) |
|---|---|---|
| A | 35 | 45 |
| B | 50 | 40 |
| C | 40 | 45 |
| D | 40 | 30 |
| E | 50 | 45 |
The table shows the income and expenditure of five companies A-E in 2021. Profit/Loss % = [(Income - Expenditure) / Expenditure] x 100.
Answer: (B) 30.30
Explanation
For Company E, if the expenditure had increased by 20% in the year 2021 from the year 2020 and the company had earned a profit of 10% in 2020, then the company's income (in million Rs.) in 2020 was
| Company | Income (million Rs.) | Expenditure (million Rs.) |
|---|---|---|
| A | 35 | 45 |
| B | 50 | 40 |
| C | 40 | 45 |
| D | 40 | 30 |
| E | 50 | 45 |
The table shows the income and expenditure of five companies A-E in 2021. Profit/Loss % = [(Income - Expenditure) / Expenditure] x 100.
Answer: (C) 41.25
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: SWAYAM is a program initiated by Government of India and designed to achieve the six cardinal principles of education policy.
Statement II: SWAYAM has been developed cooperatively by Ministry of Human Resource Development (now Ministry of Education) and All India Council for Technical Education with the help of Infosys.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Explanation
Which of the following is said to occur without reinforcement of particular responses and seems to involve changes in the ways information is processed?
Answer: (B) Latent learning
Explanation
According to Brown and Ciuffetelli Parker, which of the following are the elements of cooperative learning?
A. Individual Accountability
B. Demonstration
C. Brainstorming
D. Group processing
E. Social skills
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) A, D and E only
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Good teaching is formal in nature.
Statement II: There is no difference between teaching and training.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Explanation
A conceptual hypothesis is drawn from the implications of a
Answer: (B) Theory
Explanation
In inductive approach theory is generated out of
Answer: (B) Research done
Explanation
When a sampled individual is observed over a pre-determined period of time in structured observation, it is called
Answer: (A) Focus sampling
Explanation
In ethnographic research, the researcher involves himself in a ______ over a period of time.
Answer: (D) social setting
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The double blind procedure is an effective solution to the issue of experimenter bias in research.
Statement II: The problem of experimenter bias can also be solved by non-verbal cuing of the participants.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Explanation
The arrival of interactive communication technologies has been described as
Answer: (B) The second media age
Explanation
One of the features of broadcast communication is that it is
Answer: (D) Live for the audience
Explanation
A cool medium has the features of:
A. High definition
B. High participation
C. It provides small amount of information
D. Tends not to be supplemented by hot media
E. Supplanted by hot media
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) B, C and E only
Explanation
Which of the following directly affect or influence the listening skills of the students?
A. Student protocol
B. Administrative interest
C. Speed of the speech
D. Timing of the speech
E. The regional accent
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) C, D and E only
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The power elites by controlling the communication media extend their hegemonic rule further is a statement of myth.
Statement II: Through communication media, they always plan to win over the common publics and continue to overlord them.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Explanation
A certain principal amount in 2 years at some simple interest becomes Rs. 10,000 and the same principal amount on the same rate of simple interest becomes Rs. 11,000 in 3 years. Find the principal and rate of interest.
Answer: (D) Rs. 8000 and 12.5%
Explanation
Raman said to Aman, "That boy playing football there is the younger of the two brothers of the daughter of my father's wife." How is the boy playing football related to Raman?
Answer: (D) Brother
Explanation
A girl starts from a point P and walks 10 meters in the North-West direction and reaches the point Q. She then turns to her left and walks 10 meters to a point R which is directly westward to point P. She again moves towards south-east direction and goes 10 meters and reaches a point S which is directly southward to point Q. From the point S she turns towards point P and walks 10 meters. What is the shape of the geometrical figure PQRS?
Answer: (C) Square
Explanation
In a certain code language TROUBLE is written as ETLRBOU. How PROBLEM will be written in that language?
Answer: (C) MPERLOB
Explanation
What number should replace question mark (?) in the series given below:
15, 15, 22.5, 45, 112.5, 337.5, ?
Answer: (A) 1181.25
Explanation
"Although I am very happy to win the lottery, I am also a little worried. The last time I had won a lottery, my pocket was picked the next morning." Which logical fallacy is committed in the above argument?
Answer: (A) Post hoc
Explanation
Which of the following statements are logically equivalent?
A. All aeroplanes are polluting vehicles.
B. No polluting vehicles are aeroplanes.
C. All non-polluting vehicles are non-aeroplanes.
D. No aeroplanes are non-polluting vehicles.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) A, C and D only
Explanation
If the statement "All aeroplanes are polluting vehicles" is given as true, then which of the following statements can be immediately inferred to be true?
Answer: (B) Some aeroplanes are polluting vehicles.
Explanation
Which of the following propositions are so related that they can not both be false, although they may both be true?
A. Some cars are polluting vehicles.
B. Some cars are not polluting vehicles.
C. All cars are polluting vehicles.
D. No cars are polluting vehicles.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) A and B only
Explanation
According to classical Indian School of logic (Nyaya), which of the following arguments involves the fallacy of ashrayasiddha?
Answer: (A) The sky-lotus is fragrant, because it is a lotus, like the lotus of a lake.
Explanation
In ICT, which one of the following pairs of acronym and its expansion is incompatible?
Answer: (C) Blog - weB LOGic
Explanation
A photograph occupies 10 MB of storage. A memory stick with 4 GB capacity can store approximately ______ such photographs.
Answer: (B) 400
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: You can read from and write to RAM, whereas you can read from ROM but you can't write to ROM.
Statement II: CD-RW stands for Compact Disc-ReWritable and can be written to and modified many times, whereas CD-R stands for Compact Disc-Recordable and R here indicates that the disc is recordable once only.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Explanation
Using the Ribbon in MS Word software, the Word count command/feature displays the number of words as well as the number of ______ in the current document.
A. Lines
B. Characters
C. Paragraph
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) A, B and C
Explanation
Which of the following statements are correct?
Most web browsers:
A. have a HOME page.
B. have the ability to store user's favourite websites/pages.
C. keep a history of the websites visited by the users.
D. give the ability to go backward and forward to websites opened.
E. provide the user with access to Internet.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) A, B, C and D only
Explanation
Wind farms are?
Answer: (D) Large concentrations of wind generators producing electricity.
Explanation
Match List I with List II.
| List I: Pollution Source | List II: Category |
|---|---|
| A. Sewage | I. Thermal Pollution |
| B. Agricultural Fertilizers | II. Sediments |
| C. Land Erosion | III. Oxygen demanding waste |
| D. Power Plants | IV. Plant Nutrients |
Answer: (B) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
Explanation
Which of the following are overwhelming evidence of climate change?
A. In Alaska, Western Canada and Eastern Russia average temperatures have increased by over 4°C during past 50 years.
B. Tropical regions have warmed much faster than rest of the world.
C. Mount Kilimanjaro has lost 85% of its famous ice cap since 1915.
D. Over the last century the average global temperature has climbed 0.6°C.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) A, C and D only
Explanation
Assertion (A): Many human activities increase both the severity and frequency of floods.
Reason (R): Paved roads and parking lots increase water infiltration into the soil and slow down the rate of run off in streams and lakes.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
Explanation
The 'Loss and Damage' funding in the context of climate change impacts was agreed upon by the international community at
Answer: (D) COP 27
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: According to ancient Hindu system of Education an aspect of education which is emphasized by the upholders of education in democratic society is that education should be free as far as practicable.
Statement II: According to ancient Hindu system of education an aspect of education which is emphasized by the upholders of education in democratic society is that education should be compulsory as far as practicable.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Explanation
According to NEP 2020, the first vertical of Higher Education Commission of India (HECI) will be the
Answer: (B) National Higher Education Regulatory Council (NHERC)
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: According to National Education Policy document, the teacher must be the locus of basic reforms in the country's educational reforms.
Statement II: Historically marginalised or the disadvantaged student sections of the society should get paid quality education irrespective of their place of residence.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Explanation
Which of the following Universities threw all University examinations open to girls in 1883?
Answer: (D) University of Madras
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Xuan Zang visited India and became a student of Takshashila University.
Statement II: Xuan Zang visited India and became a student of Yogashastra.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Explanation
The naval expedition against Malaya was sent by a
Indian rulers, particularly the Pala and Sena rulers of Bengal, and the Pallava and Chola rulers of south India, tried to encourage the trade with China.
The Chola ruler, Rajendra 1, sent a naval expedition against Malaya and neighbouring countries to overcome their interference in the trade with China.
There is evidence to show that there were many shipyards in south India, Orissa and Bengal engaged in the construction of ships. Such shipyards were also located on the west coast including Gujarat. Thus, growth of India's foreign trade in the area was based on a strong naval tradition, including ship building and a strong navy, and the skill and enterprise of its traders.
The Chinese trade was very favourable to the countries engaged in it, so much so that in the thirteenth century, the Chinese government tried to restrict the export of gold and silver from China. Indian ships gradually gave way to the Arabs and the Chinese whose ships were bigger and faster. We are told that the Chinese ships were several storeys high and carried 600 passengers apart from 400 soldiers. An important factor in the growth of the Chinese ships was the use of a primitive Mariner's compass, an invention which later travelled from China to the West.
Answer: (D) Chola ruler
Explanation
Consider these two statements:
Statement I: Trade between India and China always occurred in the Chinese ships as these were always better than the Indian ships.
Statement II: Malaya was located in Kerala.
In light of these statements, choose the most appropriate answer.
Indian rulers, particularly the Pala and Sena rulers of Bengal, and the Pallava and Chola rulers of south India, tried to encourage the trade with China.
The Chola ruler, Rajendra 1, sent a naval expedition against Malaya and neighbouring countries to overcome their interference in the trade with China.
There is evidence to show that there were many shipyards in south India, Orissa and Bengal engaged in the construction of ships. Such shipyards were also located on the west coast including Gujarat. Thus, growth of India's foreign trade in the area was based on a strong naval tradition, including ship building and a strong navy, and the skill and enterprise of its traders.
The Chinese trade was very favourable to the countries engaged in it, so much so that in the thirteenth century, the Chinese government tried to restrict the export of gold and silver from China. Indian ships gradually gave way to the Arabs and the Chinese whose ships were bigger and faster. We are told that the Chinese ships were several storeys high and carried 600 passengers apart from 400 soldiers. An important factor in the growth of the Chinese ships was the use of a primitive Mariner's compass, an invention which later travelled from China to the West.
Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Explanation
Which factors played an important role in India's trade with China?
A. Ship building in India
B. Strong navy
C. Skill and enterprise of the traders
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Indian rulers, particularly the Pala and Sena rulers of Bengal, and the Pallava and Chola rulers of south India, tried to encourage the trade with China.
The Chola ruler, Rajendra 1, sent a naval expedition against Malaya and neighbouring countries to overcome their interference in the trade with China.
There is evidence to show that there were many shipyards in south India, Orissa and Bengal engaged in the construction of ships. Such shipyards were also located on the west coast including Gujarat. Thus, growth of India's foreign trade in the area was based on a strong naval tradition, including ship building and a strong navy, and the skill and enterprise of its traders.
The Chinese trade was very favourable to the countries engaged in it, so much so that in the thirteenth century, the Chinese government tried to restrict the export of gold and silver from China. Indian ships gradually gave way to the Arabs and the Chinese whose ships were bigger and faster. We are told that the Chinese ships were several storeys high and carried 600 passengers apart from 400 soldiers. An important factor in the growth of the Chinese ships was the use of a primitive Mariner's compass, an invention which later travelled from China to the West.
Answer: (D) A, B and C
Explanation
Indian rulers from which regions tried to encourage trade with China?
A. Bengal
B. Gujarat
C. South India
Choose the correct answer.
Indian rulers, particularly the Pala and Sena rulers of Bengal, and the Pallava and Chola rulers of south India, tried to encourage the trade with China.
The Chola ruler, Rajendra 1, sent a naval expedition against Malaya and neighbouring countries to overcome their interference in the trade with China.
There is evidence to show that there were many shipyards in south India, Orissa and Bengal engaged in the construction of ships. Such shipyards were also located on the west coast including Gujarat. Thus, growth of India's foreign trade in the area was based on a strong naval tradition, including ship building and a strong navy, and the skill and enterprise of its traders.
The Chinese trade was very favourable to the countries engaged in it, so much so that in the thirteenth century, the Chinese government tried to restrict the export of gold and silver from China. Indian ships gradually gave way to the Arabs and the Chinese whose ships were bigger and faster. We are told that the Chinese ships were several storeys high and carried 600 passengers apart from 400 soldiers. An important factor in the growth of the Chinese ships was the use of a primitive Mariner's compass, an invention which later travelled from China to the West.
Answer: (C) A and C only
Explanation
Shipyards in India were located at
A. Bengal
B. Orissa
C. South India
D. Gujarat
Choose the most appropriate answer.
Indian rulers, particularly the Pala and Sena rulers of Bengal, and the Pallava and Chola rulers of south India, tried to encourage the trade with China.
The Chola ruler, Rajendra 1, sent a naval expedition against Malaya and neighbouring countries to overcome their interference in the trade with China.
There is evidence to show that there were many shipyards in south India, Orissa and Bengal engaged in the construction of ships. Such shipyards were also located on the west coast including Gujarat. Thus, growth of India's foreign trade in the area was based on a strong naval tradition, including ship building and a strong navy, and the skill and enterprise of its traders.
The Chinese trade was very favourable to the countries engaged in it, so much so that in the thirteenth century, the Chinese government tried to restrict the export of gold and silver from China. Indian ships gradually gave way to the Arabs and the Chinese whose ships were bigger and faster. We are told that the Chinese ships were several storeys high and carried 600 passengers apart from 400 soldiers. An important factor in the growth of the Chinese ships was the use of a primitive Mariner's compass, an invention which later travelled from China to the West.
Answer: (D) A, B, C and D
Explanation
100 questions with the answer key and explanations.
Which of the following is not true in case of Indifference curves?
Answer: (D) Indifference curve for two normal goods is a downward sloping straight line.
Explanation
Which one of the following is not true in case of producer's equilibrium?
Answer: (D) MRTS_LK = r / w
Explanation
A game in which the gains or losses of one player or firm do not come at the
expenses of or provide equal benefit to the other player or firm, is known as
____________.
Answer: (B) Non - Zero Sum game
Explanation
The condition of preferring a risky income to a certain income with the same
expected value is refered as :
Answer: (B) Risk loving
Explanation
____________ arises when the firm can produce any combination of the two
outputs more cheaply than could two independent firms that each produced a
single output.
Answer: (D) Economies of scope
Explanation
In which oligopoly model, firms produce homogenous goods and each firm
treats the price of its competitors as fixed and all firms decide simultaneously,
what price to change?
Answer: (A) Betrand model
Explanation
Who wrote that "every man thus lives by exchanging or becomes in some
measure a merchant, and the society itself grows to be what is properly a
commercial society."
Answer: (D) Adam Smith
Explanation
The Sticky - Price Model is
Answer: (A) The upward sloping short run aggregate supply curve
Explanation
If the demand for labour increases, then
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 happen
Explanation
Macroeconomics distinguishes between real economy and ___________
Answer: (B) Monetary economy
Explanation
In accelerator theory, capital output ratio is assumed to be
Answer: (D) Constant
Explanation
Government spending is
Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
Find the variance of random variables which constitute the number of heads in
a toss of two coins simultaneously.
Answer: (A) 1/2
Explanation
If the demand and supply functions are given Pd = 20 - 5x and Ps = 4x + 8;
obtain Producer's surplus
Answer: (B) 32 / 9
Explanation
The demand function for Good A is given by QA = 100 - 2 PA + 0.2 Y + 0.3 PB.
Find the cross - price elasticities of demand at PA = 6, Y = 500, PB = 10.
Answer: (B) 0.016
Explanation
Test statistics used to test stationary of a time series in the presence of
correlated error term is
Answer: (D) Augmented Dickey - Fuller test
Explanation
In logit model as Pi goes from 0 to 1, logit L varies from
Answer: (B) ∞ to + ∞
Explanation
Find the Elasticity of Substitution (σ) of Constant elasticity of substitution (CES)
Production function. When the substitution parameter(p) lies between 0 < p < ∞
Answer: (B) σ < 1
Explanation
The regression model Yt = α1 + α2 Dt + β1Xt +β2(YtDt) + Ut is used to
Answer: (C) Analyse structural break in data
Explanation
A box of nine golf gloves contains two left handed and seven right - handed
gloves. If two gloves are randomly selected from the box without replacement,
what is the probability that one is left - handed and the other is a right -
handed glove?
Answer: (C) 7 / 18
Explanation
Which institution has published the Human Development Report annually since
1990?
Answer: (D) United National Development Programme
Explanation
Which Five year plan proposed to make India, "Self - reliant and Self generating
economy"?
Answer: (B) IIIrd Five year plan
Explanation
The birth of World Trade Organisation emerged from which round?
Answer: (C) Uruguay
Explanation
Total Budget Allocation in year 2022 - 23. For "Har Ghar, Nal Se Jal" in rupees is:
Answer: (C) 60,000/ - crore
Explanation
A toll is a tax on those citizens who use toll roads. This policy can be viewed as
an application of
Answer: (A) The benefit principle
Explanation
Which of the following formulae is used to measure the tax mutiplier:
Answer: (A) −MPC 1−MPC
Explanation
The Free-rider problem arises :
Answer: (C) when number of beneficiaries is large and exclusion of any one of them is impossible.
Explanation
The money supply in the IS - LM model is assumed to be
Answer: (D) Real money supply
Explanation
Which of the following two economists are associated with the problem of time
inconsistency?
Answer: (B) Kydland and Prescott
Explanation
The Value - Trade ratio captures trading relative to the size of the
Answer: (A) economy
Explanation
"Under-developed countries are the slums of the world economy", is a
statement given by
Answer: (D) Cairncross
Explanation
The greater the divergence between the shadow price and the market price :
Answer: (A) the greater the need for social cost-benefit analysis in public investment decisions.
Explanation
Which one of the following author-book pairs is NOT correctly matched?
| Author | Book |
|---|---|
| 1. Simon Kuznets | Asian Drama |
| 2. Robinson | Essays on the Theory of Economic Growth |
| 3. Karl Marx | Das Capital |
| 4. Arthur W. Lewis | Theory of Economic Growth |
Answer: (A) 1
Explanation
Which of the following is not true about the basic postulates of the Malthusian
Perspective on population?
Answer: (A) The human population will invariably grow where the means of subsistence increase
Explanation
Which of the following criterion is used to judge the performance of
instruments for environmental policy?
Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
Which of the following is true in the case of externality?
Answer: (C) It is based on higher order judgements of right and wrong
Explanation
What does the case of 'Immiserising growth' state?
Answer: (B) Growth in poorer nations would actually be self defeating
Explanation
In which stage of the product cycle model, the imitating country starts under
selling the innovating country in third markets?
Answer: (C) Stage - III
Explanation
If the nominal tariff rate (t) on consumers of the final commodity is 10 percent;
the ratio of the cost of the imported input to the price of the final commodity in
the absence of tariffs ai = 0.8; and the nominal tariff rate on the imported input
ti = 20%, then find the rate of effective protection.
Answer: (D) -30%
Explanation
The level of intra-industry index (T) can be measured as:
∣X−M ∣
Answer: (A) T = 1 − X+M
Explanation
Nash equilibrium represents
A. The outcome each time the game is played
B. Long - run equilibrium
C. A situation in which one player will not deviate, given the strategy of other
player
D. Best response of the first mover
E. The pair of dominated strategies
Answer: (C) B and C only
Explanation
Which of the following are correct about loanable fund theory?
A. Dishoarding is a major source of supply of loanable funds.
B. Demand for hoarding is inversely related to the interest rate.
C. Equality between demand and supply of loanable funds is the only condition
required for a stable equilibrium.
D. Wicksell was one of the propounders of the theory.
E. It introduced monetary factors into the theory of interest.
Answer: (C) B, D and E only
Explanation
Which of the following are correct assumptions of Arrow's conditions of Social
Welfare?
A. Responsiveness to individual preferences
B. Impositions
C. Dictatorship
D. Transitivity or consistency
E. Independent of irrelevant alternatives
Answer: (A) A, B and D only
Explanation
The consequences of a country having a persistent current account surplus
include
A. Employment generation
B. Higher standard of living
C. Low inflation pressure
D. Currency appreciates in value
E. More pressure on public debt
Answer: (B) A, B and D only
Explanation
For the computation of National income by the product method, which of the
following sectors are considered:
A. Registered manufacturing
B. Agricultural and allied activities
C. Mining and quarrying
D. Unregistered manufacturing
E. Non - monetised activities
Answer: (C) A, B, C and D only
Explanation
Which of the following statements are correct?
A. According to the accelerator model, investment demand is proportional to
the change in GDP.
B. The real rate of interest is the nominal rate of interest plus the inflation rate.
C. The higher the real interest rate, the higher is the rental cost of capital.
D. Investment is a stock concept.
E. Residential investment is low when mortgage interest rates are high.
Answer: (B) A, C and E only
Explanation
The properties of mathematical expectation are:
a. The expectation of a constant C equals C.
b. If X and Y are random variables, then E of X plus Y equals E of X plus E of Y.
c. Variance of X plus or minus a constant C equals variance of X.
d. If X and Y are independent random variables, then E of XY equals E of X multiplied by E of Y.
e. Variance of aX equals a times variance of X, where a is constant.
Answer: (C) B, C and D only
Explanation
Which of the following are correct are OLS estimation in the presence of
autocorrelation?
A. The estimated coefficients are linear
B. The estimated coefficients are unbiased
C. The estimated coefficients are biased
D. The estimated coefficients are consistent
E. The estimated coefficients are efficient
Answer: (B) A, B and D only
Explanation
Which of the following are correct in case of area under the standard normal
probability curve.
A. Distance from the mean ordinates in terms of ± σ at Z = ± 0.6745 is 0.55
B. Distance from the mean ordinates in terms of ± σ at Z = ± 1.96 is 0.95
C. Distance from the mean ordinates in terms of ± σ at Z = ± 2.0 is 0.9544
D. Distance from the mean ordinates in terms of ± σ at Z = ± 2.58 is 0.98
E. Distance from the mean ordinates in terms of ± σ at Z = ± 3.0 is 0.9973
Answer: (B) B, C and E only
Explanation
Which of the following satisfy the assumptions of the classical linear regression
model?
A. The regression model is linear in the parameters
B. Zero mean value of disturbance Ui
C. The variance of Ui is not constant
D. There is a serial autocorrelation between the disturbance terms
E. The number of observations must be greater than the number of parameters
to be estimated
Answer: (B) A, B and E only
Explanation
If A, B and C are three different non-empty sets, which of the following laws of set operation are correct?
a. A intersection Ø equals Ø.
b. A intersection the union of B and C equals the union of A intersection B and A intersection C.
c. A intersection A complement equals Ø.
d. B minus A equals B complement intersection A complement.
e. The complement of A union B equals A complement union B complement.
Answer: (D) A, B and C only
Explanation
Which among the following are main components of PM e - Vidya:
A. One Nation, One Digital Education.
B. Infrastructure and Electronic Governance.
C. One Class, One T.V. Channel.
D. Extensive use of radio, Community radio and Podcasts.
E. Information and Communication Technology.
Answer: (A) A, C, D and E only
Explanation
Which of the followings are the alternative estimates of poverty in India?
A. Dandekar and Rath Estimate
B. O.P Chopra Estimate
C. P. D. Ojha Estimate
D. B. S. Minhas Estimate
E. D. K. Rangnekar Estimate
Answer: (A) A, B and C only
Explanation
Which of the following objectives are correct for the Public Sector?
A. To create employment opportunities
B. To promote balanced regional growth
C. To promote agriculture growth
D. To promote rapid economic development
E. To promote the banking sector of the economy
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
Answer: (A) A, B and D only
Explanation
Which of the following are required for a good tax system?
A. Revenue yield should be adequate.
B. Tax system should be so that different income groups of people pay tax
equally.
C. Administrative and compliance cost of tax should be as minimum as
possible.
D. Tax system should not permit scope for tax leakage and tax evasion.
E. Tax should be chosen to maximise interference with market efficiency.
Answer: (C) A, C and D only
Explanation
Federal transfers to states are required mainly:
A. to offset unequal assignment of resources and responsibilities between
Federal Government and State Government.
B. to correct spillovers of benefits of public goods between jurisdictions.
C. to address horizontal fiscal imbalances.
D. to augment resources of local bodies.
E. for overall efficiency of tax system.
Answer: (B) A, C and D only
Explanation
Which of the following are expansionary monetary policy measures to cure
deflation?
A. The Central bank buys government securities from commercial banks and
public.
B. The Central bank may hike the bank rate.
C. The Central bank may increase the cash reserve ratio.
D. The Central bank may reduce the cash reserve ratio.
E. The Central bank may lower the bank rate.
Answer: (D) A, D and E only
Explanation
The main features of Treasury bills are that:
A. they are issued at a discount and are repaid at par on maturity.
B. they have low liquidity on account of their short tenure.
C. there is no default risk.
D. they offer an assured yield.
E. they have a high transaction cost.
Answer: (B) A, C and D only
Explanation
Which of the following are correct for the probability of two independent events A and B?
a. Probability of A given B equals probability of A.
b. Probability of A given B equals probability of B.
c. Probability of A intersection B equals probability of A multiplied by probability of B.
d. Probability of both A complement and B complement equals probability of A complement multiplied by probability of B complement.
e. Probability of A and B complement equals probability of A complement multiplied by probability of B.
Answer: (B) A, C and D only
Explanation
Harrod - Domar classification of growth includes, which of the following?
A. Natural growth rate
B. Desired growth rate
C. Warranted growth rate
D. Possible growth rate
E. Population growth rate
Answer: (B) B and C only
Explanation
Which of the following are true for an oligopolistic market?
A. The demand curve of oligopolistic market is indeterminate.
B. There is a possibility of only two sellers.
C. The product may be homogenous or differentiated.
D. There is free entry into and free exit out of the market.
E. There is an importance of advertisment cost.
Answer: (C) A, B, C and E only
Explanation
Which of the following trends conform to the population projections for India
based on the Census of India 2011, as carried out by the Technical Group on
Population Projections under the aegis of National Commission on Population.
A. The infant mortality rate is expected to decline in all states during 2011 -
2035.
B. The average age of Indians is expected to be higher in 2036 compared to
2011.
C. The crude birth rate is expected to increase due to increasing level of total
fertility.
D. The crude death rate is expected to decrease owing to the changing age
structure of the population.
E. As per the projected sex ratio, the population in 2036 is expected to be more
feminine compared to the population in 2011.
Answer: (B) A, B and E only
Explanation
Consider a competitive polluting industry with identical firms and free entry. If
the regulator sets an emission cap for each firm equal to the socially optimal
long run level per firm, which of the following will characterize the long run
impact of such an environmental policy on this competitive industry?
A. The industry size will be larger than the social optimum.
B. The output produced by each firm will be less than socially optimal.
C. The industry size will be smaller than the social optimum.
D. The output produced by each firm will be larger than socially optimal.
E. Total output and total pollution are greater than the social optimum.
Answer: (D) A, B and E only
Explanation
Which of the following are the members of SAARC countries?
A. India
B. Pakistan
C. Sri Lanka
D. Afghanistan
E. China
Answer: (D) A, B, C and D only
Explanation
Which of the following forms the credit side of the Balance of Payments?
A. Unilateral transfer recieved
B. Capital transfer recieved
C. Income Payments (Import of factor services)
D. Exports of factor services
E. Merchandise imports
Answer: (D) A, B and D only
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. Extra risk that an investor must incur to enjoy a higher expected return. | I. Risky Asset |
| B. Tendency of individuals to value an item more when they own it than when they do not. | II. Moral Hazard |
| C. Provides an uncertain flow of money or services to its owner. | III. Price of Risk |
| D. When a party whose actions are unobserved can affect the probability of payment associated with an event. | IV. Endowment effect |
Answer: (B) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. A. W. Phillips | I. Trade off between wage and unemployment |
| B. Findley Shiraz | II. Money illusion |
| C. Modigliani | III. Life cycle hypothesis |
| D. Pigou | IV. Taxable capacity |
Answer: (B) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. Censored regression model | I. Probit model |
| B. Normit model | II. Marc Nerlove |
| C. Distributed-lags model | III. Tobit model |
| D. Partial adjustment model | IV. L. M. Koyck |
Answer: (B) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I: Two-variable linear regression model | List-II: Elasticity |
|---|---|
| A. Y = beta1 + beta2X | I. beta2X / Y |
| B. ln Y = beta1 + beta2X | II. beta2 |
| C. Y = beta1 + beta2 ln X | III. beta2(X / Y) |
| D. ln Y = beta1 + beta2 ln X | IV. beta2(1 / Y) |
Answer: (D) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. GATS, Mode-1 | I. Cross-border trade |
| B. GATS, Mode-2 | II. Commercial presence |
| C. GATS, Mode-3 | III. Temporary movement of natural persons |
| D. GATS, Mode-4 | IV. Consumption abroad |
Answer: (B) A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. Functional finance | I. Peacock and Wiseman |
| B. Displacement effect | II. Keynes and Lerner |
| C. Law of increasing state activity | III. Wagner |
| D. Allocative, stabilization and distributive function of state | IV. Musgrave |
Answer: (A) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. Establishment of a clearing house for settlement of transactions in BSE | I. 1994 |
| B. Serial bomb blasts in BSE | II. 1997 |
| C. Screen-based trading commenced in BSE | III. 1921 |
| D. BSE launched the first stock index with 30 scrips | IV. 1986 |
Answer: (C) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. SCP approach | I. James Buchanan |
| B. Transaction cost theory | II. New classical theory |
| C. Public choice theory | III. H. H. Index |
| D. Industrial connection | IV. Williamson |
Answer: (A) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| Conference of the Parties (COP) - UNFCCC | Location |
|---|---|
| A. COP-15 | I. Bali, Indonesia |
| B. COP-21 | II. Sharm el-Sheikh, Egypt |
| C. COP-13 | III. Copenhagen, Denmark |
| D. COP-27 | IV. Paris, France |
Answer: (B) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. Santa Cruz | I. West Bengal |
| B. Kandla | II. Andhra Pradesh |
| C. Falta | III. Gujarat |
| D. Vishakhapatnam | IV. Maharashtra |
Answer: (B) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
Explanation
Arrange the percentage share of nominal GVA(RE), 2019 - 20 for the following
sectors in descending order
A. Agriculture and Allied
B. Manufacturing
C. Construction
D. Finance, Real estate and Professional services
E. Mining and Quarrying
Answer: (A) D, A, B, C, E
Explanation
Arrange the books in ascending order based on their year of publication
A. An Inquiry Into the Nature and Causes of Wealth of Nations
B. The Theory of Moral Sentiments
C. Capitalism, Socialism and Democracy
D. The Great Transformation: The Political and Economic Origin of Our Time
E. The Affluent Society
Answer: (B) B, A, C, D, E
Explanation
Arrange the following in descending order on the basis of the year of WTO
Ministerial Conferences held.
A. Cancun, Mexico Conference.
B. Nairobi, Kenya Conference.
C. Bali, Indonesia Conference.
D. Buenos Aires, Argentina Conference.
E. Seattle, United States Conference.
Answer: (B) D, B, C, A, E
Explanation
Arrange the following stages of the Budget in the correct sequence.
A. Appropriation Bill.
B. General Discussion.
C. Finance Bill.
D. Presentation to the Legislative Assembly.
E. Voting on the Demand for Grants.
Answer: (A) B, C, E, A, D
Explanation
Indicate the chronological sequence of the following in terms of their
implementation in India.
A. Service Tax
B. Expenditure Tax
C. State VAT
D. Income Tax
E. Goods and Services Tax (GST)
Answer: (C) D, B, A, C, E
Explanation
According to the CMIE data (September, 2022) arrange the states in ascending
order based on their unemployment rate.
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Gujarat
C. Chhattisgarh
D. Assam
E. Uttarakhand
Answer: (A) D, B, A, C, E
Explanation
Arrange the rates in descending order based on 'Reserve Bank of India' data,
December 2022.
A. Cash Reserve Ratio
B. Repo rate
C. Bank rate
D. Reverse Repo rate
E. Standing Deposit Facility rate
Answer: (C) C, B, E, A, D
Explanation
Arrange the followings chronologically in order of their introduction.
A. Ad hoc Treasury bills (T - bills)
B. 28 Days T - bills
C. 14 Days T - bills
D. 364 Days T - bills
E. 182 Days T - bills
Answer: (A) A, D, E, B, C
Explanation
Arrange the following in chronological order starting from the oldest relating to
the theory of money.
A. Patinkin
B. Fisher
C. Friedman
D. Marshall
E. Keynes
Answer: (B) B, D, E, A, C
Explanation
Arrange the trading groups as per their year of establishment starting from the
oldest
A. European Free Trade Association
B. North American Free Trade Agreement
C. Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation
D. Andean Community
E. Association of South - East Asian Nations
Answer: (C) A, E, D, C, B
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Every point on the Contract curve is Pareto efficient because one
person could not be made better off without making someone else worse off.
Statement II: Every point on the Contract curve neccessarily indicates equal
level of economic welfare for the society.
Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A rising ratio of interest payments to GNP imposes a burden
because taxation is needed to finance the interest payment and imposes a
dead weight loss.
Statement II: A rising rate of interest payment in the budget tends to crowd out
other public programs.
s, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Explanation
Assertion (A): The low income countries are far more likely to borrow money to
finance their public sector expenditure.
Reason (R): Governments need not repay their loans, along with interest
payment.
Answer: (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
Explanation
Assertion (A): Partisan theory views macroeconomic policy outcomes as the
result of ideologically motivated decisions by leaders of different political
parties.
Reason (R): The parties represent constitutencies with different preferences
concerning macroeconomic variables.
Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Supply side policies are long term measures to increase the
productive capacity of the economy leading to an outward shift in the
production possibility curve.
Statement II: Privatisation is the act of selling state owned assets in order to
increase competition, productivity and efficiency.
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Explanation
Correctly state the hypothesis of Pagano and Rossi with regard to the crash of the knowledge economy.
U. Pagano and M. A. Rossi (2009) advanced the hypothesis that the crash of the knowledge economy is due to intellectual monopolies, that is, the strong protection inherent in Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs). They argue that institutions facilitating IPRs contributed to the crash. According to them, IPRs have acted as super-tariffs by raising the cost of investment for countries that had neither abundant cheap labour nor large stocks of IPR resources. IPRs may also exert negative effects even on IP-rich firms because conflicting rights can affect one another's investment and create a savings glut. The authors therefore suggest that remedies should not focus only on monetary policy, financial regulation, or standard Keynesian policies. Regulation should also reduce the level of intellectual monopolisation of the economy. Measures that restore the balance between public and private knowledge can have strong short-run super-multiplicative effects and long-run benefits.
Answer: (C) The root cause of the crash of the knowledge economy is the intellectual monopolies, i.e. the huge protection inherent to Intellectual Property Rights.
Explanation
According to Pagano and Rossi, which institutions are responsible for the crash of the knowledge economy?
U. Pagano and M. A. Rossi (2009) advanced the hypothesis that the crash of the knowledge economy is due to intellectual monopolies, that is, the strong protection inherent in Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs). They argue that institutions facilitating IPRs contributed to the crash. According to them, IPRs have acted as super-tariffs by raising the cost of investment for countries that had neither abundant cheap labour nor large stocks of IPR resources. IPRs may also exert negative effects even on IP-rich firms because conflicting rights can affect one another's investment and create a savings glut. The authors therefore suggest that remedies should not focus only on monetary policy, financial regulation, or standard Keynesian policies. Regulation should also reduce the level of intellectual monopolisation of the economy. Measures that restore the balance between public and private knowledge can have strong short-run super-multiplicative effects and long-run benefits.
Answer: (B) The institutions which are facilitating IPRs.
Explanation
How have IPRs acted as super-tariffs?
U. Pagano and M. A. Rossi (2009) advanced the hypothesis that the crash of the knowledge economy is due to intellectual monopolies, that is, the strong protection inherent in Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs). They argue that institutions facilitating IPRs contributed to the crash. According to them, IPRs have acted as super-tariffs by raising the cost of investment for countries that had neither abundant cheap labour nor large stocks of IPR resources. IPRs may also exert negative effects even on IP-rich firms because conflicting rights can affect one another's investment and create a savings glut. The authors therefore suggest that remedies should not focus only on monetary policy, financial regulation, or standard Keynesian policies. Regulation should also reduce the level of intellectual monopolisation of the economy. Measures that restore the balance between public and private knowledge can have strong short-run super-multiplicative effects and long-run benefits.
Answer: (D) The IPRs have raised the cost of investments for countries that had neither abundant cheap labour nor high amount of IPR resources, hence it acted as a super tariff.
Explanation
How are IPRs responsible for a savings glut?
U. Pagano and M. A. Rossi (2009) advanced the hypothesis that the crash of the knowledge economy is due to intellectual monopolies, that is, the strong protection inherent in Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs). They argue that institutions facilitating IPRs contributed to the crash. According to them, IPRs have acted as super-tariffs by raising the cost of investment for countries that had neither abundant cheap labour nor large stocks of IPR resources. IPRs may also exert negative effects even on IP-rich firms because conflicting rights can affect one another's investment and create a savings glut. The authors therefore suggest that remedies should not focus only on monetary policy, financial regulation, or standard Keynesian policies. Regulation should also reduce the level of intellectual monopolisation of the economy. Measures that restore the balance between public and private knowledge can have strong short-run super-multiplicative effects and long-run benefits.
Answer: (C) The IPRs have given rise to conflicting rights for different firms, which has affected the volume of investment negatively and resulted in a situation of a savings glut.
Explanation
What remedies do the authors suggest for the knowledge economy to recover from the crisis?
U. Pagano and M. A. Rossi (2009) advanced the hypothesis that the crash of the knowledge economy is due to intellectual monopolies, that is, the strong protection inherent in Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs). They argue that institutions facilitating IPRs contributed to the crash. According to them, IPRs have acted as super-tariffs by raising the cost of investment for countries that had neither abundant cheap labour nor large stocks of IPR resources. IPRs may also exert negative effects even on IP-rich firms because conflicting rights can affect one another's investment and create a savings glut. The authors therefore suggest that remedies should not focus only on monetary policy, financial regulation, or standard Keynesian policies. Regulation should also reduce the level of intellectual monopolisation of the economy. Measures that restore the balance between public and private knowledge can have strong short-run super-multiplicative effects and long-run benefits.
Answer: (D) The recovery of the knowledge economy from the crisis can be achieved through the regulations, which can decrease the level of intellectual monopolisation (IPRS) in the economy.
Explanation
Which of the following is not relevant as a climate-related risk for the financial sector?
Globally, the understanding of the systemic impacts of climate change on economic and financial systems is still evolving. Climate-related risks affect the financial sector through two broad channels: physical risks and transition risks. Physical risks refer to economic and financial losses, such as risks to the value of collateral, that arise from the increasing frequency and severity of extreme weather events, gradual long-term shifts in climate, and indirect effects such as impacts on ecosystem services. Transition risks arise from adjustment towards a low-carbon economy. Their drivers include climate-mitigation policies, technological advances, and shifts in public sentiment, including the attitudes of customers and investors. To cope with such risks, the central bank needs a multi-pronged strategy emphasizing climate-related financial disclosures, stress testing, climate scenario analysis, and suitable regulatory initiatives. The Indian central bank has set up the Sustainable Finance Group in this regard, aligning with its mission to promote the economic and financial well-being of the people of India in terms of price and financial stability, fair and universal access to financial services, and a robust, dynamic, and responsive financial intermediation infrastructure.
Answer: (C) Insolvency of banks.
Explanation
Which of the following cannot be instrumental towards integrating climate risks into the financial system?
Globally, the understanding of the systemic impacts of climate change on economic and financial systems is still evolving. Climate-related risks affect the financial sector through two broad channels: physical risks and transition risks. Physical risks refer to economic and financial losses, such as risks to the value of collateral, that arise from the increasing frequency and severity of extreme weather events, gradual long-term shifts in climate, and indirect effects such as impacts on ecosystem services. Transition risks arise from adjustment towards a low-carbon economy. Their drivers include climate-mitigation policies, technological advances, and shifts in public sentiment, including the attitudes of customers and investors. To cope with such risks, the central bank needs a multi-pronged strategy emphasizing climate-related financial disclosures, stress testing, climate scenario analysis, and suitable regulatory initiatives. The Indian central bank has set up the Sustainable Finance Group in this regard, aligning with its mission to promote the economic and financial well-being of the people of India in terms of price and financial stability, fair and universal access to financial services, and a robust, dynamic, and responsive financial intermediation infrastructure.
Answer: (C) Setting national development priorities.
Explanation
Which of the following does not pertain to the category of transition risk drivers with respect to climate-related risks?
Globally, the understanding of the systemic impacts of climate change on economic and financial systems is still evolving. Climate-related risks affect the financial sector through two broad channels: physical risks and transition risks. Physical risks refer to economic and financial losses, such as risks to the value of collateral, that arise from the increasing frequency and severity of extreme weather events, gradual long-term shifts in climate, and indirect effects such as impacts on ecosystem services. Transition risks arise from adjustment towards a low-carbon economy. Their drivers include climate-mitigation policies, technological advances, and shifts in public sentiment, including the attitudes of customers and investors. To cope with such risks, the central bank needs a multi-pronged strategy emphasizing climate-related financial disclosures, stress testing, climate scenario analysis, and suitable regulatory initiatives. The Indian central bank has set up the Sustainable Finance Group in this regard, aligning with its mission to promote the economic and financial well-being of the people of India in terms of price and financial stability, fair and universal access to financial services, and a robust, dynamic, and responsive financial intermediation infrastructure.
Answer: (B) To lead regulatory initiatives on climate-risk.
Explanation
Which of the following is not consistent with the mission of the RBI?
Globally, the understanding of the systemic impacts of climate change on economic and financial systems is still evolving. Climate-related risks affect the financial sector through two broad channels: physical risks and transition risks. Physical risks refer to economic and financial losses, such as risks to the value of collateral, that arise from the increasing frequency and severity of extreme weather events, gradual long-term shifts in climate, and indirect effects such as impacts on ecosystem services. Transition risks arise from adjustment towards a low-carbon economy. Their drivers include climate-mitigation policies, technological advances, and shifts in public sentiment, including the attitudes of customers and investors. To cope with such risks, the central bank needs a multi-pronged strategy emphasizing climate-related financial disclosures, stress testing, climate scenario analysis, and suitable regulatory initiatives. The Indian central bank has set up the Sustainable Finance Group in this regard, aligning with its mission to promote the economic and financial well-being of the people of India in terms of price and financial stability, fair and universal access to financial services, and a robust, dynamic, and responsive financial intermediation infrastructure.
Answer: (D) Backward-looking risk assessment methods
Explanation
Which of the following is the purpose of setting up the Sustainable Finance Group by the RBI?
Globally, the understanding of the systemic impacts of climate change on economic and financial systems is still evolving. Climate-related risks affect the financial sector through two broad channels: physical risks and transition risks. Physical risks refer to economic and financial losses, such as risks to the value of collateral, that arise from the increasing frequency and severity of extreme weather events, gradual long-term shifts in climate, and indirect effects such as impacts on ecosystem services. Transition risks arise from adjustment towards a low-carbon economy. Their drivers include climate-mitigation policies, technological advances, and shifts in public sentiment, including the attitudes of customers and investors. To cope with such risks, the central bank needs a multi-pronged strategy emphasizing climate-related financial disclosures, stress testing, climate scenario analysis, and suitable regulatory initiatives. The Indian central bank has set up the Sustainable Finance Group in this regard, aligning with its mission to promote the economic and financial well-being of the people of India in terms of price and financial stability, fair and universal access to financial services, and a robust, dynamic, and responsive financial intermediation infrastructure.
Answer: (B) Loss of ecosystem services
Explanation
50 questions with the answer key and explanations.
What is the ratio of the number of males to the number of females working in the night shift from the Call Centre industry?
| Industry | Distribution of people working in night shift out of 80500 | Distribution of females among night-shift workers |
|---|---|---|
| IT | 12% | 20% |
| Sports | 18% | 20% |
| Call centre | 32% | 45% |
| Sales | 8% | 60% |
| Banking | 14% | 40% |
| Chemicals | 16% | 15% |
Answer: (B) 11:9
Explanation
What is the approximate average number of females working in the night shift from all industries together?
| Industry | Distribution of people working in night shift out of 80500 | Distribution of females among night-shift workers |
|---|---|---|
| IT | 12% | 20% |
| Sports | 18% | 20% |
| Call centre | 32% | 45% |
| Sales | 8% | 60% |
| Banking | 14% | 40% |
| Chemicals | 16% | 15% |
Answer: (A) 4454
Explanation
What is the total number of males working in the night shift from all industries together?
| Industry | Distribution of people working in night shift out of 80500 | Distribution of females among night-shift workers |
|---|---|---|
| IT | 12% | 20% |
| Sports | 18% | 20% |
| Call centre | 32% | 45% |
| Sales | 8% | 60% |
| Banking | 14% | 40% |
| Chemicals | 16% | 15% |
Answer: (D) 53774
Explanation
The number of females working in the night shift from the Sports industry is what percentage of the total number of people working in the night shift from all industries together?
| Industry | Distribution of people working in night shift out of 80500 | Distribution of females among night-shift workers |
|---|---|---|
| IT | 12% | 20% |
| Sports | 18% | 20% |
| Call centre | 32% | 45% |
| Sales | 8% | 60% |
| Banking | 14% | 40% |
| Chemicals | 16% | 15% |
Answer: (B) 3.6
Explanation
What is the difference between the total number of males and the total number of females working in the night shift from all industries together?
| Industry | Distribution of people working in night shift out of 80500 | Distribution of females among night-shift workers |
|---|---|---|
| IT | 12% | 20% |
| Sports | 18% | 20% |
| Call centre | 32% | 45% |
| Sales | 8% | 60% |
| Banking | 14% | 40% |
| Chemicals | 16% | 15% |
Answer: (C) 27048
Explanation
In which of the following ways can Padlet, an online tool, be used?
A. For creating a virtual wall
B. For uploading files
C. For collaborative work
D. For posting pictures and texts
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) A, B, C and D
Explanation
Statement I: GSAT-30 satellite is used by Swayamprabha for programme telecasts on DTH channels.
Statement II: The programmes of Swayamprabha are available on 24x7 basis.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Explanation
Which period of learning shows no improvement in the learning curve?
Answer: (C) Plateau
Explanation
According to Herbart, arrange the elements of pedagogy of teaching and learning in sequence.
A. Preparation
B. Association
C. Presentation
D. Application
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) A, C, D, B
Explanation
Statement I: Entry behaviour implies the activities and responses of learners after completion of the teaching-learning process.
Statement II: Terminal behaviour implies the activities of learners prior to the teaching-learning process.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Explanation
When, in a process of reasoning, observation is followed by theory, hypotheses and interpretation, that approach to research is known as:
Answer: (C) Inductive
Explanation
If research is done to find out behaviours and attitudes by analysing existing records and other materials, it is known as:
Answer: (D) Archival research
Explanation
If the dress of a person does not reflect or predict his voting behaviour, the assumption is of:
Answer: (B) Zero correlation
Explanation
Which of the following are advantages of web-based research?
A. It saves time.
B. The participant can engage in the task at his/her convenience.
C. The data collection is automatic and accurate.
D. It demands a small sample.
E. The participants are heavily paid.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (A) A, B and C only
Explanation
Statement I: Survey research has the advantage of sampling a large number of respondents who are selected for research.
Statement II: Researchers, to administer their own surveys, do not have many options except to do it themselves.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Explanation
People perceive communicated messages according to their:
Answer: (B) Cultural values
Explanation
The doctrine of individualism, a political concept in communication, is identified as a/an:
Answer: (D) Ideology
Explanation
The behaviouristic model of communication asserts that:
A. Behaviours are learnt in social situations.
B. Behaviours are learnt in external situations only.
C. The mental state of the individual is important.
D. The mental state of the individual is unimportant.
E. Communication techniques for cultural change include both verbal and non-verbal messages.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) A, C and E only
Explanation
The elements related to communication in the ancient paradigm of everyday life are:
A. Physiological
B. Economic
C. Ethical
D. Self-realisation
E. Ego clashes
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (A) A, B, C and D only
Explanation
Statement I: By supplying facts and opinions, mass media enable the audience to make decisions.
Statement II: Mass media should suppress facts and opinions in order to influence government decisions.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Explanation
A, B, C and D are all distinct individuals. A is the daughter of B; B is the son of C; and C is the father of D. Which statement is true?
Answer: (D) If P is the daughter of B, then A and P are sisters.
Explanation
In a group of 2100 persons comprising players and their coaches, there is a coach for every fourteen players. How many coaches are there in the group?
Answer: (C) 140
Explanation
What number would replace the question mark (?) in the series?
1, 5, 11, 19, 29, 41, 55, ?
Answer: (A) 71
Explanation
Karan was born 3 years after his parents' marriage. His father is 6 years older than his mother but 26 years older than Karan, who is 12 years old today. At what age did his mother get married?
Answer: (C) 17 years
Explanation
A student was asked to divide half of a number by 5 and the other half by 3 and then add the two quantities. Instead, the student divided the given number by 4, which resulted in a value 5 short of the correct value. What is the initial number?
Answer: (A) 300
Explanation
Which logical fallacy is committed in the following argument: "Atheists have not proven that God does not exist. Therefore we can conclude that God exists."
Answer: (B) Appeal to Ignorance
Explanation
"Since all professors are competent, and no competent people are underpaid. Therefore no professors are underpaid." Which formal fallacy is committed in the above argument?
Answer: (A) Undistributed middle
Explanation
Which of the following statements are logically equivalent?
A. No philosophers are underpaid scholars.
B. All philosophers are non-underpaid scholars.
C. No underpaid scholars are philosophers.
D. All non-underpaid scholars are non-philosophers.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (A) A, B and C only
Explanation
Which of the following statements can neither both be true nor both be false?
A. All bread is nutritious.
B. Some bread is nutritious.
C. Some bread is not nutritious.
D. No bread is nutritious.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) A and C only
Explanation
According to the classical Indian school of Logic (Nyaya), which of the following statements commits the fallacy of viruddha?
Answer: (A) Sound is eternal, because it is produced.
Explanation
Statement I: ASCII, a character-encoding scheme, is an acronym for American Standard Code for Intelligent Information.
Statement II: (37.25)10 = (100101.01)2.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Explanation
Statement I: An Operating System controls peripherals and provides protection against viruses.
Statement II: In word processing and desktop publishing, the terms portrait and landscape refer to page layout.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Explanation
In computers, which of the following file formats contains exclusively text file formats?
A. PDF
B. CSV
C. GIF
D. RTF
E. TXT
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) B, D and E only
Explanation
In the context of MS-PowerPoint, a presentation software, which of the following statements are true?
A. Objects on the slide that hold text, pictures and more are called placeholders.
B. MS-PowerPoint automatically opens with Windows Operating System.
C. A view that displays the slides of a presentation as miniature representations is called Slide Sorter view.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) A and C only
Explanation
Statement I: Fibre-optic cable makes use of light pulses to transmit data and is most appropriate to connect computers in a small building.
Statement II: URL is the text used by web browsers to locate a web address on the Internet.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Explanation
What is the correct sequence of biomagnification due to a contaminated water body?
A. Humans
B. Zooplanktons
C. Bacteria
D. Fish
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) C, B, D, A
Explanation
Aeration technique of water treatment is used for the removal of:
Answer: (B) Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)
Explanation
Statement I: Air Quality Index (AQI) is used to report to the public an overall assessment of a given day's air quality.
Statement II: Air Quality Index integrates air quality data for any two of the criteria pollutants into a single number that represents the air quality of an urban area.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Explanation
Which of the following are examples of solar cells?
A. Organic solar cell
B. Nanoparticle solar cell
C. Elemental solar cell
D. Plastic solar cell
E. Molecular solar cell
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) A, B and D only
Explanation
When little rivulets of running water gather together and cut small channels in the soil, the process is called:
Answer: (D) Rill erosion
Explanation
As per NEP 2020, Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) is sought to be achieved to the extent of 50% by:
Answer: (B) 2035
Explanation
The Universities of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras were to be set up on the model of:
Answer: (C) University of London
Explanation
Statement I: NITI Aayog is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
Statement II: NITI Aayog is a policy think-tank of Government of India.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Explanation
Statement I: The first UGC-CARE category includes journals found qualified through CARE protocols.
Statement II: The second UGC-CARE category includes journals indexed in globally recognized databases.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Explanation
Which of the following are the logical steps for an instructional design system under MOOCs?
A. Policy analysis
B. Need analysis
C. Content analysis
D. Learner analysis
E. Assignment analysis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) B, C and D only
Explanation
Which countries had very high household borrowings?
A. Portugal
B. Ireland
C. Greece
D. Spain
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options:
The global financial crisis that began in 2008 hit Europe almost immediately with a major debt crisis. Borrowers in a number of Eurozone countries had built up large debts and appeared unable to service them. The four principal Eurozone debtors were Greece, Ireland, Portugal and Spain. In Spain and Ireland, households had borrowed heavily to finance a major housing and construction boom. When housing prices collapsed, the two national governments started borrowing heavily from abroad to finance national bank bailouts and to stimulate their economies. Greece had been running budget deficits since the creation of the Eurozone, with the government relying heavily on foreign borrowing to cover the shortfalls. Portugal was somewhere in between: both households and the government had been borrowing heavily. The difficulties of the Eurozone debtors were not only their own problem, since major northern European financial institutions and investors had made most of these loans. If the debtors defaulted, trillions of dollars of loans on the books of northern European banks, investors and pension funds would go bad. The weight of so many bad loans and investments endangered even the richest European financial systems, especially Germany and France. The sovereign debt crisis threatened both the sovereign debtors and their creditors, and in fact the entire European economy.
Answer: (D) A, B and D only
Explanation
Statement I: The debt crisis did not affect the richest European countries.
Statement II: The debt crisis threatened only the debtors.
Choose the correct answer from the options:
The global financial crisis that began in 2008 hit Europe almost immediately with a major debt crisis. Borrowers in a number of Eurozone countries had built up large debts and appeared unable to service them. The four principal Eurozone debtors were Greece, Ireland, Portugal and Spain. In Spain and Ireland, households had borrowed heavily to finance a major housing and construction boom. When housing prices collapsed, the two national governments started borrowing heavily from abroad to finance national bank bailouts and to stimulate their economies. Greece had been running budget deficits since the creation of the Eurozone, with the government relying heavily on foreign borrowing to cover the shortfalls. Portugal was somewhere in between: both households and the government had been borrowing heavily. The difficulties of the Eurozone debtors were not only their own problem, since major northern European financial institutions and investors had made most of these loans. If the debtors defaulted, trillions of dollars of loans on the books of northern European banks, investors and pension funds would go bad. The weight of so many bad loans and investments endangered even the richest European financial systems, especially Germany and France. The sovereign debt crisis threatened both the sovereign debtors and their creditors, and in fact the entire European economy.
Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Explanation
Which countries were the main Eurozone debtors in 2008?
A. Germany
B. Spain
C. France
D. Greece
E. Portugal
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options:
The global financial crisis that began in 2008 hit Europe almost immediately with a major debt crisis. Borrowers in a number of Eurozone countries had built up large debts and appeared unable to service them. The four principal Eurozone debtors were Greece, Ireland, Portugal and Spain. In Spain and Ireland, households had borrowed heavily to finance a major housing and construction boom. When housing prices collapsed, the two national governments started borrowing heavily from abroad to finance national bank bailouts and to stimulate their economies. Greece had been running budget deficits since the creation of the Eurozone, with the government relying heavily on foreign borrowing to cover the shortfalls. Portugal was somewhere in between: both households and the government had been borrowing heavily. The difficulties of the Eurozone debtors were not only their own problem, since major northern European financial institutions and investors had made most of these loans. If the debtors defaulted, trillions of dollars of loans on the books of northern European banks, investors and pension funds would go bad. The weight of so many bad loans and investments endangered even the richest European financial systems, especially Germany and France. The sovereign debt crisis threatened both the sovereign debtors and their creditors, and in fact the entire European economy.
Answer: (C) B, D and E only
Explanation
Assertion (A): In 2008, Europe was quite susceptible to the global financial crisis.
Reason (R): The global financial crisis immediately led to a major debt crisis in Europe.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options:
The global financial crisis that began in 2008 hit Europe almost immediately with a major debt crisis. Borrowers in a number of Eurozone countries had built up large debts and appeared unable to service them. The four principal Eurozone debtors were Greece, Ireland, Portugal and Spain. In Spain and Ireland, households had borrowed heavily to finance a major housing and construction boom. When housing prices collapsed, the two national governments started borrowing heavily from abroad to finance national bank bailouts and to stimulate their economies. Greece had been running budget deficits since the creation of the Eurozone, with the government relying heavily on foreign borrowing to cover the shortfalls. Portugal was somewhere in between: both households and the government had been borrowing heavily. The difficulties of the Eurozone debtors were not only their own problem, since major northern European financial institutions and investors had made most of these loans. If the debtors defaulted, trillions of dollars of loans on the books of northern European banks, investors and pension funds would go bad. The weight of so many bad loans and investments endangered even the richest European financial systems, especially Germany and France. The sovereign debt crisis threatened both the sovereign debtors and their creditors, and in fact the entire European economy.
Answer: (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation
Failure on the part of the debtors to pay loans would have risked:
A. Pension funds
B. Investors
C. Northern European banks
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options:
The global financial crisis that began in 2008 hit Europe almost immediately with a major debt crisis. Borrowers in a number of Eurozone countries had built up large debts and appeared unable to service them. The four principal Eurozone debtors were Greece, Ireland, Portugal and Spain. In Spain and Ireland, households had borrowed heavily to finance a major housing and construction boom. When housing prices collapsed, the two national governments started borrowing heavily from abroad to finance national bank bailouts and to stimulate their economies. Greece had been running budget deficits since the creation of the Eurozone, with the government relying heavily on foreign borrowing to cover the shortfalls. Portugal was somewhere in between: both households and the government had been borrowing heavily. The difficulties of the Eurozone debtors were not only their own problem, since major northern European financial institutions and investors had made most of these loans. If the debtors defaulted, trillions of dollars of loans on the books of northern European banks, investors and pension funds would go bad. The weight of so many bad loans and investments endangered even the richest European financial systems, especially Germany and France. The sovereign debt crisis threatened both the sovereign debtors and their creditors, and in fact the entire European economy.
Answer: (D) A, B and C
Explanation
99 questions with the answer key and explanations.
In case of two goods for which the MRS is zero or infinite, then the nature of goods is :
Answer: (C) Perfect compliments
Explanation
The negative network externality in which a consumer wishes to own an exclusive or unique good such as specially
designed sports car is:
Answer: (C) Snob effect
Explanation
When each player has chosen his or her optimal strategy given the strategy chosen by other player, the situation is referred to
as:
Answer: (A) Nash Equilibrium
Explanation
A firm has the following total cost and demand functions: C = 4Q^3 - 70Q^2 + 111Q + 50 and Q = 100 - P. Find the profit-maximizing level of output (Q*) and maximum profit of the firm.
Answer: (C) 1 and 1114
Explanation
The condition of preferring a certain income to a risky income with same expected value is referred to as:
Answer: (C) Risk averse
Explanation
Which one of the following is not a component of M, ?
Answer: (C) Commercial paper
Explanation
The Keynes's animal spirits are closely associated with
Answer: (B) Current investment
Explanation
In the Mundell-Fleming model, the monetary policy will be more effective when there is:
Answer: (A) Perfect capital mobility and flexible exchange rate
Explanation
If the two events A and B are not independent then which of the following is correct?
Answer: (B) P(ANB) = P(A) -P(B/A)
Explanation
The chain-weighted index is
Answer: (C) Amethod for calculating changes in prices that used an average of base year from neighbouring years
Explanation
If the consumption function passes through the origin and APC = MPC then it must be:
Answer: (A) Linear without any intercept
Explanation
Find the producer's surplus when
Pq = 3x7 = 20x+5
P,=15 +9x (x is the quantity)
Answer: (C) 450
Explanation
The demand function for good A is given by Qa = 100 — 2P, + 0.2 Y + 0.3 Pg. Find the income elasticities of demand P, =
6, Y = 500, Pp = 10
Answer: (C) 0.52
Explanation
Find the substitution parameter p(rho) of constant elasticity of substitution (CES) production function when the elasticity of
substitution (0) is greater than one
Answer: (C) -1 < rho < 0
Explanation
In logit model, as the odds ratio decreases from to 0, the logit becomes
Answer: (A) Negative
Explanation
Given regression model as Yj = a, + 8; X; +B2 (Xj — X’) Dj + U; such a model is used to:
Answer: (D) Test piecewise'linear relationship in the data
Explanation
A player tosses two fair coins. He wins Rs. 5 if 2 heads occur, Rs. 2 if 1 head occurs and Rs. 1 if no head occurs. Find his expected gain.
Answer: (D) Rs. 2.50
Explanation
A card is drawn from a well-shuffled pack of playing cards. Find the probability that it is either a diamond or a king.
Answer: (B) 16/52
Explanation
In simultaneous equation models, OLS can be applied directly if
Answer: (A) It is a recursive model
Explanation
The Rural Landless Employment guarantee Programme (RLEGP) was launched on :
Answer: (C) 15th August 1983
Explanation
The Foreign Trade Policy (2015-2020) was announced on which date ?
Answer: (B) 1 April 2015
Explanation
Who was the chairman of 14th Finance Commission in India ?
Answer: (B) Dr Y.V. Reddy
Explanation
Zamindari Tenure was introduced by :
Answer: (B) Lord Cornwallis
Explanation
Which of the following is true in case of the non-marketed environmental resources?
Answer: (D) Non-excludable but rival in consumption
Explanation
Suppose X places Rs. 8 value on one bread packet and Y places Rs. 6 value on it. If there is no tax on bread, the price of one bread packet is Rs. 5, so both X and Y buy one packet each. Now suppose the government levies a tax of Rs. 2 per unit and the price of bread rises to Rs. 7. The deadweight loss and tax revenue collected respectively are:
Answer: (A) Rs. 1 and Rs. 2
Explanation
The component which distinguishes primary deficit from fiscal deficit is :
Answer: (B) Interest payment
Explanation
Which of the following is not an assumption or conclusion of the inflation targeting approach ?
Answer: (C) Inflation is a supply side phenomenon
Explanation
In context of monetary policy, the sacrifice ratio refers to the
Interest cost arising because of crowding out effect
Loss of real value of money at the face of increasing inflation
Output cost of reducing inflation
Labour cost raising minimum wage
ee
Answer: (C) Labour cost raising minimum wage
Explanation
Which formula is used to calculate the yield of Treasury bills where Y = discounted yield, P = price, and D = days to maturity?
Answer: (C) Y = (100 - P) / P x 365 / D x 100
Explanation
The faster growth and more equal distribution of income can be examined simultaneously by
Answer: (B) Poverty-weighted growth rate
Explanation
Marx refers to the concept of organic composition of capital. Which one of the following ratios is used for this, where C is constant capital, V is variable capital and S is surplus value?
Answer: (B) C / V
Explanation
Which of the following is not true in the case of externality?
Answer: (C) It is based on higher order judgements of right and wrong
Explanation
Compensating variation for a price decrease of a good can be interpreted as :
Answer: (A) Willingness to pay
Explanation
Which of the following is an example of depreciation of natural capital?
Answer: (C) Pollution-control activities by the public sector such as municipal waste treatment
Explanation
Equivalent variation for a price increase of a good can be interpreted as:
Willingness to pay
Willingness to accept
Both and 2
None
m We
Answer: (A) Willingness to accept
Explanation
According to the specific factors model, which of the following is correct?
Answer: (A) Trade benefits the factor specific to the export sector of each country but hurts the factor specific to the import- competing sectors with ambiguous effects on mobile factors
Explanation
What does 'immiserising growth’ argued?
Answer: (A) Export-biased growth by poor nations would worsen their terms of trade so much that they would be worse off than if they had not grown at all
Explanation
Which of the following postulates the Gravity Model correctly ?
Answer: (B) The larger and the closer the two countries are, the larger the volume of trade between them is expected to be.
Explanation
If the nominal tariff rate (t) on consumers of the final commodity is 10 percent, the ratio of the cost of the imported input to the price of the final commodity in the absence of tariffs (a_i) is 0.8, and the nominal tariff rate on the imported input (t_i) is 0, then find the rate of effective protection.
Answer: (C) 50%
Explanation
Which of the followings are true for ridge lines?
A. they separate the relevant from the irrelevant portions of the isoquants
B. along the ridge lines, the slope of the isoquants is either zero or infinite
C. The relevant segment of the isoquants enclosed pertains to the stage II of production for labour and capital
D. Producers will never want to operate outside the region enclosed within the ridge lines.
E. The marginal product of both inputs-labour and capital is positive but declines for the portion of the isoquants within
the ridge lines.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) A, B, C, D and Eonly
Explanation
Which of the followings are true about a fair game or fair bet ?
A. The entry of a fair bet is zero
B. The person who accepts fair bet is said to be risk lover
C. expected value of income from the bet is equal to the same amount of income with certainty
D. The person who refuses a fair bet is said to be risk neutral
E. The person who refuses a fair bet is said to be risk averse.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) C and E only
Explanation
According to the modern theory of rent
A. All the factors may earn rent
B. Rent can only be earned in long-run
C. Transfer earning of an unused factor is zero
D. Only land can earn rent
E. Entire earning of an unused factor is economic rent.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) A, C and E only
Explanation
Rational expectations views include :
A. The market clearing rational expectations do not approach to the Phillips curve
B. Rational expectation as a theory of expectations
C. An emphasis on the credibility of policy makers
D, A preference for policy making rules rather than discretion
E. Generally insists that markets do not clear rapidly.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (A) B, C and D only
Explanation
In the budget at glance, which of the following items are included ?
A. budget estimate of the current year
B. Revised estimate of the current year
C. Actuals of the current year
D. Actuals for the preceding year
E. Budget estimate for the forthcoming year.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) A, B, D and E only
Explanation
How do adverse technology shocks affect labour demand and supply?
A. Decrease the demand for labour
B. Both real wage and employment fall
C. Real wage increases and employment falls
D. Real wage falls and employment increases
E. Adverse effect on market equilibrium.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) A,B and E only
Explanation
Which of the following are correct in case of Poisson distribution?
A. n, the number of trials, is indefinitely large.
B. p, the constant probability of success for each trial, is indefinitely large.
C. np = m is finite.
D. mu_2 = m.
E. mu_4 = m + 3m^2.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) A, C and E only
Explanation
Which of the followings are correct conclusions without error in case of testing of Hypothesis ?
A. Reject null hypothesis (Ho), when it is true
B. Accept Ho, when it is true
C. Accept Ho, when Alternate hypothesis (Hj) is true.
D. Reject Ho when H, is true.
E. Accept Ho when H, is false.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) B, D and E only
Explanation
Which of the followings are correct for OLS estimation in the presence of Heteroscedasticity ?
A. The estimated coefficients are linear
B. The estimated coefficients are unbiased
C. The estimated coefficients are biased
D. The estimated coefficients are consistent
E. The estimated coefficients are efficient.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) A, B and D only
Explanation
Which of the followings satisfy the assumptions of the classical linear regression model ?
A. Zero mean value of disturbance Ui
B. The explanatory variables and the error terms are not independent
C. Homoscedasticity or constant variance of Ui
D. No auto correlation between the disturbances
E, There is more than one exact linear relationship between explanatory variables.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) A, C and D only
Explanation
If A, B and C are three different non-empty sets, then find which of the following are correct in laws of set operations ?
A. (A)' =A
B. (AUB)=1-(ANB)
C. AU (BUC) = (AUB) UC
D. AU (8NC)=(ANB) U (ANC)
E. A-B=ANB'
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) A, C and E only
Explanation
In multiple regression model, a hypothesis such as Hg : 82 = 83 = 0 can be tested using
Answer: (D) F-test
Explanation
Which of the followings are the indicators of Human Development Index ?
A. Real GDP per capita
B. Adult literacy rate combined with enrolment ratio
C. Life expectancy at birth
D. Malnutrition under five
E. IMR under five.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) A, B and C only
Explanation
Which of the following are correct for the Finance Commission ?
A. It is constituted under Article 380 of the Constitution
B. It is a statutory body
C. It is constituted under Article 280 of the Constitution
D. Prof. K C Pant was Chairman of 10th Finance Commission
E. Dr. Vijay Kelkar was Chairman of 14th Finance Commission.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
Answer: (A) B, C and D only
Explanation
Which of the following are true ?
A, Product taxes will raise prices less under monopoly than under competition
B. A tax on capital income tends to be progressive, whereas tax on wage income tends to be regressive
C. The burden of tax will be distributed between sellers and buyers in the ratio of elasticity of demand to that of supply.
D. A unit tax enters through a parallel downward shift in the supply schedule
E. Imposition of tax raises price and quantity.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) A, B and C only
Explanation
Which of the following are correct ?
A. Acompetitive market can secure efficient resource use inthe provision of private goods, but market failure occurs in
that of social goods
B. Efficient provision of social goods involves horizontal rather than vertical addition of Individual pseudo-demand
schedules
C. To seek efficient provision of social goods, a political process of budget determination is needed
D. Corrective action may be needed when consumer choice is based on false advertising
E. There are mixed cases between the extremes of purely private and purely social goods.
Choose the most appropriate answer fron the options given below:
Answer: (D) A, C, D and E only
Explanation
Which of the following monetary measure is used to control inflation ?
A. The Central Bank purchases government securities from Commercial Banks
B. The Central Bank sells the government securities to the Commercial Banks
C. The bank rate may be raised
D. The bank rate may be reduced
E. Raising of cash reserve ratio.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below"
Answer: (B) B,C and E only
Explanation
Which of the followings are correct in case of money market in India?
A. Commercial bill is a short-term instrument with high risk
B. Treasury bill is an instrument of short-term borrowing by the government with absence of default risk
C. RBI uses refinance to relieve liquidity shortages in the system
D. The RBI has switched over from daily fixed rate repos auction system to discriminatory price auction repos.
E. SLR enables to impose secondary and supplementary reserve requirements on the banking system.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: (C) B, C and E only
Explanation
The causes and consequences of poverty include:
A. Unemployment
B. Low wages
C. Poor health
D. Low Population Growth
E. Low Literacy rates.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) A,B, C and E only
Explanation
Measurement of income inequality is done by :
A. Gini coefficient
B. Lorenz curve
C. Palma Ratio
D. Deprivation ratio
E. Phillips Curve
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) A, B and C only
Explanation
Choose the correct statement for Schumpeter's theory of development.
A. Development is financed by real saving.
B. Capitalism keeps its character intact overtime
C. Development is evolutionary
D. Development creates inflation
E. Unlimited Supply of labour.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
Which of the following are the features of Environmental Economics as a field of study ?
A. It has)its-roots in the theory of externalities and public goods.
B. It is based on neoclassical welfare theory
CG. Itenvisions human economy as a sub-system of the biosphere
D, It engages with the law of transformations of matter and energy
E. It focuses on finding the most efficient ways to reducing environmental damages.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) A,B and E only
Explanation
Which of the following are the essential features of weak sustainability ?
A. It considers human-made capital and natural capital as close substitutes.
B. It puts emphasis on the initial size of an economy since the size of the initial capital stock is considered relevant.
C. It requires from each generation to ensure that their actions do not compromise the productive capacity of the
generations to follow
D. the composition of the capital stock of an economy does not hold great significance
E. It renders natural capital as an absolute necessity for sustaining net national income over an indefinite period.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (A) A, C and D only
Explanation
Which of the following are part of non-tariff barriers ?
A. Import quotas
B. Voluntary export restraint
C. Export subsidy
D. Compound tariff
E. Ad Valorem tariff.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) A, B and C only
Explanation
Marshall-Lerer condition states that:
A. Devaluation will improve the country's balance of payments if the sum of price elasticities of demand for exports and
imports in absolute terms is greater than one.
B. Devaluation will increase the balance of payments deficit if the sum of the price elasticities of demand for exports and
imports is less than one.
C. Devaluation will have no effect on the balance of payment situation if the sum of the price elasticises of demand for
exports and imports is equal to one
D. In no case, devaluation can improve the balance of payment disequilibrium if either the price elasticities of demand for
export or that of import is zero.
E. Marshall-Lerner condition has no relation with BOP situation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) A, B and C only
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. One firm sets its output before other firms do. | I. Cournot model |
| B. Each firm correctly assumes how much its competitor will produce and sets its own production level. | II. Bertrand model |
| C. Firms are reluctant to change price even if costs or demand change. | III. Stackelberg model |
| D. Each firm treats the price of its competitors as fixed and all firms decide simultaneously what price to charge. | IV. Sweezy model |
Answer: (C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. Robert Solow | I. Neoclassical growth theory |
| B. Paul Romer and Robert Lucas | II. Unemployment-output |
| C. Paul Samuelson | III. Endogenous growth theory |
| D. Okun | IV. Foundation of economic growth |
Answer: (C) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. Detecting serial correlation | I. Goldfeld-Quandt test |
| B. Detection of heteroscedasticity | II. The Runs test |
| C. Detection of multicollinearity | III. Ramsey RESET test |
| D. Test of specification error | IV. Condition index |
Answer: (C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. Linear function | I. Constant slope |
| B. Exponential function | II. Constant percentage growth |
| C. Quadratic function | III. U-shaped/parabolic curve |
| D. Cubic function | IV. S-shaped curve |
Answer: (C) A-IV, B-I, C-II D-III
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. Metzler paradox | I. Violation of Stolper-Samuelson theorem |
| B. Beachhead effect | II. Exporters may be reluctant to increase prices by the full amount of dollar depreciation |
| C. Dutch disease | III. Loss of relative competitiveness in its traditional industrial sector |
| D. J-curve | IV. Nation’s trade balance may worsen soon after devaluation or depreciation |
Answer: (C) A-I, B-II, C-III D-IV
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. Principal-agent problem | I. Use of resources more than desirable |
| B. Moral hazard problem | II. One’s actions are unobserved but can affect the magnitude of payment |
| C. Tragedy of commons | III. An individual pursues his/her own goal rather than the employer’s goal |
| D. Problem of lemons | IV. Sellers have better information about product quality than buyers |
Answer: (A) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. Launch of S&P CNX Nifty | I. July 1995 |
| B. Establishment of Investor Protection Fund in NSE | II. May 1998 |
| C. Launch of NSE website www.nseindia.com | III. April 1996 |
| D. NSE recognized as a stock exchange | IV. April 1993 |
Answer: (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| A. Karl Marx | I. Division of labour |
| B. Adam Smith | II. Big Push Theory |
| C. R. Rodan | III. Traditional Society |
| D. W. W. Rostow | IV. Reserve army |
Answer: (D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| States | 2011 Population (in thousands) |
|---|---|
| A. Rajasthan | I. 91,276 |
| B. Tamil Nadu | II. 68,548 |
| C. West Bengal | III. 72,627 |
| D. Madhya Pradesh | IV. 72,147 |
Answer: (A) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Explanation
Match List-I with List-II.
| Organization | Year of establishment |
|---|---|
| A. NABARD | I. 1964 |
| B. IFCI | II. 1955 |
| C. IDBI | III. 1948 |
| D. ICICI | IV. 1982 |
Answer: (C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Explanation
According to the IMF's World Economic Outlook report, arrange the estimated real GDP Growth rate (YOY) of the
following countries for the year 2021 in descending order.
A. USA
B. Germany
C. United Kingdom
D. China
E. India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (B) E, D, C, A, B
Explanation
Arrange the Nobel laureates in Economics as per their year of receiving award in descending order.
A. Amartya Sen
B. Paul Krugman
C. James Tobin
D. Friedrich Hayek
E. Milton Friedman
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) B, A, C, E, D
Explanation
Arrange the following in descending order on the basis of year of starting the scheme
A. Jal Jeevan mission
B. Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin)
C. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Gramin)
D. Pradhan Mantri Sadak Yojana (Gramin)
E. Pradhan Mantri Koushal VikashYojana
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (A) B, C, E, D, A
Explanation
Arrange the followings in ascending order on the basis of Fund Allocation (Budget 2022-23)
A. Ministry of Railways
B. Ministry of Defence
C. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
D. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
E. Ministry of Rural Development.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) C,E,A,D,B
Explanation
Arrange the following sources of revenue as per their share of contribution to totalrevenue in Union Budget 2022-23 in
descending order.
A. Custom Duty
B. Income Tax
Cc. GST
D. Union Excise Duty
E. Non debt capital receipts.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) C, B, D, A, E
Explanation
According to CMIE data (September 2022), arrange the states in descending order based on unemployment rate
A. Haryana
B. Rajasthan
C. Jammu Kashmir
D. Jharkhand
E. Tripura.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) B,C,A,E,D
Explanation
Arrange the states in ascending order based on population who are multidimensionally poor as per NITI Aayog Report 2021.
A. Punjab
B. Kerala
C. Sikkim
D. Goa
E. Tamil Nadu.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (A) B, D, C, E, A
Explanation
Arrange the following policy rate (as on 31-12-2022) of the RBI in the descending order of their magnitude.
A. Repo rate
B. Bank rate
Cc. CRR
D. SLR
E. Reserve repo Rate.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (D) D, B, A, C, E
Explanation
Arrange the following chronologically in order to their year of first occurrence starting from oldest:
A. Liquidity Preference Theory
B. Multiplier by R.F. Kahn
C. Division of Labour, Adam Smith
D. Quantity theory of Money, Fisher
E. Great Depression.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (A) C,E,B,A,D
Explanation
Arrange the following organizations as per their years of establishment starting from the oldest.
A. WTO
B. ADB
C. UNCTAD
D. World Bank
E. WIPO.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (A) D, C, B, E, A
Explanation
Assertion (A): A form of market failure results when products of different qualities are sold at a single price.
Reason (R): A buyer and a seller possess different information about the product transacted.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : When the level of investment is itself determined within the system then the effectiveness of monetary policy
is enhanced by an elastic investment and inelastic liquidity preference schedule, whereas the opposite holds for the
effectiveness of fiscal policy.
Statement II : Monetary policy, by accommodating fiscal policy may forestall the crowding out effect.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Explanation
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Capital deepening is the process by which capital grows at a faster rate than labour and the capital labour ratio
rises.
Statement II: The growth of output per worker is result of technological change which decreases output per worker for a
given capital/labour ratio.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Explanation
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Countries always want to have foreign markets open for their exporters. But if a country limits access to its
own market, foreign countries may take action to limit access to their own market.
Statement II : Trade agreement can help lower barrier to international commerce, but countries still have to believe that other
countries are "playing fair".
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Explanation
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The IS curve is negatively sloped because an increase in the interest rate reduces planned investment spending
and therefore reduces the equilibrium level of income.
Statement II : The smaller the multiplier and the less sensitive investment spending is to changes in the interest rate, the
steeper is the IS curve.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation
What conflict do bankers face while channelizing saving into investment?
The Nobel Prize in Economics in 2022 was awarded to Ben S. Bernanke, Douglas W. Diamond and Philip H. Dybvig for research on banks and financial crises. One important finding in their research is why avoiding bank collapses is vital. Savings must be channelled to investment for the functioning and growth of any economy, but a conflict arises: savers want instant access to their money for unexpected outlays, while borrowers need assurance that they will not be forced to repay loans prematurely. Diamond and Dybvig show how banks offer an optimal solution by acting as intermediaries that accept deposits from savers, allow access to money when savers wish, and also offer long-term loans to borrowers. Their analysis also shows that banks are vulnerable to rumours; when many savers simultaneously run to withdraw their money, a bank run occurs and the bank may collapse. Such dynamics can be prevented by government deposit insurance and by acting as lender of last resort. Diamond also demonstrated that banks, as intermediaries between savers and borrowers, are better placed to assess borrowers' creditworthiness and ensure that loans are used for good investments.
Answer: (B) While the savers want instant access to their money, the borrowers want to repay their loans, only when it matures.
Explanation
What solution does Diamond and Dybvig's theory offer to the conflict faced by bankers while channelizing savings into investments?
The Nobel Prize in Economics in 2022 was awarded to Ben S. Bernanke, Douglas W. Diamond and Philip H. Dybvig for research on banks and financial crises. One important finding in their research is why avoiding bank collapses is vital. Savings must be channelled to investment for the functioning and growth of any economy, but a conflict arises: savers want instant access to their money for unexpected outlays, while borrowers need assurance that they will not be forced to repay loans prematurely. Diamond and Dybvig show how banks offer an optimal solution by acting as intermediaries that accept deposits from savers, allow access to money when savers wish, and also offer long-term loans to borrowers. Their analysis also shows that banks are vulnerable to rumours; when many savers simultaneously run to withdraw their money, a bank run occurs and the bank may collapse. Such dynamics can be prevented by government deposit insurance and by acting as lender of last resort. Diamond also demonstrated that banks, as intermediaries between savers and borrowers, are better placed to assess borrowers' creditworthiness and ensure that loans are used for good investments.
Answer: (C) Banks act as intermediaries that accept deposits from savers and allow them access to their money when they wish, while also offering long term loans to borrowers
Explanation
What can lead to the imminent collapse of banks according to the passage?
The Nobel Prize in Economics in 2022 was awarded to Ben S. Bernanke, Douglas W. Diamond and Philip H. Dybvig for research on banks and financial crises. One important finding in their research is why avoiding bank collapses is vital. Savings must be channelled to investment for the functioning and growth of any economy, but a conflict arises: savers want instant access to their money for unexpected outlays, while borrowers need assurance that they will not be forced to repay loans prematurely. Diamond and Dybvig show how banks offer an optimal solution by acting as intermediaries that accept deposits from savers, allow access to money when savers wish, and also offer long-term loans to borrowers. Their analysis also shows that banks are vulnerable to rumours; when many savers simultaneously run to withdraw their money, a bank run occurs and the bank may collapse. Such dynamics can be prevented by government deposit insurance and by acting as lender of last resort. Diamond also demonstrated that banks, as intermediaries between savers and borrowers, are better placed to assess borrowers' creditworthiness and ensure that loans are used for good investments.
Answer: (C) When a large number of savers simultaneously withdraw their money
Explanation
How can such dangerous banking dynamics be prevented?
The Nobel Prize in Economics in 2022 was awarded to Ben S. Bernanke, Douglas W. Diamond and Philip H. Dybvig for research on banks and financial crises. One important finding in their research is why avoiding bank collapses is vital. Savings must be channelled to investment for the functioning and growth of any economy, but a conflict arises: savers want instant access to their money for unexpected outlays, while borrowers need assurance that they will not be forced to repay loans prematurely. Diamond and Dybvig show how banks offer an optimal solution by acting as intermediaries that accept deposits from savers, allow access to money when savers wish, and also offer long-term loans to borrowers. Their analysis also shows that banks are vulnerable to rumours; when many savers simultaneously run to withdraw their money, a bank run occurs and the bank may collapse. Such dynamics can be prevented by government deposit insurance and by acting as lender of last resort. Diamond also demonstrated that banks, as intermediaries between savers and borrowers, are better placed to assess borrowers' creditworthiness and ensure that loans are used for good investments.
Answer: (D) Government should provide deposit insurance and act aslender of last resort. q@)4 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 apalel & ORY dept Hl fearel Mace F Ga & fae GRR Halal & aa Yara faw
Explanation
What socially important function of banks was demonstrated by Diamond?
The Nobel Prize in Economics in 2022 was awarded to Ben S. Bernanke, Douglas W. Diamond and Philip H. Dybvig for research on banks and financial crises. One important finding in their research is why avoiding bank collapses is vital. Savings must be channelled to investment for the functioning and growth of any economy, but a conflict arises: savers want instant access to their money for unexpected outlays, while borrowers need assurance that they will not be forced to repay loans prematurely. Diamond and Dybvig show how banks offer an optimal solution by acting as intermediaries that accept deposits from savers, allow access to money when savers wish, and also offer long-term loans to borrowers. Their analysis also shows that banks are vulnerable to rumours; when many savers simultaneously run to withdraw their money, a bank run occurs and the bank may collapse. Such dynamics can be prevented by government deposit insurance and by acting as lender of last resort. Diamond also demonstrated that banks, as intermediaries between savers and borrowers, are better placed to assess borrowers' creditworthiness and ensure that loans are used for good investments.
Answer: (A) Since banks act as intermediaries between savers and borrowers, they have better idea about the creditworthiness of the borrowers and hence can ensure loans are used for good investments.
Explanation
For which purpose was G-20 originally founded?
India's Presidency of the Group Twenty (G-20) is a matter of great pride for all Indians. The G-20 is an intergovernmental forum consisting of 19 countries and the European Union. It was founded in 1999 after the Asian financial crisis as a forum for international economic cooperation. G-20 members represent around 85% of global GDP, over 75% of global trade and 67% of world population. The summit is held annually under a rotating presidency. India assumed the G-20 presidency from Indonesia on December 1, 2022 and will host the leaders' summit in 2023. The theme of India's presidency is "Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam", or "One Earth, One Family and One Future", closely tied with LIFE (Lifestyle for Environment). The G-20 consists of two tracks: the Finance track and the Sherpa track. India's priorities include green development, climate finance and LIFE; accelerated inclusive and resilient growth; progress on SDGs; technological transformation and digital public infrastructure; multilateral institutions for the 21st century; and women-led development.
Answer: (B) to discuss global economic and financial issues
Explanation
Which one of the following is not India's G-20 priorities?
India's Presidency of the Group Twenty (G-20) is a matter of great pride for all Indians. The G-20 is an intergovernmental forum consisting of 19 countries and the European Union. It was founded in 1999 after the Asian financial crisis as a forum for international economic cooperation. G-20 members represent around 85% of global GDP, over 75% of global trade and 67% of world population. The summit is held annually under a rotating presidency. India assumed the G-20 presidency from Indonesia on December 1, 2022 and will host the leaders' summit in 2023. The theme of India's presidency is "Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam", or "One Earth, One Family and One Future", closely tied with LIFE (Lifestyle for Environment). The G-20 consists of two tracks: the Finance track and the Sherpa track. India's priorities include green development, climate finance and LIFE; accelerated inclusive and resilient growth; progress on SDGs; technological transformation and digital public infrastructure; multilateral institutions for the 21st century; and women-led development.
Answer: (C) Development and sustained border
Explanation
The size of G-20 in terms of world population, global GDP and global trade respectively is:
India's Presidency of the Group Twenty (G-20) is a matter of great pride for all Indians. The G-20 is an intergovernmental forum consisting of 19 countries and the European Union. It was founded in 1999 after the Asian financial crisis as a forum for international economic cooperation. G-20 members represent around 85% of global GDP, over 75% of global trade and 67% of world population. The summit is held annually under a rotating presidency. India assumed the G-20 presidency from Indonesia on December 1, 2022 and will host the leaders' summit in 2023. The theme of India's presidency is "Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam", or "One Earth, One Family and One Future", closely tied with LIFE (Lifestyle for Environment). The G-20 consists of two tracks: the Finance track and the Sherpa track. India's priorities include green development, climate finance and LIFE; accelerated inclusive and resilient growth; progress on SDGs; technological transformation and digital public infrastructure; multilateral institutions for the 21st century; and women-led development.
Answer: (D) 67%, 85% and 75%
Explanation
The theme of India's G-20 presidency is tied closely with:
India's Presidency of the Group Twenty (G-20) is a matter of great pride for all Indians. The G-20 is an intergovernmental forum consisting of 19 countries and the European Union. It was founded in 1999 after the Asian financial crisis as a forum for international economic cooperation. G-20 members represent around 85% of global GDP, over 75% of global trade and 67% of world population. The summit is held annually under a rotating presidency. India assumed the G-20 presidency from Indonesia on December 1, 2022 and will host the leaders' summit in 2023. The theme of India's presidency is "Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam", or "One Earth, One Family and One Future", closely tied with LIFE (Lifestyle for Environment). The G-20 consists of two tracks: the Finance track and the Sherpa track. India's priorities include green development, climate finance and LIFE; accelerated inclusive and resilient growth; progress on SDGs; technological transformation and digital public infrastructure; multilateral institutions for the 21st century; and women-led development.
Answer: (D) Life style for environment
Explanation
The tracks in G-20 are:
India's Presidency of the Group Twenty (G-20) is a matter of great pride for all Indians. The G-20 is an intergovernmental forum consisting of 19 countries and the European Union. It was founded in 1999 after the Asian financial crisis as a forum for international economic cooperation. G-20 members represent around 85% of global GDP, over 75% of global trade and 67% of world population. The summit is held annually under a rotating presidency. India assumed the G-20 presidency from Indonesia on December 1, 2022 and will host the leaders' summit in 2023. The theme of India's presidency is "Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam", or "One Earth, One Family and One Future", closely tied with LIFE (Lifestyle for Environment). The G-20 consists of two tracks: the Finance track and the Sherpa track. India's priorities include green development, climate finance and LIFE; accelerated inclusive and resilient growth; progress on SDGs; technological transformation and digital public infrastructure; multilateral institutions for the 21st century; and women-led development.
Answer: (A) Finance track and Sherpa track
Explanation
Paper 1 had 99 questions and Paper 2 (Economics) had 199 questions, for 298 in total across 3 hours.
No. Each correct answer earns 2 marks and there is no penalty for a wrong answer, so leaving a question blank is never better than attempting it.
Answers follow the official NTA answer key for this session. If you spot a discrepancy, use the report option inside the practice test and we will review it.
Yes. Every paper on this page has an "Attempt this paper" button that opens the same questions in the timed test interface, with instant scoring and weak-area analysis afterwards.
Want the full mock experience?
Attempt Paper 1 + Paper 2 (Economics) together in a single timed session.
Practice Paper 1 from other subjects
Every subject's exam sitting has its own Paper 1 (General Aptitude) set — more real PYQs to solve.