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|English Literature · December 2019

UGC NET English Literature December 2019 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

The complete UGC NET December 2019 question paper for English Literature, covering Paper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (English Literature). Every question below is shown with its options and the correct answer, and a detailed explanation you can unlock by signing in. All 150 questions are free to practise.

UGC NET December 2019 at a glance

Exam	UGC NET December 2019
Papers	Paper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (English Literature)
Exam date(s)	December 6, 2019
Shift(s)	Shift 1
Paper 1 questions	50 questions · 60 minutes · 100 marks
Paper 2 questions	100 questions · 120 minutes · 200 marks
Total	150 questions
Marking scheme	+2 per correct answer · No negative marking

Paper 1

General Aptitude

UGC NET December 2019 · English Literature sitting

50 questions60 min100 marks

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Paper 2

English Literature

UGC NET December 2019

100 questions120 min200 marks

Practice Now

Paper 1 — General Aptitude

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50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

Question 1
In case the population of research is heterogeneous in nature, which of the following sampling techniques will ensure optimum representativeness of sample units?
1. ASimple random sampling
2. BStratified random sampling
3. CCluster sampling
4. DSystematic sampling
Answer: (B) Stratified random sampling
Explanation
Stratified random sampling ensures optimum representativeness for heterogeneous populations by dividing the population into homogeneous sub-groups called strata and drawing random samples proportionally from each stratum.

A. Simple random sampling — gives each unit an equal selection chance, which risks underrepresenting smaller sub-groups in a heterogeneous population.

B. Stratified random sampling — correct. Guarantees that every distinct sub-group is represented in the final sample.

C. Cluster sampling — samples entire intact groups rather than individuals, which increases sampling error when clusters differ from one another.

D. Systematic sampling — selects elements at predetermined fixed intervals from a list, which fails to account for internal group heterogeneity.
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Question 2
“In the hospital, some nurses don’t wear white dress, some doctors have private practice and medicines prescribed are of high cost. Therefore, treatment in this hospital is of poor quality”. What fallacy does this argument make?
1. AFallacy of composition
2. BSlippery slope
3. CFallacy of accident
4. DFallacy of division
Answer: (A) Fallacy of composition
Explanation
The argument commits the fallacy of composition by inferring that because certain individual components of the hospital have specific perceived drawbacks, the overall medical treatment provided by the entire hospital must be of poor quality.

A. Fallacy of composition — correct. Falsely attributes properties of individual parts or staff members to the whole institution.

B. Slippery slope — falsely assumes that an initial event will trigger an uncontrollable chain of negative consequences.

C. Fallacy of accident — misapplies a general rule to an atypical specific case where exceptions should apply.

D. Fallacy of division — the reverse error, where an attribute of the whole is mistakenly assumed to apply to each part.
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Question 3
“If it rains, then the drought will end. The drought has ended. Therefore, it rained”. Which kind of fallacy does this commit?
1. ADeductive fallacy
2. BInductive fallacy
3. CAbductive fallacy
4. DInformal fallacy
Answer: (A) Deductive fallacy
Explanation
The argument commits a formal deductive fallacy, specifically affirming the consequent, by assuming that confirming the consequent proves the antecedent.

Premise 1: If P (it rains), then Q (the drought will end).
Premise 2: Q (the drought has ended).
Conclusion: Therefore, P (it rained).

The ending of a drought can result from other causes such as canal irrigation or dam releases. In deductive logic, affirming the consequent is an invalid argument form.

A. Deductive fallacy — correct. Violates the formal rules of deductive syllogistic reasoning.

B. Inductive fallacy — applies to probabilistic arguments where premises provide weak support, not deductive syllogisms.

C. Abductive fallacy — relates to inference to the best explanation rather than formal deductive structure.

D. Informal fallacy — stems from semantic content, ambiguity, or relevance rather than a flawed formal deductive pattern.
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Question 4
The length of the side of a square (5.0 cm × 5.0 cm) is increased by 1%. By what percentage (%) the area of the square increases?
1. A1 %
2. B2 %
3. C2.5 %
4. D4 %
Answer: (B) 2 %
Explanation
Increasing the side length of a square by 1% increases its area by approximately 2%.

Original Area = s²
New side length = 1.01s
New Area = (1.01s)² = 1.0201s²

Percentage increase in area:
(1.0201 - 1) × 100% = 2.01% ≈ 2%

A. 1 % — accounts only for the linear side expansion without squaring the dimension.

B. 2 % — correct. Closely matches the 2.01% expansion resulting from (1.01)².

C. 2.5 % — overestimates the combined product term.

D. 4 % — mistakes a 1% side increase for a much larger geometric expansion.
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Question 5
A research scholar while reporting the research results in the form of a thesis acknowledge the support of his/her supervisor in the preface. This will be treated as a
1. ASheer formality
2. BNeeded formality
3. CSuperfluous act
4. DPart of ethicality
Answer: (D) Part of ethicality
Explanation
Acknowledging the intellectual and supervisory guidance of a mentor in a thesis preface is an established requirement of research ethics and scholarly integrity.

A. Sheer formality — dismisses professional acknowledgement as an empty, meaningless convention.

B. Needed formality — trivializes scholarly attribution as merely bureaucratic compliance.

C. Superfluous act — incorrectly suggests that acknowledging guidance is redundant or unnecessary.

D. Part of ethicality — correct. Upholds academic honesty, transparency, and credit attribution.
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Question 6
A person buys 3 items of Rs. 1500 each and 2 items of Rs. 1800 each from a shopping mall. On the total bill a discount of 10% is given. What is the average cost of the items?
1. A1650
2. B1458
3. C1658
4. D1550
Answer: (B) 1458
Explanation
The discounted average cost per item equals Rs. 1458 across the 5 purchased items.

Total initial cost = (3 × 1500) + (2 × 1800) = 4500 + 3600 = Rs. 8100
Discount of 10% = 0.10 × 8100 = Rs. 810
Total bill paid = 8100 - 810 = Rs. 7290
Total number of items = 3 + 2 = 5

Average cost per item:
7290 / 5 = Rs. 1458

A. 1650 — represents the undiscounted average cost (8100 / 5) without applying the 10% discount.

B. 1458 — correct. Exactly matches the net bill of Rs. 7290 divided by 5 items.

C. 1658 — an arithmetic error during subtraction of discount.

D. 1550 — a simple midpoint approximation that ignores item quantities.
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Question 7
Classroom communication is

a. Like a computer-program
b. Dictatorial
c. Purposeful
d. Pragmatic

Choose the correct option from those given below:
1. A(a) and (c)
2. B(c) and (b)
3. C(d) and (b)
4. D(c) and (d)
Answer: (D) (c) and (d)
Explanation
Classroom communication is purposeful because it is guided by defined educational objectives, and pragmatic because it adapts practically to learner needs and contextual feedback.

(a) Like a computer-program — incorrect. Human teaching is dynamic and flexible, not rigid or automated.

(b) Dictatorial — incorrect. Authoritarian communication suppresses dialogue, questions, and active participation.

(c) Purposeful — correct. Directed toward curriculum goals and skill mastery.

(d) Pragmatic — correct. Practical, realistic, and responsive to classroom circumstances.

Combining the valid pedagogical qualities yields statements (c) and (d).
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Question 8
Consider the following statements and choose the right option:

a. Middle term should be distributed in atleast one premise
b. Middle term should be present in the conclusion
c. Both premises can be particular in a valid argument
d. Both premises can be negative in a valid argument
1. A(c) and (d)
2. BOnly (c)
3. COnly (a)
4. D(b) and (c)
Answer: (C) Only (a)
Explanation
In a valid categorical syllogism, the middle term must be distributed in at least one premise to successfully connect the major and minor terms.

(a) Middle term should be distributed in atleast one premise — correct. Failing to distribute the middle term commits the fallacy of the undistributed middle.

(b) Middle term should be present in the conclusion — incorrect. The middle term mediates between premises and must never appear in the conclusion.

(c) Both premises can be particular in a valid argument — incorrect. Syllogistic rules state that from two particular premises, no valid conclusion follows.

(d) Both premises can be negative in a valid argument — incorrect. Syllogistic rules state that from two negative premises, no valid conclusion follows.

Only statement (a) is logically sound.
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Question 9
Which of the following is an example of a maximum performance test?
1. AProjective personality test
2. BInterest inventory
3. CAptitude test
4. DAttitude scales
Answer: (C) Aptitude test
Explanation
An aptitude test measures an individual maximum performance under standardized conditions, assessing the upper limits of knowledge and cognitive capability.

A. Projective personality test — measures typical performance by assessing habitual emotional responses and personality tendencies.

B. Interest inventory — measures typical preferences and vocational likes or dislikes.

C. Aptitude test — correct. Evaluates maximum potential ability and cognitive capacity with objective correct or incorrect answers.

D. Attitude scales — measure typical beliefs and personal orientations rather than maximal cognitive capability.
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Question 10
In which of the following steps of research, the scope for creativity and imagination is utmost?
1. AIdentifying the research problem and defining it
2. BFiguring out the related studies and the techniques used by other researchers
3. CIdentifying variables and hypothesizing
4. DData analysis and presentation of results
Answer: (C) Identifying variables and hypothesizing
Explanation
Identifying variables and formulating hypotheses demands the highest degree of imagination and creativity because researchers must envision unobserved relationships and conceptual links between phenomena.

A. Identifying the research problem and defining it — relies heavily on critical literature analysis and contextual institutional diagnosis.

B. Figuring out the related studies and the techniques used by other researchers — an analytical and systematic literature review process.

C. Identifying variables and hypothesizing — correct. Requires creative conceptualization to propose novel, testable theoretical relationships.

D. Data analysis and presentation of results — follows standardized statistical procedures, protocols, and descriptive conventions.
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Question 11
Classroom Interactions are influenced largely by
1. AStudent’s commitment
2. BTeacher centric environment
3. COrganisational oversight
4. DUnsolicited interventions
Answer: (A) Student’s commitment
Explanation
Classroom interactions are fundamentally driven by student commitment, as active learning and constructive engagement depend on learner willingness to participate and internalize knowledge.

A. Student’s commitment — correct. The level of learner motivation, interest, and receptivity shapes the quality of classroom dialogue.

B. Teacher centric environment — tends to enforce passive listening rather than interactive, reciprocal exchanges.

C. Organisational oversight — provides administrative boundaries and schedules but does not drive real-time communicative engagement.

D. Unsolicited interventions — disrupt instructional flow and impede coherent communicative exchanges.
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Question 12
Which of the following is true with reference to anupalabdhi as a means of knowledge?
1. AI do not cognize the pot on the table, therefore it is absent there
2. BI directly perceive the absence of pot on the table
3. CI infer the absence of pot on the table since I do not find it to be there
4. DI know the absence of the pot on the table because I know its similarity with other absences
Answer: (A) I do not cognize the pot on the table, therefore it is absent there
Explanation
In Advaita Vedanta and Bhatta Mimamsa, anupalabdhi (non-apprehension) provides knowledge of non-existence through the valid non-cognition of an object that would be perceived if it were present.

A. I do not cognize the pot on the table, therefore it is absent there — correct. Formulates anupalabdhi as non-cognition of a perceptible object under appropriate conditions.

B. I directly perceive the absence of pot on the table — reflects the Nyaya view of pratyaksha through the relation of viseṣaṇa-viseṣyabhava, not anupalabdhi.

C. I infer the absence of pot on the table since I do not find it to be there — reflects the Buddhist position that absence is known through inference (anumana).

D. I know the absence of the pot on the table because I know its similarity with other absences — describes upamana (comparison), which is irrelevant to non-existence.
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Question 13

Match the behaviour modification techniques in Set I with their exemplifications in Set II:

Set I (Behaviour modification techniques)	Set II (Example)
(a) Positive reinforcement	(i) Withdrawal of pleasant stimulus or application of an aversive stimulus to stop the behaviour
(b) Negative reinforcement	(ii) Painful or aversive stimulus is presented to stop the occurrence of behaviour
(c) Punishment	(iii) The behaviour increases in frequency after the removal of the stimulus
(d) Extinction	(iv) The behaviour increases in frequency after the presentation of the stimulus

A(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
B(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
C(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
D(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Answer: (C) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Explanation

The correct matching aligns each operant conditioning technique with its standard behavioral definition.

(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(a) Positive reinforcement matches (iv) — behaviour increases in frequency following the presentation of a desirable stimulus.
(b) Negative reinforcement matches (iii) — behaviour increases in frequency following the removal of an aversive stimulus.
(c) Punishment matches (ii) — a painful or aversive stimulus is presented to reduce the occurrence of a behaviour.
(d) Extinction matches (i) — withdrawal of reinforcing stimuli leads to the gradual cessation of a behaviour.

Question 14
Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of an argument?
1. AIt is either valid or invalid
2. BIt is neither valid nor invalid
3. CIt is true or false
4. DIt is neither true nor false
Answer: (A) It is either valid or invalid
Explanation
An argument possesses the structural property of validity or invalidity, whereas individual propositions are evaluated as true or false.

A. It is either valid or invalid — correct. Deductive arguments are judged valid when the conclusion necessarily follows from the premises, and invalid otherwise.

B. It is neither valid nor invalid — incorrect. Validity is the defining logical metric for evaluating deductive arguments.

C. It is true or false — incorrect. Truth and falsity apply strictly to declarative propositions and empirical facts, not to arguments.

D. It is neither true nor false — true of arguments, but does not identify the positive characteristic feature of an argument compared to option A.
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Question 15
Identify the term ‘X’ in the following series:

4, 12, 42, 168, X
1. A588
2. B672
3. C756
4. D772
Answer: (C) 756
Explanation
The series advances by multiplying each successive term by a factor that increases by 0.5 at each step.

4 × 3.0 = 12
12 × 3.5 = 42
42 × 4.0 = 168
168 × 4.5 = 756

A. 588 — results from multiplying 168 by 3.5 instead of 4.5.

B. 672 — results from multiplying 168 by 4.0 instead of 4.5.

C. 756 — correct. Exactly matches 168 × 4.5.

D. 772 — an arithmetic calculation error.
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Question 16
The smallest integer greater than 1 which is simultaneously a square and a cube of certain integers is
1. A8
2. B9
3. C36
4. D64
Answer: (D) 64
Explanation
A number that is simultaneously a perfect square (a²) and a perfect cube (b³) must be a sixth power (k⁶).

For k = 1: 1⁶ = 1
For k = 2: 2⁶ = 64

64 = 8² (square of 8)
64 = 4³ (cube of 4)

A. 8 — a perfect cube (2³) but not a square.

B. 9 — a perfect square (3²) but not a cube.

C. 36 — a perfect square (6²) but not a cube.

D. 64 — correct. The smallest integer greater than 1 that is both a square and a cube.
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Question 17
The emphasis in memory level teaching is on which of the following?

a. Organisation of thought and ideas
b. Seeing of relationship among facts
c. Systematic presentations to enable quick reproduction
d. Critical thinking
e. Mastery of correct sequencing of facts
f. Segregating one feature from another

Choose the correct option from those given below:
1. A(a), (b) and (c)
2. B(a), (c) and (e)
3. C(b), (c) and (d)
4. D(d), (e) and (f)
Answer: (B) (a), (c) and (e)
Explanation
Memory level teaching focuses on rote recall, systematic fact retention, and rapid reproduction.

(a) Organisation of thought and ideas — included to provide basic structure for information storage.

(b) Seeing of relationship among facts — belongs to the understanding level of teaching.

(c) Systematic presentations to enable quick reproduction — fundamental to Herbartian memory level pedagogy.

(d) Critical thinking — belongs to the reflective level of teaching.

(e) Mastery of correct sequencing of facts — essential for chronological and rote verbal reproduction.

(f) Segregating one feature from another — characteristic of conceptual understanding rather than memory recall.

Therefore, statements (a), (c), and (e) define memory level teaching.
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Question 18
The most characteristics feature of an adolescent learner which determines his/her social and moral development is the
1. ATendency to be away from parents
2. BConcern for hero worshipping for emulating values and standards
3. CMixing up with peers in the neighbourhood
4. DIdentify crisis
Answer: (B) Concern for hero worshipping for emulating values and standards
Explanation
During adolescence, hero worshipping serves as the primary psychological mechanism through which learners adopt moral standards, social values, and personal aspirations.

A. Tendency to be away from parents — reflects an emerging desire for personal autonomy, but does not define moral frameworks.

B. Concern for hero worshipping for emulating values and standards — correct. Adolescents actively model ideals, ethics, and behaviors after admired figures.

C. Mixing up with peers in the neighbourhood — provides a social arena for interaction, but does not direct moral value internalisation as strongly as role modeling.

D. Identify crisis — a broader developmental stage in Erikson theory, but hero worship is the specific functional mechanism shaping social standards.
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Question 19
Which of the following statistical technique will be appropriate for data analysis when the observations are available in the form of frequencies?
1. AParametric ‘t’ test
2. BNon-parametric ‘u’ test
3. CNon-parametric ‘chi-square’ test
4. DParametric correlated ‘t’ test
Answer: (C) Non-parametric ‘chi-square’ test
Explanation
The Chi-Square test is the primary non-parametric statistical technique used to analyze categorical data when observations are recorded as counts or frequencies across categories.

A. Parametric ‘t’ test — requires continuous interval or ratio data and assumes a normal distribution.

B. Non-parametric ‘u’ test — the Mann-Whitney U test evaluates ranked or ordinal data across two independent groups, not frequency tables.

C. Non-parametric ‘chi-square’ test — correct. Specifically tests goodness-of-fit and independence in contingency tables using frequency data.

D. Parametric correlated ‘t’ test — compares continuous means for paired samples, unsuitable for categorical frequencies.
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Question 20
Which of the following teaching method(s) is/are contributive to direct learning?

a. Team teaching and lecturing
b. Simulation and role playing
c. Lecture with or without use of audio-visuals
d. Participation in workshop and assignments
e. MOOCs and heuristics
f. Interactive presentations

Choose the correct option from those given below:
1. A(b), (d) and (e)
2. B(a), (b) and (c)
3. C(c), (d) and (f)
4. D(d), (e) and (f)
Answer: (A) (b), (d) and (e)
Explanation
Direct learning involves experiential participation, hands-on application, and self-directed problem solving rather than passive listening.

(b) Simulation and role playing — immerses learners in realistic, active problem scenarios.

(d) Participation in workshop and assignments — requires practical execution and direct application of skills.

(e) MOOCs and heuristics — heuristic methods emphasize discovery and independent inquiry.

In contrast, lecturing in (a) and (c) represents indirect, teacher-centered transmission of content. Combining the active experiential methods yields (b), (d), and (e).
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Question 21
When a large number of students with different performance levels are there in the class, for uniform imparting of educative interactions, a teacher should opt for a communication which is:
1. ATop-down and linear
2. BTechnology-enabled
3. CIndividual-centric
4. DSelf-projected
Answer: (B) Technology-enabled
Explanation
Technology-enabled communication provides consistent instructional delivery, multimedia support, and differentiated pacing to diverse student cohorts simultaneously.

A. Top-down and linear — rigid one-way delivery that fails to support varying learner speeds and comprehension levels.

B. Technology-enabled — correct. Uses digital platforms and learning tools to deliver uniform content while allowing personalized engagement.

C. Individual-centric — highly effective in small groups, but unscalable for uniform delivery in large classes.

D. Self-projected — focuses primarily on teacher presence rather than communicative effectiveness for students.
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Question 22
A 50 year old man has a son whose age is 2/5 of his age. After how many years, the ratio of the age of the man to his son will be 5/3?
1. A10 years
2. B15 years
3. C20 years
4. D25 years
Answer: (D) 25 years
Explanation
The age ratio of the father to his son becomes 5/3 after 25 years.

Current age of the man = 50 years
Current age of the son = (2/5) × 50 = 20 years

Let x be the number of years required:
(50 + x) / (20 + x) = 5 / 3
3(50 + x) = 5(20 + x)
150 + 3x = 100 + 5x
2x = 50
x = 25 years

Verification:
Man age after 25 years = 50 + 25 = 75
Son age after 25 years = 20 + 25 = 45
Ratio = 75 / 45 = 5 / 3

A. 10 years — yields ages 60 and 30, a ratio of 2/1.

B. 15 years — yields ages 65 and 35, a ratio of 13/7.

C. 20 years — yields ages 70 and 40, a ratio of 7/4.

D. 25 years — correct. Yields ages 75 and 45, exactly 5/3.
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Question 23
Assertion (A): Classroom communication is pre-decided by social and institutional demands.
Reason (R): Positive educative actions should guide learners to acquire knowledge of social significance.
1. ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. BBoth A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A
3. CA is true, but R is false
4. DA is false, but R is true
Answer: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation
Classroom communication is structured around institutional guidelines and societal goals because the ultimate purpose of educational action is to impart knowledge that holds social significance.

Assertion (A) is true because schools establish formal curricula and instructional norms based on broader social expectations.

Reason (R) is true because education aims to equip students with socially meaningful skills and values.

Because education exists to produce socially significant outcomes, institutions pre-determine classroom communicative structures to achieve those aims. Thus, Reason (R) correctly explains Assertion (A).
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Question 24
Swapping of encoder-decoder roles in communication happens due to
1. ACognitive disruptions
2. BSemantic noise
3. CFeedback analysis
4. DWeak channelisation
Answer: (C) Feedback analysis
Explanation
In two-way transactional communication, the receiver decodes the initial message and encodes a response during feedback analysis, swapping the roles of sender and receiver.

A. Cognitive disruptions — mental distractions that impair message understanding, not role swapping.

B. Semantic noise — language barriers or ambiguous wording that distort communication.

C. Feedback analysis — correct. When responding, the receiver becomes the encoder and the original sender becomes the decoder.

D. Weak channelisation — inadequate transmission media that causes signal degradation.
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Question 25
A college teacher does research with a view to depict the reality situations relating to home conditions of students and hostels provided for. Which of the following research format will be helpful to do so?
1. AExperimental research
2. BDescriptive research
3. CParticipant observation based research
4. DEthnographic research
Answer: (C) Participant observation based research
Explanation
Participant observation based research enables a researcher to directly experience and document natural living situations, providing firsthand insights into home and hostel conditions.

A. Experimental research — manipulates independent variables in controlled environments, which cannot portray natural living realities.

B. Descriptive research — typically gathers survey or questionnaire data without direct observational immersion in daily routines.

C. Participant observation based research — correct. Offers direct, firsthand engagement with participants in their authentic living spaces.

D. Ethnographic research — focuses on broader cultural systems and long-term societal practices rather than specific local institutional and domestic living conditions.
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Question 26
For which of the following pairs of years, the total exports from the three companies put together are equal?
Consider the following table that shows the amount of exports (in crore Rs.) from three different companies A, B and C over the years 2012-2018.

Year-wise amount of Exports from companies

Year Amount of exports (in crore Rs.) - A B C
2012 40 90 70
2013 70 50 100
2014 50 70 130
2015 80 70 100
2016 110 90 70
2017 60 110 90
2018 130 150 110
1. A2014 and 2017
2. B2015 and 2017
3. C2016 and 2017
4. D2014 and 2015
Answer: (D) 2014 and 2015
Explanation
Total exports from companies A, B, and C combined equal 250 crore rupees in both 2014 and 2015.

Total for 2014:
50 + 70 + 130 = 250 crore rupees

Total for 2015:
80 + 70 + 100 = 250 crore rupees

Checking other comparison years:

2012: 40 + 90 + 70 = 200 crore rupees

2013: 70 + 50 + 100 = 220 crore rupees

2016: 110 + 90 + 70 = 270 crore rupees

2017: 60 + 110 + 90 = 260 crore rupees

2018: 130 + 150 + 110 = 390 crore rupees

A. 2014 and 2017 — 250 crore rupees does not equal 260 crore rupees.

B. 2015 and 2017 — 250 crore rupees does not equal 260 crore rupees.

C. 2016 and 2017 — 270 crore rupees does not equal 260 crore rupees.

D. 2014 and 2015 — correct. Both years have identical total exports of 250 crore rupees.
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Question 27
Average annual amount of exports during the given period for company B is approximately what percent of the average annual amount of exports for company C?
Consider the following table that shows the amount of exports (in crore Rs.) from three different companies A, B and C over the years 2012-2018.

Year-wise amount of Exports from companies

Year Amount of exports (in crore Rs.) - A B C
2012 40 90 70
2013 70 50 100
2014 50 70 130
2015 80 70 100
2016 110 90 70
2017 60 110 90
2018 130 150 110
1. A89.64 %
2. B91.21 %
3. C94.03 %
4. D93.33 %
Answer: (C) 94.03 %
Explanation
The ratio of company B average annual exports to company C average annual exports equals approximately 94.03%.

Total exports for Company B (2012–2018):
90 + 50 + 70 + 70 + 90 + 110 + 150 = 630 crore rupees

Total exports for Company C (2012–2018):
70 + 100 + 130 + 100 + 70 + 90 + 110 = 670 crore rupees

Because the number of years is identical (7 years), the ratio of averages equals the ratio of totals:
Percentage = (630 / 670) × 100% = (63 / 67) × 100% ≈ 94.0298% ≈ 94.03%

A. 89.64 % — underestimates the percentage by omitting company B large 2018 export contribution.

B. 91.21 % — results from miscalculating the seven-year total of company C.

C. 94.03 % — correct. Exactly matches 630 divided by 670 expressed as a percentage.

D. 93.33 % — an approximation error during fraction division.
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Question 28
What was the difference between the average exports of three companies in 2017 and the average exports of three companies in 2012?
Consider the following table that shows the amount of exports (in crore Rs.) from three different companies A, B and C over the years 2012-2018.

Year-wise amount of Exports from companies

Year Amount of exports (in crore Rs.) - A B C
2012 40 90 70
2013 70 50 100
2014 50 70 130
2015 80 70 100
2016 110 90 70
2017 60 110 90
2018 130 150 110
1. ARs. 15.33 crores
2. BRs. 18.67 crores
3. CRs. 25 crores
4. DRs. 20 crores
Answer: (D) Rs. 20 crores
Explanation
The difference between the three-company average exports in 2017 and 2012 equals exactly 20 crore rupees.

Total exports in 2017 = 60 + 110 + 90 = 260 crore rupees
Average in 2017 = 260 / 3 crore rupees

Total exports in 2012 = 40 + 90 + 70 = 200 crore rupees
Average in 2012 = 200 / 3 crore rupees

Difference between averages:
(260 / 3) - (200 / 3) = (260 - 200) / 3 = 60 / 3 = 20 crore rupees

A. Rs. 15.33 crores — results from subtracting 2013 totals rather than 2012.

B. Rs. 18.67 crores — an arithmetic mistake in the year-end difference calculation.

C. Rs. 25 crores — miscalculates the 2012 base total as 185 instead of 200.

D. Rs. 20 crores — correct. Exactly matches 60 divided by 3.
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Question 29
In how many of the given years, were the exports from company A more than its average annual exports over the given years?
Consider the following table that shows the amount of exports (in crore Rs.) from three different companies A, B and C over the years 2012-2018.

Year-wise amount of Exports from companies

Year Amount of exports (in crore Rs.) - A B C
2012 40 90 70
2013 70 50 100
2014 50 70 130
2015 80 70 100
2016 110 90 70
2017 60 110 90
2018 130 150 110
1. A2
2. B3
3. C4
4. D5
Answer: (B) 3
Explanation
Company A exports exceeded its seven-year annual average of 77.14 crore rupees in exactly 3 years: 2015, 2016, and 2018.

Total exports of Company A across 2012–2018:
40 + 70 + 50 + 80 + 110 + 60 + 130 = 540 crore rupees
Average annual exports = 540 / 7 ≈ 77.14 crore rupees

Evaluating each year:

2012: 40 < 77.14

2013: 70 < 77.14

2014: 50 < 77.14

2015: 80 > 77.14 (exceeds average)

2016: 110 > 77.14 (exceeds average)

2017: 60 < 77.14

2018: 130 > 77.14 (exceeds average)

A. 2 — fails to count the 2015 export figure of 80 crore rupees.

B. 3 — correct. Exactly three years (2015, 2016, 2018) surpass 77.14 crore rupees.

C. 4 — mistakenly includes 2013 (70 crore rupees), which is below average.

D. 5 — includes years where company A performed below its average.
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Question 30
In which year, the absolute difference between the exports from companies A and B was the minimum?
Consider the following table that shows the amount of exports (in crore Rs.) from three different companies A, B and C over the years 2012-2018.

Year-wise amount of Exports from companies

Year Amount of exports (in crore Rs.) - A B C
2012 40 90 70
2013 70 50 100
2014 50 70 130
2015 80 70 100
2016 110 90 70
2017 60 110 90
2018 130 150 110
1. A2013
2. B2014
3. C2015
4. D2016
Answer: (C) 2015
Explanation
The minimum absolute difference between exports of company A and company B occurred in 2015, with a difference of only 10 crore rupees.

Calculating absolute difference |A - B| for each option year:

2013: |70 - 50| = 20 crore rupees

2014: |50 - 70| = 20 crore rupees

2015: |80 - 70| = 10 crore rupees (minimum)

2016: |110 - 90| = 20 crore rupees

A. 2013 — difference is 20 crore rupees.

B. 2014 — difference is 20 crore rupees.

C. 2015 — correct. Features the lowest gap of 10 crore rupees.

D. 2016 — difference is 20 crore rupees.
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Question 31
Which among the following is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship implemented by National Skills Development Corporation?
1. ARobotics India
2. BArtificial Intelligence & schools
3. CMake in India
4. DPradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojna
Answer: (D) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojna
Explanation
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship skill training initiative launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship and executed through the National Skill Development Corporation.

A. Robotics India — a thematic educational initiative rather than the flagship ministerial scheme.

B. Artificial Intelligence & schools — a specialized curriculum project under CBSE and school boards.

C. Make in India — a national investment and manufacturing promotion campaign led by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

D. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojna — correct. Standardized outcome-based skill certification scheme implemented by NSDC.
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Question 32
In order to meet the demands of market economy and produce competent graduates, who can compete with their counterparts in international markets, the first and foremost change that needs to be introduced in the prevailing system of Indian higher education is related to:
1. AAdmission process
2. BCurriculum
3. CEducational technology
4. DAppointment of teachers
Answer: (B) Curriculum
Explanation
Curricular modernization is the primary structural reform needed in Indian higher education to align graduate learning outcomes, competencies, and problem-solving skills with international market expectations.

A. Admission process — modifies entry gates and filtering criteria without transforming the content taught to students.

B. Curriculum — correct. Modernizing course structure and syllabus content directly builds market-relevant global competencies.

C. Educational technology — serves as an instructional delivery tool rather than establishing learning goals and academic content.

D. Appointment of teachers — addresses institutional staffing but does not guarantee modernization of learning frameworks.
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Question 33
Major sources of oxygen demanding waste in fresh water systems are

a. Agricultural run-off
b. Food processing
c. Ore mining
d. Sewage effluent
e. Landfill sites

Choose the correct option from those given below:
1. A(a), (d) and (e)
2. B(b), (d) and (e)
3. C(a), (b) and (d)
4. D(a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (C) (a), (b) and (d)
Explanation
Oxygen-demanding wastes consist of biodegradable organic matter that consumes dissolved oxygen during aerobic microbial breakdown.

(a) Agricultural run-off — carries livestock manure, crop residues, and organic fertilizers that exert high biochemical oxygen demand (BOD).

(b) Food processing — discharges organic waste containing fats, carbohydrates, and proteins that consume dissolved oxygen.

(c) Ore mining — introduces heavy metals, acid mine drainage, and suspended inorganic solids rather than biodegradable organic matter.

(d) Sewage effluent — municipal wastewater contains human excreta and organic debris, forming a major source of BOD.

(e) Landfill sites — primarily produce chemical leachate containing heavy metals and inorganic contaminants.

Combining the organic, biodegradable sources yields statements (a), (b), and (d).
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Question 34
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

a. For the sequence of integers represented in binary as 00111, 01001, 01011, P…..,…. the next integer P would be represented as 01101
b. A byte is a binary number consisting of exactly 8 bits

Choose the correct option:
1. Aa only
2. Bb only
3. CBoth a and b
4. DNeither a nor b
Answer: (C) Both a and b
Explanation
Both statements are correct based on binary arithmetic and standard computer architecture terminology.

Evaluating statement (a):
00111 in binary = 4 + 2 + 1 = 7 in decimal
01001 in binary = 8 + 1 = 9 in decimal
01011 in binary = 8 + 2 + 1 = 11 in decimal
The terms form an arithmetic progression of odd numbers: 7, 9, 11.
The next integer P is 13.
Converting 13 to 5-bit binary:
13 = 8 + 4 + 1 = 01101. Thus statement (a) is correct.

Evaluating statement (b):
In computing, 1 byte consists of a sequence of exactly 8 bits. Thus statement (b) is correct.

Therefore, both a and b are correct.
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Question 35
Select the option that includes file formats suitable for distributing sound files across the Internet.
1. Awmv, mp4, wma, mp3
2. Bavi, midi, wav, mp3
3. Cavi, mov, wmv, mp3
4. Dmidi, wav, wma, mp3
Answer: (D) midi, wav, wma, mp3
Explanation
MIDI, WAV, WMA, and MP3 are exclusively dedicated digital sound and audio formats.

A. wmv, mp4, wma, mp3 — wmv and mp4 are primarily container formats designed for video streaming.

B. avi, midi, wav, mp3 — avi (Audio Video Interleave) is a video container format.

C. avi, mov, wmv, mp3 — avi, mov, and wmv are video file formats.

D. midi, wav, wma, mp3 — correct. MIDI encodes synthesized musical notes, WAV stores uncompressed audio, and WMA and MP3 provide compressed digital audio.
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Question 36
Which of the following communication technologies employ only asynchronous communication?

a. Video conferencing
b. Email
c. Forums
d. Instant messaging

Choose the correct option:
1. A(a) and (c) only
2. B(d) and (b) only
3. C(c) and (b) only
4. D(a) and (d) only
Answer: (C) (c) and (b) only
Explanation
Email and online discussion forums are asynchronous communication tools because participants send, receive, and read messages independently without requiring simultaneous real-time presence.

(a) Video conferencing — requires live, synchronous visual and audio engagement in real time.

(b) Email — asynchronous communication where messages are stored on mail servers until retrieved.

(c) Forums — asynchronous threaded message boards where discussions occur across days or weeks.

(d) Instant messaging — synchronous conversational tool designed for immediate real-time chat.

Combining the strictly asynchronous technologies yields (c) and (b).
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Question 37

Match the study skills with their effective learning techniques:

Study skills	Learning techniques
(a) Elaborative interrogation	(i) Mixing different kinds of problems together when studying
(b) Practice testing	(ii) Explaining what a section of text or an example problem means to you
(c) Self-Explanation	(iii) Testing yourself on the material you are trying to learn
(d) Interleaved practice	(iv) Answering why a fact is true

A(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
B(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
C(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
D(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Answer: (A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Explanation

The pairings align study skills with their established cognitive learning mechanisms.

(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(a) Elaborative interrogation matches (iv) — generating explanations for why a stated fact or concept is true.
(b) Practice testing matches (iii) — self-testing or completing practice quizzes to reinforce memory retrieval.
(c) Self-Explanation matches (ii) — explaining to oneself how new instructional steps or problem solutions relate to prior knowledge.
(d) Interleaved practice matches (i) — alternating between diverse problem types within a single study session rather than block studying.

Question 38
Which among the following natural hazards has relatively slow onset?
1. AVolcanic eruptions
2. BDroughts
3. CWild fires
4. DLand and slides
Answer: (B) Droughts
Explanation
Droughts are classic slow-onset hazards (creeping phenomena) that develop gradually over extended periods of precipitation deficit spanning months or years.

A. Volcanic eruptions — rapid-onset hazards triggered by sudden magmatic pressure release.

B. Droughts — correct. Emerge slowly over prolonged seasonal periods, causing progressive ecological and agricultural stress.

C. Wild fires — rapid-onset events that spread swiftly under dry wind conditions.

D. Land and slides — rapid mass-wasting events that occur abruptly following heavy rainfall or seismic tremors.
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Question 39
Which of the following is/are major issues arising out of the growing reliance on information technology?

a. Profitability
b. Security threats
c. Privacy concerns

Choose the correct option:
1. A(a) and (b) only
2. B(a) and (c) only
3. C(b) and (c) only
4. D(a), (b) and (c)
Answer: (C) (b) and (c) only
Explanation
Security vulnerabilities and loss of privacy are the two critical risks stemming from increasing organizational and personal dependence on information technology.

(a) Profitability — an economic goal or financial metric, not an adverse vulnerability created by technology reliance.

(b) Security threats — cyberattacks, data breaches, and malicious malware intrusions.

(c) Privacy concerns — unauthorized data harvesting, commercial surveillance, and personal identity exposure.

Combining the adverse challenges yields (b) and (c).
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Question 40

Match List-I with List-II in the context of computer networking:

List I	List II
(a) VOIP	(i) Make use of light pulse to transmit data
(b) Fibre-optic cable	(ii) Use of internet to make phone calls
(c) URL	(iii) Most appropriate to connect computers in a small building
(d) UTP cable	(iv) Text used by web browsers to locate a web address on the Internet

A(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
B(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
C(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
D(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Answer: (B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Explanation

Each networking term corresponds to its primary technological definition.

(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(a) VOIP matches (ii) — Voice over Internet Protocol enables voice telephone calls over IP networks.
(b) Fibre-optic cable matches (i) — uses glass cores to transmit data as pulses of light with high bandwidth.
(c) URL matches (iv) — Uniform Resource Locator identifies the address of web resources on the Internet.
(d) UTP cable matches (iii) — Unshielded Twisted Pair copper cabling is standard for local area networks in buildings.

Question 41
Biomass fuels have the potential to from a sustainable carbon-neutral energy source because they
1. AProduce carbon dioxide on combustion as much as they consume when they grow
2. BProduce less amount of carbon dioxide on combustion compared to the amount they use during their growth
3. CHave carbon content same as fossil fuels
4. DDo not produce hazardous emissions on combustion
Answer: (A) Produce carbon dioxide on combustion as much as they consume when they grow
Explanation
Biomass is considered carbon-neutral because the quantity of carbon dioxide released during combustion equals the carbon dioxide captured from the atmosphere through photosynthesis during plant growth.

A. Produce carbon dioxide on combustion as much as they consume when they grow — correct. Closes the natural biological carbon cycle without adding net new geological carbon to the atmosphere.

B. Produce less amount of carbon dioxide on combustion compared to the amount they use during their growth — incorrect because combustion releases the accumulated carbon.

C. Have carbon content same as fossil fuels — does not account for the renewable biological lifecycle distinction between fossil reserves and active biomass.

D. Do not produce hazardous emissions on combustion — incorrect because burning biomass releases particulates, carbon monoxide, and volatile organic compounds.
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Question 42
In the age of four Vedas, students were admitted to the Vedic schools after performance of which ceremony, among the following:
1. AUpanayana ceremony
2. BUtsarjana ceremony
3. CSatapatha brahmana
4. DDhanurvidya ceremony
Answer: (A) Upanayana ceremony
Explanation
In ancient Vedic education, the Upanayana ceremony was the formal initiation ritual that marked the beginning of formal student life (Brahmacharya) and entry into the Gurukula.

A. Upanayana ceremony — correct. Investiture with the sacred thread that symbolized the spiritual second birth and admitted the pupil to Vedic study under a guru.

B. Utsarjana ceremony — a ritual held at the conclusion of an academic term prior to the study recess.

C. Satapatha brahmana — a classical Vedic commentary text attached to the White Yajurveda, not an initiation ritual.

D. Dhanurvidya ceremony — military training in the science of archery and weaponry.
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Question 43
Which one of the following represents the correct order of sequence for reading skills in the context of research?
1. ARead, question, recall, review, survey
2. BQuestions, survey, read, recall, review
3. CRecall, review, survey, question, read
4. DSurvey, question, read, recall, review
Answer: (D) Survey, question, read, recall, review
Explanation
The SQ3R reading and comprehension method developed by Francis Robinson specifies five sequential stages: Survey, Question, Read, Recall, and Review.

Survey — skimming headings and structure to gain an initial overview.

Question — turning headings into active research questions.

Read — reading deeply to find answers to the formulated questions.

Recall — reciting or summarizing core concepts from memory.

Review — revisiting the material to consolidate understanding.

A. Read, question, recall, review, survey — places surveying at the end rather than at the initial skimming stage.

B. Questions, survey, read, recall, review — attempts questioning prior to surveying the text.

C. Recall, review, survey, question, read — reverses the natural learning progression.

D. Survey, question, read, recall, review — correct. Accurately follows the established SQ3R sequence.
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Question 44
Under Kyoto protocol, the parties, in the second commitment period, have to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions with reference to 1990 levels by atleast
1. A10%
2. B12%
3. C15%
4. D18%
Answer: (D) 18%
Explanation
Under the Doha Amendment to the Kyoto Protocol, Annex I parties committed to reducing greenhouse gas emissions by at least 18 percent below 1990 baseline levels during the second commitment period (2013–2020).

A. 10% — lower than the negotiated target under the Doha Amendment.

B. 12% — an intermediate distractor percentage.

C. 15% — incorrect for the collective second commitment mandate.

D. 18% — correct. Established by the Doha Amendment to increase ambition from the 5% reduction required in the first period (2008–2012).
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Question 45
Which of the following is a renewable natural resource?
1. ABiological diversity
2. BTin
3. CNatural gas
4. DSalt
Answer: (A) Biological diversity
Explanation
Biological diversity consists of living organisms, species, and ecosystems that possess the inherent biological capacity to reproduce, regenerate, and replenish themselves naturally over time.

A. Biological diversity — correct. Living biological resources regenerate naturally when protected from overexploitation.

B. Tin — an exhaustible metallic mineral deposit that does not replenish within human time scales.

C. Natural gas — a finite fossil fuel formed over millions of years.

D. Salt — an inorganic mineral deposit formed by geological sedimentation and evaporation.
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Question 46
The affective nature of teaching is reflected in
Anyone who has even been in a classroom where the teacher’s presentation was lifeless, static, and without vocal variety can appreciate the common sense value of the affective side of teaching. However, unlike the other behaviours, affect cannot be captured in transcripts of teaching or by classroom interaction instruments. Narrowly focussed research instruments often miss a teacher’s affective nature, which emerges from a more holistic view of the classroom. This affective nature is the foundation on which one can build a warm and nurturing relationship with his or her learners. What the instruments miss, the students see clearly. Students are good perceivers of the emotions and intentions underlying a teacher’s actions and they often respond accordingly. A teacher who is excited about the subject being taught and shows it by facial expressions, voice inflection, gesture and movement-thus communicating respect and caring for the learner is more likely to hold the attention of students and motivate them to higher levels of achievement than one who does not exhibit these behaviours. Students take their cues from these affective signs and lower or heighten their engagement with the lesson accordingly. Enthusiasm is an important aspect of a teacher’s affect. Enthusiasm is the teacher’s vigour, power, involvement, excitement and interest during a classroom presentation and willingness to share this emotion with learners, who will want to respond in kind.
1. ADeeper understanding of the classroom environment
2. BOther behaviours of the teacher
3. CThe recording of classroom interaction
4. DThe limited reliance on research instruments
Answer: (A) Deeper understanding of the classroom environment
Explanation
The passage explains that while rigid observational instruments overlook affective qualities, the teacher affective nature emerges from and reflects a deeper, holistic view of the classroom environment.

A. Deeper understanding of the classroom environment — correct. The passage notes that affect emerges from a more holistic view of the classroom, establishing meaningful relationships with learners.

B. Other behaviours of the teacher — the passage explicitly contrasts affect with other behaviours that can be captured on transcripts.

C. The recording of classroom interaction — the passage notes that affect cannot be captured in transcripts or classroom recording instruments.

D. The limited reliance on research instruments — describes a research methodology limitation rather than what teacher affect reflects.
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Question 47
Students respect a teacher who
Anyone who has even been in a classroom where the teacher’s presentation was lifeless, static, and without vocal variety can appreciate the common sense value of the affective side of teaching. However, unlike the other behaviours, affect cannot be captured in transcripts of teaching or by classroom interaction instruments. Narrowly focussed research instruments often miss a teacher’s affective nature, which emerges from a more holistic view of the classroom. This affective nature is the foundation on which one can build a warm and nurturing relationship with his or her learners. What the instruments miss, the students see clearly. Students are good perceivers of the emotions and intentions underlying a teacher’s actions and they often respond accordingly. A teacher who is excited about the subject being taught and shows it by facial expressions, voice inflection, gesture and movement-thus communicating respect and caring for the learner is more likely to hold the attention of students and motivate them to higher levels of achievement than one who does not exhibit these behaviours. Students take their cues from these affective signs and lower or heighten their engagement with the lesson accordingly. Enthusiasm is an important aspect of a teacher’s affect. Enthusiasm is the teacher’s vigour, power, involvement, excitement and interest during a classroom presentation and willingness to share this emotion with learners, who will want to respond in kind.
1. Ais emotional
2. Bdisplays concern for students
3. Chas a powerful
4. Dhas narcissistic attitude
Answer: (B) displays concern for students
Explanation
The text states that a teacher who demonstrates excitement, vocal inflection, and movement communicates respect and caring for learners, thereby winning their attention and respect.

A. is emotional — the passage emphasizes structured pedagogical enthusiasm and care, not uncontrolled personal emotionality.

B. displays concern for students — correct. Directly matches the text communicating respect and caring for the learner.

C. has a powerful — an incomplete sentence fragment in the source options.

D. has narcissistic attitude — a self-centered disposition that undermines learner respect and connection.
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Question 48
When does one feel the need for the value of affective aspects of teaching?
Anyone who has even been in a classroom where the teacher’s presentation was lifeless, static, and without vocal variety can appreciate the common sense value of the affective side of teaching. However, unlike the other behaviours, affect cannot be captured in transcripts of teaching or by classroom interaction instruments. Narrowly focussed research instruments often miss a teacher’s affective nature, which emerges from a more holistic view of the classroom. This affective nature is the foundation on which one can build a warm and nurturing relationship with his or her learners. What the instruments miss, the students see clearly. Students are good perceivers of the emotions and intentions underlying a teacher’s actions and they often respond accordingly. A teacher who is excited about the subject being taught and shows it by facial expressions, voice inflection, gesture and movement-thus communicating respect and caring for the learner is more likely to hold the attention of students and motivate them to higher levels of achievement than one who does not exhibit these behaviours. Students take their cues from these affective signs and lower or heighten their engagement with the lesson accordingly. Enthusiasm is an important aspect of a teacher’s affect. Enthusiasm is the teacher’s vigour, power, involvement, excitement and interest during a classroom presentation and willingness to share this emotion with learners, who will want to respond in kind.
1. AWhen a teacher has a vocal variety
2. BWhen a teacher makes a dynamic presentation
3. CWhen a teacher’s presentation is monotonous
4. DWhen a teacher’s lecture is beyond expectation
Answer: (C) When a teacher’s presentation is monotonous
Explanation
The opening sentence states that anyone who has experienced a classroom where the presentation was lifeless, static, and without vocal variety can appreciate the value of the affective side of teaching.

A. When a teacher has a vocal variety — vocal variety already demonstrates effective affective delivery.

B. When a teacher makes a dynamic presentation — a dynamic presentation already embodies positive affective engagement.

C. When a teacher’s presentation is monotonous — correct. A lifeless, static delivery highlights the stark absence and necessity of affective teaching.

D. When a teacher’s lecture is beyond expectation — an outstanding lecture already satisfies affective expectations.
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Question 49
The affective signs will provide students
Anyone who has even been in a classroom where the teacher’s presentation was lifeless, static, and without vocal variety can appreciate the common sense value of the affective side of teaching. However, unlike the other behaviours, affect cannot be captured in transcripts of teaching or by classroom interaction instruments. Narrowly focussed research instruments often miss a teacher’s affective nature, which emerges from a more holistic view of the classroom. This affective nature is the foundation on which one can build a warm and nurturing relationship with his or her learners. What the instruments miss, the students see clearly. Students are good perceivers of the emotions and intentions underlying a teacher’s actions and they often respond accordingly. A teacher who is excited about the subject being taught and shows it by facial expressions, voice inflection, gesture and movement-thus communicating respect and caring for the learner is more likely to hold the attention of students and motivate them to higher levels of achievement than one who does not exhibit these behaviours. Students take their cues from these affective signs and lower or heighten their engagement with the lesson accordingly. Enthusiasm is an important aspect of a teacher’s affect. Enthusiasm is the teacher’s vigour, power, involvement, excitement and interest during a classroom presentation and willingness to share this emotion with learners, who will want to respond in kind.
1. AThe basis for understanding contents
2. BExhibitional behaviours
3. CCues to hold attention
4. DA basis which triggers further enthusiasm
Answer: (D) A basis which triggers further enthusiasm
Explanation
The concluding lines of the passage state that a teacher enthusiasm and willingness to share excitement with learners leads students to respond in kind, triggering reciprocal enthusiasm.

A. The basis for understanding contents — content understanding requires cognitive explanation, while affective signs drive emotional engagement.

B. Exhibitional behaviours — irrelevant to genuine communicative engagement.

C. Cues to hold attention — tempting because the passage mentions cues and holding attention, but the primary outcome highlighted in the conclusion is that students respond in kind with reciprocal enthusiasm.

D. A basis which triggers further enthusiasm — correct. Matches the final conclusion that sharing enthusiasm inspires learners to respond in kind.
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Question 50
The passage focusses attention on
Anyone who has even been in a classroom where the teacher’s presentation was lifeless, static, and without vocal variety can appreciate the common sense value of the affective side of teaching. However, unlike the other behaviours, affect cannot be captured in transcripts of teaching or by classroom interaction instruments. Narrowly focussed research instruments often miss a teacher’s affective nature, which emerges from a more holistic view of the classroom. This affective nature is the foundation on which one can build a warm and nurturing relationship with his or her learners. What the instruments miss, the students see clearly. Students are good perceivers of the emotions and intentions underlying a teacher’s actions and they often respond accordingly. A teacher who is excited about the subject being taught and shows it by facial expressions, voice inflection, gesture and movement-thus communicating respect and caring for the learner is more likely to hold the attention of students and motivate them to higher levels of achievement than one who does not exhibit these behaviours. Students take their cues from these affective signs and lower or heighten their engagement with the lesson accordingly. Enthusiasm is an important aspect of a teacher’s affect. Enthusiasm is the teacher’s vigour, power, involvement, excitement and interest during a classroom presentation and willingness to share this emotion with learners, who will want to respond in kind.
1. ALifeless classroom presentation
2. BAffective factors of teaching
3. CStudents as emotional learners
4. DMeasuring teacher’s affective nature
Answer: (B) Affective factors of teaching
Explanation
The central thesis developed throughout the text is the fundamental importance of the affective factors of teaching in motivating learners and fostering classroom relationships.

A. Lifeless classroom presentation — introduced as an opening contrast to highlight what happens when affect is missing.

B. Affective factors of teaching — correct. Unifies the entire passage discussion of enthusiasm, caring, gesture, and holistic classroom interactions.

C. Students as emotional learners — focuses on only one recipient aspect of the teacher-student relationship.

D. Measuring teacher’s affective nature — the passage notes that conventional instruments cannot measure affect, but measurement is not the central focus.
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Attempt Paper 1 — General Aptitude as a timed test

Spotted a shift or questions missing from this paper?

Paper 2 — English Literature

Attempt this paper

100 questions with the answer key and explanations.

Question 1
Which among the following group of writers is labelled as "University Wits"?
1. AThomas Lodge, Thomas Wilson, Walter Raleigh
2. BJohn Fletcher, Ben Jonson, George Peele
3. CThomas kyd, Francis Beaumont, John Lyly
4. DChristopher Marlowe, Robert Greene, Thomas Nashe
Answer: (D) Christopher Marlowe, Robert Greene, Thomas Nashe
Explanation
The University Wits was a circle of late sixteenth-century English playwrights and pamphleteers educated at Oxford or Cambridge.

A. Thomas Lodge, Thomas Wilson, Walter Raleigh — Thomas Lodge belongs to the group, but Wilson and Raleigh are not classed among the University Wits.

B. John Fletcher, Ben Jonson, George Peele — Peele belongs to the group, but Fletcher and Jonson represent later Jacobean drama.

C. Thomas kyd, Francis Beaumont, John Lyly — Kyd and Lyly are traditional members, but Francis Beaumont belongs to Jacobean collaborative drama.

D. Christopher Marlowe, Robert Greene, Thomas Nashe — correct. All three completed university educations and formed the core vanguard of Elizabethan professional drama.
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Question 2
which cultural analyst has combined the study of different dimensions of youth culture with commentary on developments in cultural theory and politics?
1. AAngela Mc Robbie
2. BDonna Horraway
3. CLinda Hutcheon
4. DJulia Kristeva
Answer: (A) Angela Mc Robbie
Explanation
Angela McRobbie pioneered feminist cultural studies by analyzing young women's subcultures, fashion, pop culture, and teenage magazines alongside structural cultural theory.

A. Angela Mc Robbie — correct. Her foundational works like Feminism and Youth Culture examine the gendered dimensions of youth subcultures and cultural politics.

B. Donna Horraway — focuses on feminist science studies, cyborg theory, and posthumanism.

C. Linda Hutcheon — known for studies of postmodernism, historiographic metafiction, and irony.

D. Julia Kristeva — known for semiotic psychoanalysis, intertextuality, and theories of abjection.
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Question 3
Give Below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion (A): Only actual research develops research skills.
Reason (R): Information is discrete, whereas knowledge consists of a network of connections.

In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option:
1. ABoth (A) and (R) are true and is the correct explanation of (A)
2. BBoth (A) and (R) true and is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. C(A) is true, but is (R) false
4. D(A) is false, but is (R) true
Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) true and is not the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
Both statements articulate established pedagogical and epistemological principles, but Reason (R) does not provide the causal explanation for Assertion (A).

Assertion (A) is accepted as true because research expertise requires hands-on experiential application beyond passive instructional reading.

Reason (R) is true because raw information comprises isolated data points, while knowledge forms an organized conceptual network.

(R) describes the cognitive organization of knowledge rather than explaining why practical performance is necessary to build research capability.
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Question 4
which of the following is a collaborative work of W.H. Auden and Christopher Isherwood?
1. ALetters from Iceland
2. BThe Dance of Death
3. CThe Ascent of F6
4. DThe Orators
Answer: (C) The Ascent of F6
Explanation
The Ascent of F6 (1936) is a verse tragedy written collaboratively by W.H. Auden and Christopher Isherwood focusing on the ascent of a haunted mountain.

A. Letters from Iceland — written by Auden in collaboration with Louis MacNeice.

B. The Dance of Death — a solo political verse play by Auden published in 1933.

C. The Ascent of F6 — correct. Part of the renowned dramatic partnership between Auden and Isherwood that also produced The Dog Beneath the Skin and On the Frontier.

D. The Orators — an experimental solo work in prose and poetry composed by Auden in 1932.
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Question 5
Who among the following prose writers of the Romantic period authored “On Murder Considered as one of the Fine Arts”?
1. ACharles Lamb
2. BWalter Savage Lander
3. CThomas De Quincey
4. DAnne Radcliffe
Answer: (C) Thomas De Quincey
Explanation
Thomas De Quincey authored the satirical essay "On Murder Considered as one of the Fine Arts", published in Blackwood's Edinburgh Magazine in 1827.

A. Charles Lamb — famous for his gentle, nostalgic Essays of Elia.

B. Walter Savage Lander — known for Imaginary Conversations of Literary Men and Statesmen.

C. Thomas De Quincey — correct. His essay playfully examines notorious crimes from an aesthetic and critical standpoint.

D. Anne Radcliffe — Gothic novelist known for The Mysteries of Udolpho.
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Question 6
In which of the following essays did Charles Lamb use the pseudonym/persona, Elia?
1. A“My First Play”
2. B“The Two Races of Men”
3. C“New Year’s Eve”
4. D“The South Sea House”
Answer: (D) “The South Sea House”
Explanation
Charles Lamb first adopted the persona and pseudonym Elia in "The South Sea House", published in The London Magazine in August 1820.

A. “My First Play” — an Elia essay published later in December 1821.

B. “The Two Races of Men” — published in December 1820.

C. “New Year’s Eve” — published in January 1821.

D. “The South Sea House” — correct. Lamb took the name from an Italian clerk he had known thirty years earlier at the South Sea House, marking the debut of his celebrated narrative persona.
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Question 7
Give Below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion (A): Many modern British writers infused their works with an entrance sense of uncertainty, disillusionment and despair.
Reason (R): The Waste Land ends in a hurry of random allusions.

In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option:
1. ABoth (A) and (R) are true and is the correct explanation of (A)
2. BBoth (A) and (R) true and is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. C(A) is true, but is (R) false
4. D(A) is false, but is (R) true
Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) true and is not the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
Both statements describe recognizable features of Modernist British literature, but the specific ending of Eliot's poem does not explain the widespread historical mood across twentieth-century writing.

Assertion (A) is true because Modernist writers consistently engaged with the collapse of Victorian certitude, post-war trauma, and existential anxiety.

Reason (R) is true because the final lines of The Waste Land assemble a dense collage of multilingual literary fragments and religious tags.

The concluding stylistic choice in a single poem does not serve as the general cause for the broader cultural disillusionment of British modernism.
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Question 8
Which two of the following works were published after 1947?
1. AThe Dark Room
2. BSampath: A Printer of Malgudi
3. CSeven Summers
4. DThe Big Heart
Accepted answers: (B) Sampath: A Printer of Malgudi, (C) Seven Summers
Explanation
Both Sampath: A Printer of Malgudi and Seven Summers appeared in the immediate post-independence era after 1947.

A. The Dark Room — published by R.K. Narayan in 1938, prior to 1947.

B. Sampath: A Printer of Malgudi — correct. Published by R.K. Narayan in 1949.

C. Seven Summers — correct. The first part of Mulk Raj Anand's autobiographical novel sequence, published in 1951.

D. The Big Heart — published by Mulk Raj Anand in 1945, prior to 1947.
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Question 9
Which one of the following observations of “Lost Generation”. A term coined by Gertude Stein, is correct?
1. AGerman Jews who survived the Second World War and went to Israel
2. BThe American expatriates in Europe after the First World War
3. CThe Irish Freedom fighters of the early Twentieth Century
4. DThe European living in America
Answer: (B) The American expatriates in Europe after the First World War
Explanation
Gertrude Stein coined the term "Lost Generation" to refer to the young American artists and writers who lived as expatriates in Europe following the devastation of World War I.

A. German Jews who survived the Second World War and went to Israel — describes twentieth-century Jewish refugees, not Stein's 1920s circle.

B. The American expatriates in Europe after the First World War — correct. Popularized by Ernest Hemingway in the epigraph to The Sun Also Rises, denoting figures like F. Scott Fitzgerald and Dos Passos.

C. The Irish Freedom fighters of the early Twentieth Century — refers to Irish nationalists and the Easter Rising.

D. The European living in America — inverts the geographic direction of this expatriate artistic migration.
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Question 10
Give Below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion (A): Dialects are the bread range of social as well as regional varieties
Reason (R): A dialect describes variations not only at the phonological level, but also at the levels of texts and syntax.

In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option:
1. ABoth (A) and (R) are true and is the correct explanation of (A)
2. BBoth (A) and (R) true and is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. C(A) is true, but is (R) is false
4. D(A) is false, but is (R) is true
Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) true and is not the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation
Both statements are linguistically accurate, but Reason (R) describes structural linguistic levels rather than explaining why dialects divide across social and geographic axes.

Assertion (A) is true because dialects encompass both regional variants and social varieties shaped by class, ethnicity, and community.

Reason (R) is true because a dialect is defined by differences across vocabulary, morphology, syntax, and discourse patterns, distinguishing it from an accent which is strictly phonological.

The descriptive reality that dialects manifest at syntactic and textual levels does not explain the socio-historical reasons why dialects arise across regions and classes.
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Question 11
Which of the following work by Henry Fielding begins as a parody of Samuel Richardson’s Pamela?
1. ATom Jones
2. BDon Quixote
3. CAmelia
4. DJoseph Andrews
Answer: (D) Joseph Andrews
Explanation
Henry Fielding wrote Joseph Andrews (1742) initially as a parody of Samuel Richardson's epistolary novel Pamela (1740).

A. Tom Jones — Fielding's major picaresque comic epic in prose published in 1749.

B. Don Quixote — Cervantes' seventeenth-century Spanish masterpiece, which served as a stylistic model for Fielding.

C. Amelia — Fielding's later, more somber domestic novel published in 1751.

D. Joseph Andrews — correct. Fielding invents Pamela's brother Joseph, whose chaste resistance to Lady Booby mirrors and satirizes Pamela's conduct.
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Question 12
Which of the following statements is correct?
1. ALangue is the language system, and Parole, the individual usage.
2. BLangue is the language usage, and Parole, the individual system.
3. CLangue is the language in abeyance, and Parole, the individual application.
4. DLangue is the language collective, and Parole, the individual deviation.
Answer: (A) Langue is the language system, and Parole, the individual usage.
Explanation
In Ferdinand de Saussure's structural linguistics, langue denotes the abstract, rule-governed system of language, whereas parole denotes individual concrete speech acts.

A. Langue is the language system, and Parole, the individual usage. — correct. Langue is the shared social code, while parole is the actual realization of speech by an individual speaker.

B. Langue is the language usage, and Parole, the individual system. — inverts the core Saussurean distinction.

C. Langue is the language in abeyance, and Parole, the individual application. — mischaracterizes langue as inactive or latent.

D. Langue is the language collective, and Parole, the individual deviation. — misrepresents individual utterance as a deviation rather than standard usage.
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Question 13
Of the five conditions of the Sublime, according to Longinus, the most important condition is:
1. AVigorous treatment of passions
2. BMajesty of the structure
3. CA lofty cast of mind
4. DA wide range of thoughts
Answer: (C) A lofty cast of mind
Explanation
In On the Sublime, Longinus identifies five principal sources of sublimity and explicitly names grandeur of thought or a lofty cast of mind as the preeminent source.

Longinus famously declares that sublimity is the echo of a great soul, establishing that innate greatness of conception surpasses all technical rhetorical skills.

A. Vigorous treatment of passions — the second source, involving vehement and inspired emotion.

B. Majesty of the structure — the fifth source, dealing with dignified verbal arrangement.

C. A lofty cast of mind — correct. The primary innate foundation without which elevated diction and structure remain hollow.
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Question 14
What is the correct chronological order of the publication of the following?

A. German Grammar (Jacob Grimm)
B. Comparative Grammar of Sanskrit, Zend, GreekLatin, Lithuanian, Gothic and German (Franz Bopp)
C. An Investigation into the Origin of Old Norse or Icelandic Language (Rasmus Rask)
D. Concerning the Conjugation System of the Sanskrit Language in Comparison with those of the Greek, Latin, Persian and German Language (Franz Bopp)

Choose the correct option:
1. A(a), (b), (c) and (d)
2. B(b), (c), (d) and (a)
3. C(c), (d), (a) and (b)
4. D(d), (c), (b) and (a)
Answer: (C) (c), (d), (a) and (b)
Explanation
The chronological sequence reflects the foundational development of nineteenth-century comparative Indo-European philology.

C, D, A, B

C. Rasmus Rask completed his prize-winning investigation into Old Norse in 1814, published in 1818.

D. Franz Bopp published his groundbreaking treatise on the Sanskrit conjugation system in 1816.

A. Jacob Grimm published the first volume of Deutsche Grammatik in 1819.

B. Franz Bopp published his comprehensive multi-volume Comparative Grammar beginning in 1833.
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Question 15
The following is a list of key critical terms. Which is the right chronological order of their formulation?
1. ALangue- the unconscious- difference- heresy of paraphrase
2. BThe unconscious- langue- heresy of paraphrase- difference
3. CDifference- langue-heresy of paraphrase- the unconscious
4. DLangue- difference- the unconscious- heresy of paraphrase
Answer: (B) The unconscious- langue- heresy of paraphrase- difference
Explanation
These critical terms originated across psychoanalysis, structural linguistics, New Criticism, and deconstruction in clear chronological succession.

The unconscious — formulated by Sigmund Freud in The Interpretation of Dreams in 1899–1900.

Langue — articulated by Ferdinand de Saussure in his lectures between 1906 and 1911, published in 1916.

Heresy of paraphrase — coined by Cleanth Brooks in The Well Wrought Urn in 1947.

Différance — introduced by Jacques Derrida in his landmark 1968 lecture and essay.

This establishes the exact progression in option B.
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Question 16
which of the following characters in Shakespeare’s Love’s Labour Last over uses formal Latinate diction?
1. AHolofernes
2. BDull
3. CCostard
4. DMoth
Answer: (A) Holofernes
Explanation
In Shakespeare's Love's Labour's Lost, Holofernes is a pedantic schoolmaster who constantly displays his classical learning through convoluted Latinate vocabulary and classical tags.

A. Holofernes — correct. He satirizes contemporary Renaissance pedantry through excessive synonyms, Latin phrases, and hyper-formal diction.

B. Dull — the uneducated, literal-minded parish constable.

C. Costard — the rustic clown whose malapropisms contrast with academic wordplay.

D. Moth — Don Adriano de Armado's quick-witted, nimble page.
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Question 17
Which one of the following has two heroes with the same name?
1. AThe Island of the Mighty
2. BThe German Goddess
3. CAnimal Farm
4. DArmadale
Answer: (D) Armadale
Explanation
Wilkie Collins's sensation novel Armadale (1866) centers on two male protagonists who both bear the identical name Allan Armadale.

One Allan Armadale is the fair-haired heir, while the other goes by the alias Ozias Midwinter to conceal his inherited identity.

A. The Island of the Mighty — a play by John Arden and Margaretta D'Arcy dealing with the Arthurian legend.

B. The German Goddess — not a Victorian novel featuring twin-named protagonists.

C. Animal Farm — George Orwell's political fable featuring animals with distinct symbolic names like Napoleon and Snowball.

D. Armadale — correct. The shared name drives the complex plot of ancestral murder, guilt, and mistaken identity.
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Question 18
Which of the following plays by T.S Eliot is in the correct chronological order of publication?
1. AMurder in the Cathedral- The Family Reunion- The Cocktail Party- The Confidential Clerk
2. BThe Cocktail Party- The Confidential Clerk- The Family Reunion – Murder in the Cathedral
3. CThe Family Reunion- The Cocktail Party- Murder in the Cathedral- The Confidential Clerk
4. DThe Confidential Clerk- Murder in the Cathedral- The Cocktail Party- The Family Reunion
Answer: (A) Murder in the Cathedral- The Family Reunion- The Cocktail Party- The Confidential Clerk
Explanation
T.S. Eliot's verse dramas followed a consistent chronological development in the mid-twentieth century.

Murder in the Cathedral appeared in 1935.

The Family Reunion was published in 1939.

The Cocktail Party was first performed in 1949 and published in 1950.

The Confidential Clerk was staged in 1953 and published in 1954.

This sequence is accurately captured in option A.
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Question 19
Which of the following describes Foucault’s views on knowledge?
1. AKnowledge is not metaphysical or transcendental
2. BKnowledge is not a matter of perspective.
3. CKnowledge is not pure or neutral but is always from a point of view
4. DKnowledge is unconstrained by regimes of power
Answer: (C) Knowledge is not pure or neutral but is always from a point of view
Explanation
Michel Foucault's concept of power-knowledge demonstrates that truth claims and knowledge systems are never disinterested, objective, or value-free.

A. Knowledge is not metaphysical or transcendental — while Foucault historicizes knowledge, option C is his defining epistemological formulation.

B. Knowledge is not a matter of perspective. — contradicts Foucault, who insists that knowledge is always perspectival and situated.

C. Knowledge is not pure or neutral but is always from a point of view — correct. Knowledge is inextricably produced within historical discourse, institutions, and power relations.

D. Knowledge is unconstrained by regimes of power — directly opposite to Foucault's assertion that every society has its regime of truth.
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Question 20
which of the following periods of English Literature is also called “Puritan Interregnum”?
1. AThe Neoclassical Period
2. BThe Caroline Age
3. CThe Restoration
4. DThe Commonwealth Period
Answer: (D) The Commonwealth Period
Explanation
The Commonwealth Period (1649–1660) between the execution of Charles I and the return of the monarchy under Charles II is known as the Puritan Interregnum.

A. The Neoclassical Period — spans 1660 to 1798, encompassing the Restoration, Augustan, and Age of Sensibility periods.

B. The Caroline Age — refers to the reign of Charles I from 1625 to 1649.

C. The Restoration — begins in 1660 with the return of the Stuart monarchy.

D. The Commonwealth Period — correct. Led by Oliver Cromwell and the Puritan government, during which public theatres were officially closed.
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Question 21
Which of the following fictional characters is in the right Chronological order?
1. AUncle Toby- Man Friday- Stephen Dedalus- Miss Havisham
2. BStephen Dedalus- Man Friday – Uncle Toby- Miss Havisham
3. CMan Friday- Uncle Toby- Miss Havisham –Stephen Dedalus
4. DMiss Havisham- Uncle Toby- Stephen Dedalus- Man Friday
Answer: (C) Man Friday- Uncle Toby- Miss Havisham –Stephen Dedalus
Explanation
The characters appear in chronological order based on the initial publication dates of their respective classic novels.

Man Friday appears in Daniel Defoe's Robinson Crusoe (1719).

Uncle Toby appears in Laurence Sterne's Tristram Shandy (1759–1767).

Miss Havisham appears in Charles Dickens's Great Expectations (1860–1861).

Stephen Dedalus appears in James Joyce's A Portrait of the Artist as a Young Man (1916).

This sequence matches option C.
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Question 22
Who among the following has written a series of poems entitled. “Very Indian Poems in Indian English”?
1. AVikram Seth
2. BArun Kolatkar
3. CNissim Ezekiel
4. DKeki N Daruwalla
Answer: (C) Nissim Ezekiel
Explanation
Nissim Ezekiel authored the famous poetic series "Very Indian Poems in Indian English", capturing colloquial Indian speech and syntactic idioms.

The cycle includes well-known satirical and affectionate poems such as "The Professor" and "Goodbye Party for Miss Pushpa T.S."

A. Vikram Seth — known for The Golden Gate and Collected Poems.

B. Arun Kolatkar — famous for his bilingual poetic collection Jejuri.

C. Nissim Ezekiel — correct. Foundational figure of modern Indian English poetry.

D. Keki N Daruwalla — known for collections like Under Orion and The Keeper of the Dead.
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Question 23
Who made the remark: “Great literature is simply language charged with meaning to the utmost possible degree”?
1. ARabindranath Tagore
2. BEzra Pound
3. CW. B. Yeats
4. DT. S. Eliot
Answer: (B) Ezra Pound
Explanation
Ezra Pound delivered this influential formulation of literary language in How to Read (1931) and ABC of Reading (1934).

Pound identified the charged nature of poetic language through three primary modalities: phanopoeia, melopoeia, and logopoeia.

A. Rabindranath Tagore — formulated spiritual and humanist aesthetic philosophies of harmony.

B. Ezra Pound — correct. Central to Imagist and Modernist definitions of poetic concision.

C. W. B. Yeats — focused on symbolism, mythology, and visionary poetic emotion.

D. T. S. Eliot — known for formulations like the objective correlative and dissociation of sensibility.
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Question 24
Which of the following stylistic features characterize spoken discourse?

A. Greater use of explicit connectives
B. Greater dependence on verbal connectives
C. Greater syntactic embedding
D. Greater use of fillers and repitions

Choose the correct option:
1. A(a) and (b)
2. B(b) and (c)
3. C(c) and (d)
4. D(b) and (d)
Answer: (D) (b) and (d)
Explanation
Spoken discourse is spontaneous and interactive, relying heavily on real-time conversational processing devices.

B. Greater dependence on verbal connectives and D. Greater use of fillers and repetitions characterize speech because speakers manage ongoing turns using discourse markers, pauses, and rephrasing.

A. Explicit connectives and C. Syntactic embedding (complex nested clauses) are hallmarks of formal planned written texts rather than spontaneous spoken conversation.
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Question 25
Which two of the correctly describe the features of Wuthering Heights?

A. Flash backs and time shifts
B. Oedipal obsessions
C. Magic and ritual
D. Acute evocation of place

Choose the correct option:
1. A(a) and (c)
2. B(b) and (d)
3. C(a) and (d)
4. D(c) and (d)
Answer: (C) (a) and (d)
Explanation
Emily Brontë's Wuthering Heights (1847) is defined by its innovative narrative architecture and atmospheric setting.

A. Flash backs and time shifts — correct. The complex Chinese-box narrative framed by Lockwood and recounted by Nelly Dean shifts fluidly across decades.

D. Acute evocation of place — correct. The Yorkshire moors and the symbolic opposition between Wuthering Heights and Thrushcross Grange form a vital emotional presence.

B. Oedipal obsessions and C. Magic and ritual — do not constitute the primary structural characteristics of the novel.
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Question 26
Who among the following are associated with the ‘Jazz Age’?
1. AErnest Hemingway and Scott Fitzgerald
2. BScott Fitzgerald and John Dos Passos
3. CJohn das Passos and Sherwood Anderson
4. DErnest Hemingway and Sherwood Anderson
Answer: (A) Ernest Hemingway and Scott Fitzgerald
Explanation
F. Scott Fitzgerald and Ernest Hemingway are the defining literary figures of the 1920s American Jazz Age.

Fitzgerald coined the term in his 1922 collection Tales of the Jazz Age and captured its hedonism and disillusionment in The Great Gatsby.

Hemingway chronicled the postwar expatriate lifestyle of the same generation in The Sun Also Rises.

B, C, D include John Dos Passos and Sherwood Anderson, who contributed to modernist fiction but did not serve as the iconic cultural personifications of the Jazz Age.
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Question 27
The key figures in the development of British cultural studies are

A. Richard Hoggard
B. Raymond Williams
C. Stuard Hall
D. Lawrence Grossberg

The most appropriate option is:
1. A(a) and (b)
2. B(b) and (c)
3. C(a),(b) and (c)
4. D(b),(c) and (d)
Answer: (C) (a),(b) and (c)
Explanation
British Cultural Studies was established through the foundational work of Richard Hoggart, Raymond Williams, and Stuart Hall at the Birmingham Centre for Contemporary Cultural Studies.

A. Richard Hoggart founded the CCCS in 1964 and wrote The Uses of Literacy.

B. Raymond Williams laid theoretical foundations in Culture and Society and The Long Revolution.

C. Stuart Hall directed the Centre from 1968 to 1979 and developed encoding-decoding models.

D. Lawrence Grossberg is an American theorist who studied at Birmingham but belongs to American cultural studies rather than founding the British tradition.
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Question 28
Which two of the following are autobiographical narratives?

A. Kanthapura
B. Meatless Days
C. Prison and Chocolate Cake
D. The God od small things

The correct option is:
1. A(a) and (b)
2. B(b) and (c)
3. C(a) and (c)
4. D(c) and (d)
Answer: (B) (b) and (c)
Explanation
Meatless Days and Prison and Chocolate Cake are non-fictional autobiographical memoirs.

B. Meatless Days (1989) is Sara Suleri's acclaimed feminist memoir combining personal postcolonial recollections with Pakistani national history.

C. Prison and Chocolate Cake (1954) is Nayantara Sahgal's autobiographical memoir detailing her youth during the Indian independence movement.

A. Kanthapura (1938) by Raja Rao is a fictional novel depicting a Gandhian village.

D. The God of Small Things (1997) by Arundhati Roy is a fictional novel.
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Question 29
In the following list, which two actors belong to the Elizabethan period?

A. Richard Burbage
B. Will kempe
C. David Garrick
D. John Kemble

Choose the correct option:
1. A(a) and (c)
2. B(b) and (d)
3. C(a) and (b)
4. D(c) and (d)
Answer: (C) (a) and (b)
Explanation
Richard Burbage and Will Kempe were premier theatrical performers of the Elizabethan stage and core members of Shakespeare's Lord Chamberlain's Men.

A. Richard Burbage was the star tragic actor who originated Hamlet, Othello, King Lear, and Richard III.

B. Will Kempe was the foremost comic actor and morris dancer who originated clown roles such as Dogberry in Much Ado About Nothing.

C. David Garrick dominated the eighteenth-century Georgian stage.

D. John Kemble was an actor-manager of the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries.
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Question 30
How many tales and pilgrims are there in Chaucer’s The CanterburyTales?
1. A24 pilgrims and 23 tales
2. B23 pilgrims and 24 tales
3. C22 pilgrims and 24 tales
4. D24 pilgrims and 22 tales
Answer: (B) 23 pilgrims and 24 tales
Explanation
Chaucer's Canterbury Tales contains 24 complete or surviving tales narrated across the pilgrimage.

The 24 tales are told by 23 individual pilgrim narrators because Chaucer himself narrates two distinct tales: The Tale of Sir Thopas and The Tale of Melibee.

All other options alter these verified counts of surviving tales and speaking tellers.
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Question 31

Match the types of writing with their descriptions:

Types of writing	Description
(a) exegesis	I. Writing about saints’ lives
(b) invective	II. Detailed explanation of a passage
(c) hagiography	III. A defence of justification of one’s actions and beliefs
(d) apology	IV. A bitterly critical attack of something

A(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
B(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
C(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
D(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

Answer: (A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Explanation

The literary terms match their descriptive definitions directly.

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(a) exegesis corresponds to II, a critical explanation or interpretation of a textual passage.
(b) invective corresponds to IV, intensely abusive language or bitter critical denunciation.
(c) hagiography corresponds to I, the writing of biographies of Christian saints.
(d) apology corresponds to III, a formal defense or vindication of one's principles.

Question 32
Match the works with authors:
Author Work
(a) Homi bhabha i. Saving the text
(b) Georey Hartman ii. The location of culture
(c) Edward said iii. Desire in language
(d) Julia Kristeva iv. Culture and imperialism
1. A(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
2. B(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3. C(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
4. D(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
Answer: (B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
Explanation
The critical theorists pair with their major structural and postcolonial treatises.

(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Homi Bhabha authored The Location of Culture (1994), developing concepts of hybridity and the third space.

Geoffrey Hartman authored Saving the Text (1981), examining Derrida and philosophical deconstruction.

Edward Said authored Culture and Imperialism (1993), analyzing imperialist discourse across Western fiction.

Julia Kristeva authored Desire in Language (1980), advancing semiotic psychoanalytic criticism.
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Question 33
which two concepts developed by the French sociologist pierre bourdieu, have become increasingly influential in cultural studies?

A. Dissemination
B. Gynesis
C. Cultural capital
D. Habitus

Choose the correct option:
1. A(a) and (c)
2. B(b) and (c)
3. C(c) and (d)
4. D(b) and (d)
Answer: (C) (c) and (d)
Explanation
Cultural capital and habitus are Pierre Bourdieu's landmark theoretical contributions to cultural sociology.

C. Cultural capital explains how non-financial social assets, knowledge, tastes, and educational credentials promote social mobility and maintain class stratification.

D. Habitus describes ingrained habits, dispositions, and worldviews acquired through life experiences and socialization in specific social fields.

A. Dissemination is Jacques Derrida's deconstructive concept.

B. Gynesis is Alice Jardine's feminist concept analyzing the valorization of the feminine in philosophical discourse.
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Question 34
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of publication of the following poems?
1. ALamia- Paradise lost- Alastor- The dunciad
2. BThe dunciad- Alastor- Lamia- Paradise lost
3. CAlastor- The dunciad- Paradise lost- Lamia
4. DParadise lost- The dunciad- Alastor- Lamia
Answer: (D) Paradise lost- The dunciad- Alastor- Lamia
Explanation
The poems appear in chronological order across the seventeenth, eighteenth, and nineteenth centuries.

Paradise Lost, The Dunciad, Alastor, Lamia

Paradise Lost by John Milton was published in 1667.

The Dunciad by Alexander Pope was first published in 1728.

Alastor, or The Spirit of Solitude by Percy Bysshe Shelley was published in 1816.

Lamia by John Keats was published in 1820.
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Question 35
What is the chronological order of the appearance of the following periodicals?

A. The tattler
B. The spectator
C. The Examiner
D. The reflector

Choose the correct option:
1. A(b), (a), (d) and (c)
2. B(c), (b), (a) and (d)
3. C(a), (b), (c) and (d)
4. D(d), (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: (C) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Explanation
These major English literary and political periodicals appeared in chronological sequence between 1709 and 1810.

A, B, C, D

A. The Tatler was founded by Richard Steele in April 1709.

B. The Spectator was founded by Joseph Addison and Richard Steele in March 1711.

C. The Examiner was founded by Leigh Hunt and John Hunt in 1808 as a radical weekly paper.

D. The Reflector was founded by Leigh Hunt in 1810 as a quarterly magazine featuring Charles Lamb and William Hazlitt.
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Question 36
Match the periodicals with their writers/contributors:
Periodical Writer/Contributor
(a) The Rambler i. Charles Dickens
(b) Macmillan’s Magazine ii. Samuel Johnson
(c) The guardian iii. David Masson
(d) Bentley’s Miscellany iv. Richard Steele
1. A(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
2. B(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
3. C(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
4. D(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Answer: (C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
Explanation
The periodicals match their principal founders and contributing editors directly.

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(a) The Rambler was written and published by Samuel Johnson between 1750 and 1752.

(b) Macmillan's Magazine was edited by literary scholar David Masson from 1859 to 1867.

(c) The Guardian was founded and edited by Richard Steele in 1713.

(d) Bentley's Miscellany was launched in 1837 with Charles Dickens serving as its first editor.
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Question 37
In which of the following works is the character ‘Ariel’ an exclusion?
1. AThe tempest
2. BParadise lost
3. CThe rape of the lock
4. DThe Rime of the Ancient Mariner
Answer: (D) The Rime of the Ancient Mariner
Explanation
Ariel appears as a named spirit in The Tempest, Paradise Lost, and The Rape of the Lock, but does not appear in Coleridge's poem.

A. The Tempest — Ariel is the airy spirit bound to Prospero.

B. Paradise Lost — Ariel appears in Book VI as one of the rebel angels struck down in the War in Heaven.

C. The Rape of the Lock — Ariel is the chief guardian sylph appointed to watch over Belinda.

D. The Rime of the Ancient Mariner — correct. Coleridge features the Polar Spirit and phantom spirits, but no character named Ariel.
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Question 38
Which two aspects of cultural diffusion in the Age of Globalization need to be addressed by pedagogy of language in general and of English in particular?

A. Uni directionality
B. Multi directionality
C. Complex and extensive
D. Simplistic and abbreviated

Choose the correct option:
1. A(a) and (b)
2. B(b) and (c)
3. C(c) and (d)
4. D(d) and (a)
Answer: (B) (b) and (c)
Explanation
Global linguistic exchange operates through plural, multilateral flows rather than one-way colonial export.

B. Multi directionality reflects how English varieties influence one another globally rather than radiating outward from a single metropolitan center.

C. Complex and extensive captures the intricate sociolinguistic intersections of local cultures, digital media, and multilingual communicative repertoires.

A. Uni directionality and D. Simplistic and abbreviated represent obsolete transmission models that modern language pedagogy rejects.
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Question 39
Which of the following set of characters in Charles Dickens’ novels is in the right chronological order?
1. ABounderby – David Copperfield- Mrs. Mann- Nathaniel Winkle
2. BDavid Copperfield- Mr. Bounderby- Nathaniel Winkle- Mrs. Mann
3. CNathaniel winkle- Mrs. Mann- David Copperfield- Mr. Bounderby
4. DMann- David Copperfield- Nathaniel winkle- Mr. Bounderby
Answer: (C) Nathaniel winkle- Mrs. Mann- David Copperfield- Mr. Bounderby
Explanation
The characters appear in chronological sequence based on the publication dates of their respective Dickens novels.

Nathaniel Winkle, Mrs. Mann, David Copperfield, Mr. Bounderby

Nathaniel Winkle appears in The Pickwick Papers (1836–1837).

Mrs. Mann runs the parish infant workhouse in Oliver Twist (1837–1839).

David Copperfield is the eponymous protagonist of David Copperfield (1849–1850).

Mr. Josiah Bounderby is the self-made mill owner in Hard Times (1854).
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Question 40
Which two principal kinds of melancholy are proposed by Robert Burton in volume III of Anatomy of melancholy?

A. ‘Love’
B. ‘Religious’
C. ‘Morbid’
D. ‘Psychic’

The correct option is:
1. A(a) and (b)
2. B(a) and (c)
3. C(b) and (d)
4. D(c) and (d)
Answer: (A) (a) and (b)
Explanation
In The Anatomy of Melancholy (1621), Robert Burton devotes the third and final partition entirely to two specific kinds of melancholy.

Partition 3 examines Love Melancholy (its causes, symptoms, and cures in romantic desire) and Religious Melancholy (distortions of religious belief and despair).

Morbid and Psychic are modern medical categories that do not constitute Burton's formal taxonomic divisions.
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Question 41
Match the works with authors:
Work Author
(a) Bodies that matter i. Camille paglia
(b) A world of difference ii. Elaine showalter
(c) A literature of their own iii. Barbara Johnson
(d) Vamps and tamps iv. Judith butler
1. A(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2. B(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3. C(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
4. D(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Answer: (C) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Explanation
These major feminist and deconstructive critical texts match their respective authors directly.

(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(a) Bodies That Matter (1993) was written by Judith Butler, exploring performativity and bodily materialization.

(b) A World of Difference (1987) was written by Barbara Johnson, applying deconstruction to gender and race.

(c) A Literature of Their Own (1977) was written by Elaine Showalter, charting gynocritical British literary history.

(d) Vamps and Tramps (1994) was written by Camille Paglia, collecting essays on sex, art, and popular culture.
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Question 42
Match the following technological advancements impacting learning and teaching of language with their corresponding years:
Technological advancement Year
(a) Hypertext markup language (HTML) i. 2004
(b) Streaming of video on the internet ii. 2003
(c) Myspace.com iii. 1991
(d) Facebook iv. 1997
1. A(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
2. B(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
3. C(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
4. D(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Answer: (A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Explanation
The technological milestones match their historical release years directly.

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(a) HTML was first publicly released by Tim Berners-Lee in 1991.

(b) Streaming of video on the internet emerged commercially in 1997 with RealVideo.

(c) Myspace.com was founded and launched in 2003.

(d) Facebook was launched by Mark Zuckerberg in 2004.
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Question 43
Examples of poetic compounding are found in the work of which two modernist writers?

A. Graham Greene
B. James Joyce
C. Gerard Manley Hopkins
D. Stephen spender

Choose the correct option:
1. A(c) and (d)
2. B(a) and (b)
3. C(b) and (c)
4. D(a) and (c)
Answer: (C) (b) and (c)
Explanation
Poetic compounding involves fusing words to create dense figurative compounds, famously exemplified by James Joyce and Gerard Manley Hopkins.

B. James Joyce invented intricate portmanteau and compound coinages throughout Ulysses and Finnegans Wake.

C. Gerard Manley Hopkins pioneered hyphenated compound epithets such as dapple-dawn-drawn and fresh-firecoal.

A. Graham Greene wrote conventional realistic prose.

D. Stephen Spender utilized straightforward syntax without compound lexical coinages.
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Question 44
Which British administrator passed a resolution for the “Promotion of European literature and science among the natives of India”?
1. ALord Hastings
2. BLord Cornwallis
3. CLord Bentinck
4. DLord Hardinage
Answer: (C) Lord Bentinck
Explanation
Governor-General Lord William Bentinck passed the official resolution of March 7, 1835, following Macaulay's Minute on Indian Education.

The resolution declared that all educational funds should be directed toward promoting European literature and science through the English medium.

A. Lord Hastings served earlier from 1813 to 1823.

B. Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent Settlement of Bengal in 1793.

D. Lord Hardinge served later from 1844 to 1848.
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Question 45
In which one of the following Middle English poems is Hector a character?
1. ATroilus and Cressida
2. BPiers plowman
3. CThe seafarer
4. DBeowulf
Answer: (A) Troilus and Cressida
Explanation
Geoffrey Chaucer's Middle English poem Troilus and Criseyde (often rendered Troilus and Cressida) features the Trojan prince Hector as an honorable warrior.

Hector defends Criseyde in Troy after her father Calchas flees to the Greek camp.

B. Piers Plowman is William Langland's theological dream vision set in medieval England.

C. The Seafarer is an Old English elegiac lyric from the Exeter Book.

D. Beowulf is an Old English heroic epic set in Scandinavia.
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Question 46
Which two of the following poems can be categorized as poems belonging to the neo-classical period of English literature.

A. “The ring and the book”
B. “The Vanity of human wishes”
C. “Cato”
D. “Lamia”

Choose the correct option:
1. A(a) and (b)
2. B(b) and (c)
3. C(c) and (d)
4. D(a) and (d)
Answer: (B) (b) and (c)
Explanation
The Vanity of Human Wishes and Cato belong to the eighteenth-century Neoclassical tradition.

B. The Vanity of Human Wishes (1749) is Samuel Johnson's formal imitation of Juvenal's Tenth Satire in heroic couplets.

C. Cato (1713) is Joseph Addison's verse tragedy embodying neoclassical dramatic decorum and Stoic virtue.

A. The Ring and the Book (1868–1869) is a Victorian dramatic monologue poem by Robert Browning.

D. Lamia (1820) is a Romantic narrative poem by John Keats.
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Question 47
Which of the following arrangements of prose-pamphlets is in the right chronological order?
1. AThe shortest way with dissenters – A modest proposal – Areopagitica – Reflections on the revolution in France
2. BA modest proposal – The shortest way with dissenters- Areopagitica – Reflections on the revolution in France
3. CAreopagitica- The shortest way with dissenters – A modest proposal– Reflections on the revolution in France
4. DAreopagitica – Reflections on the revolution in France- The shortest way with dissenters – A modest proposal
Answer: (C) Areopagitica- The shortest way with dissenters – A modest proposal– Reflections on the revolution in France
Explanation
The prose pamphlets appeared in sequence from the English Civil War through the French Revolution.

Areopagitica, The Shortest Way with the Dissenters, A Modest Proposal, Reflections on the Revolution in France

Areopagitica by John Milton was published in 1644, arguing against licensing.

The Shortest Way with the Dissenters by Daniel Defoe was published in 1702.

A Modest Proposal by Jonathan Swift appeared in 1729.

Reflections on the Revolution in France by Edmund Burke was published in 1790.
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Question 48
Which arrangements of D.H Lawrence’s novels is in the correct chronological sequence?
1. AKangaroo- The Plumed Serpent- Sons and Lovers – The rainbow
2. BSons and Lovers – The rainbow- Kangaroo- The Plumed Serpent
3. CThe rainbow- The Plumed Serpent- Kangaroo- Sons and Lovers
4. DThe rainbow- Kangaroo- The Plumed Serpent- Sons and Lovers
Answer: (B) Sons and Lovers – The rainbow- Kangaroo- The Plumed Serpent
Explanation
D.H. Lawrence's novels trace an established chronological progression from his early Nottinghamshire fiction to his later global travels.

Sons and Lovers, The Rainbow, Kangaroo, The Plumed Serpent

Sons and Lovers was published in 1913.

The Rainbow was published in 1915.

Kangaroo was published in 1923, written during Lawrence's stay in Australia.

The Plumed Serpent was published in 1926, set in Mexico.
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Question 49
Which three of the following poets gure in William Dunbar’s lament for the makers?

A. Georey Chaucer
B. John Gower
C. Robert henryson
D. William Langland

Choose the most appropriate option:
1. A(a), (b) and (d)
2. B(a), (b) and (c)
3. C(b), (c) and (d)
4. D(a), (c) and (d)
Answer: (B) (a), (b) and (c)
Explanation
In Lament for the Makaris (c. 1505), William Dunbar laments the death of fellow makers and explicitly pays tribute to Chaucer, Gower, and Henryson.

Dunbar names Chaucer as the noble flour of makaris, Gower as gude Gower, and mourns Robert Henryson of Dunfermline.

William Langland, author of Piers Plowman, is not among the poets memorialized in Dunbar's elegy.
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Question 50
Match the author with the text:
Author Text
(a) Rita Kothari i. The Queen’s Hinglish
(b) Probal Dasgupta ii. The Indianization Of English
(c) Braj B. Kachru iii. Translating India
(d) Baljinder K. Mahal iv. The Otherness Of English
1. A(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
2. B(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
3. C(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
4. D(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
Answer: (B) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Explanation
The sociolinguistic texts match their respective Indian English scholars directly.

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(a) Rita Kothari authored Translating India: The Cultural Politics of English (2003).

(b) Probal Dasgupta authored The Otherness of English: India's Auntie Tongue Syndrome (1993).

(c) Braj B. Kachru authored The Indianization of English (1983).

(d) Baljinder K. Mahal authored The Queen's Hinglish: How to Speak Pukka (2006).
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Question 51
Which combination in the following constitutes the trilogy oresteia?
1. AAgamemnon, The Persians, Eumenides
2. BThe Persians, The suppliants, Agamemnon
3. CAgamemnon, Choephoroe, Eumenides
4. DSeven against Thebes, Agamemnon, The suppliants
Answer: (C) Agamemnon, Choephoroe, Eumenides
Explanation
Aeschylus's Oresteia (458 BCE) is the only surviving trilogy from ancient Greek drama, dramatizing the cursed House of Atreus.

The trilogy consists of Agamemnon, Choephoroe (The Libation Bearers), and The Eumenides.

A and B include The Persians and The Suppliants, which are independent tragedies by Aeschylus.

D includes Seven Against Thebes, which belongs to Aeschylus's separate Oedipus trilogy.
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Question 52
In paradise lost Milton invokes his ‘heavenly muse’, ‘urania’, at the beginning of which two books?

A. Book I
B. Book IV
C. Book IX
D. Book VII

Choose the correct option:
1. A(a) and (d)
2. B(b) and (c)
3. C(c) and (d)
4. D(b) and (d)
Answer: (A) (a) and (d)
Explanation
John Milton famously invokes his Heavenly Muse at the openings of Book I and Book VII of Paradise Lost.

A. Book I opens with the invocation to the Heavenly Muse to sing of man's first disobedience.

D. Book VII begins by naming Urania directly, calling on the heavenly muse to guide the poet back down to earth from the narrative of heaven.

B. Book IV opens with an exclamation on Satan's arrival rather than a formal invocation.

C. Book IX invokes his celestial patroness who visits his slumbers nightly, but Urania is explicitly invoked at the start of Books I and VII.
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Question 53
Who among the following proposed that the English Language is “man made”, not “woman made”?
1. AMary Has
2. BDorothy L Sayers
3. CDale Spender
4. DCarol Chomsky
Answer: (C) Dale Spender
Explanation
Dale Spender authored the influential feminist sociolinguistic treatise Man Made Language in 1980.

Spender argues that patriarchal structures have historically controlled language creation and codified semantic conventions that privilege male perspectives while marginalizing female experience.

A. Mary Haas was an American linguist renowned for indigenous North American languages.

B. Dorothy L. Sayers was a detective novelist and Christian humanist essayist.

D. Carol Chomsky was a developmental linguist studying child language acquisition.
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Question 54
Which two of the following statements are applicable to feminist criticism?

A. Recuperate the female writers ignored by the canon
B. Fully endorse the social construction of gender
C. Valorize the traditional canon uncritically
D. Mostly reject the essentialising of ‘male’ and ‘female’

Choose the correct option:
1. A(a) and (b)
2. B(b) and (c)
3. C(a) and (d)
4. D(a) and (c)
Answer: (C) (a) and (d)
Explanation
Feminist literary criticism combines archival recovery with theoretical critique of gender hierarchies.

A. Recuperate the female writers ignored by the canon — correct. Gynocriticism actively recovers lost, forgotten, and suppressed women authors.

D. Mostly reject the essentialising of ‘male’ and ‘female’ — correct. Anti-essentialist feminist theory rejects innate biological binaries in favor of fluid performative identities.

B. Fully endorse the social construction of gender — not all branches of feminism fully endorse pure social construction, as cultural and French feminisms maintain differing bodily frameworks.

C. Valorize the traditional canon uncritically — directly opposite to feminist critique, which deconstructs patriarchal biases in the traditional canon.
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Question 55
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion (A): The Primary component in novelistic forms is a plot that evolves coherently from its beginning to a end in which all complications are resolved.
Reason (R): The novel is constituted by a multiplicity of divergent and contending social voices that achieve their full significance only in the process of their dialogic interaction both with each other and with the voice of the narrator.

In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option:
1. ABoth (A) and (R) are true and is the correct explanation of (A)
2. BBoth (A) and (R) true and is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. C(A) is true, but (R) false
4. D(A) is false, but (R) true
Answer: (D) (A) is false, but (R) true
Explanation
Modern novel theory refutes simplistic linear plot resolution while affirming the heteroglossic nature of the genre.

Assertion (A) is false because the novel as a flexible genre frequently abandons closed linear plots, as seen in picaresque, modernist, and postmodernist fiction.

Reason (R) is true because it encapsulates Mikhail Bakhtin's theory of dialogism, where the novel is inherently characterized by polyphony and competing ideological voices.

Therefore Assertion (A) is false while Reason (R) is true.
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Question 56
What does Socrates mean when in Plato’s Ion, he says “Poets are nothing but the interpreters of gods”?
1. AThe Poets are the markers of their poems
2. BThe Poets are acutely aware of gods in composing their poems
3. CThe Poets are divinely possessed when they compose their poems
4. DThe Poets first hear what gods say then put than into words
Answer: (C) The Poets are divinely possessed when they compose their poems
Explanation
In Plato's dialogue Ion, Socrates argues that poets create not by rational art or technique but through divine possession and inspiration.

Socrates uses the metaphor of the magnet to explain that the Muse inspires the poet with divine frenzy, robbing them of their senses during composition.

A. Markers of their poems — inverts Socrates' claim that poets lack intentional rational control.

B. Acutely aware — contradicts the Platonic assertion that poets compose while out of their sober minds.

C. The Poets are divinely possessed when they compose their poems — correct. They act as passive vessels for divine utterance.

D. First hear what gods say then put than into words — misrepresents the immediate state of ecstasy as a conscious two-step transcription.
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Question 57
Now often did Richard Steel’s Tatler appear every week and how many issues of Tatler I total were published?
1. ATwo times a week; 171 issues
2. BOnce a week; 151 issues
3. CThree times a week; 271 issues
4. DThree times a week; 26 issues
Answer: (C) Three times a week; 271 issues
Explanation
Richard Steele launched The Tatler under the pseudonym Isaac Bickerstaff on April 12, 1709, appearing three times each week.

Issues were published on Tuesdays, Thursdays, and Saturdays to match the departure of the post to the country.

The run concluded on January 2, 1711, with issue number 271.

A, B, and D misstate the weekly publishing schedule and the final issue count.
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Question 58
Which one of the following novels by Kingsley Amis represents its protagonist as an ‘angry young man’?
1. AI Like it Here
2. BLucky Jim
3. CThe Biographer’s Moustache
4. DThe Great Man
Answer: (B) Lucky Jim
Explanation
Lucky Jim (1954) established the defining campus-novel prototype of the 1950s British Angry Young Man generation.

The protagonist Jim Dixon is an irreverent history lecturer at a provincial university who chafes against academic pretension and social snobbery.

A. I Like It Here (1958) is a comedic travel novel set in Portugal.

C. The Biographer's Moustache (1995) is a later satirical novel.

D. The Great Man is not a novel by Kingsley Amis.
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Question 59
Who are the co-editors of Chutneyfying English: The Phenomenon of Hinglish?
1. AJamuna Kachru
2. BRita Kothari
3. CRupert Snell
4. DAlastair Pennycook
Accepted answers: (B) Rita Kothari, (C) Rupert Snell
Explanation
Chutneyfying English: The Phenomenon of Hinglish (2011) was co-edited by Rita Kothari and Rupert Snell.

Both scholars collaborated to compile this foundational volume analyzing the cultural, social, and literary dynamics of Hindi-English code-mixing.

B. Rita Kothari — correct. Co-editor and prominent translation scholar.

C. Rupert Snell — correct. Co-editor and eminent scholar of Hindi literature and linguistics.

A. Jamuna Kachru and D. Alastair Pennycook did not edit this volume.
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Question 60
Which two aspects of cultural diffusion in the Age of Globalization need to be addressed by pedagogy of language in general and of English in particular?

A. Uni Directionality
B. Multidirectionality
C. Complex and extensive
D. Simplistic and abbreviated

Choose the correct option:
1. A(a) and (b)
2. B(b) and (c)
3. C(c) and (d)
4. D(d) and (a)
Answer: (B) (b) and (c)
Explanation
Cultural diffusion in globalization requires language educators to address complex, non-linear communicative exchanges.

B. Multidirectionality recognizes that linguistic influences move across multiple cultural nodes simultaneously rather than flowing exclusively from the West.

C. Complex and extensive reflects the multifaceted spread of English across transnational media and localized vernaculars.

A. Uni Directionality and D. Simplistic and abbreviated are reductive models inadequate for contemporary sociolinguistic realities.
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Question 61
From whose work did John Milton take the epigraph to his Areopagitica?
1. ASophocles
2. BEuripides
3. CPlato
4. DMore
Answer: (B) Euripides
Explanation
John Milton placed an English translation of lines from Euripides's play The Suppliants on the title page of Areopagitica (1644).

The epigraph translates the democratic speech where Euripides affirms that true liberty exists when citizens having advice for the public may speak freely.

A. Sophocles — renowned Greek tragedian whose plays do not supply Milton's title-page epigraph.

C. Plato — Athenian philosopher whose Republic actually favored state censorship of poetry.

D. Thomas More — Renaissance humanist whose Utopia depicted an imagined commonwealth.
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Question 62

Match the author with the story:

Author	Story
(a) Edgar Allan Poe	i. “The Fall of the House of Usher”
(b) E.M Forster	ii. “The Prophet’s Hair”
(c) Katherine Mansfield	iii. “The Garden Party”
(d) Salman Rushdie	iv. “The Celestial Omnibus”

A(a)-(iii), (b)-(ii),(c)-(i),(d)-(iv)
B(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii),(c)-(i),(d)-(ii)
C(a)-(i), (b)-(iv),(c)-(iii),(d)-(ii)
D(a)-(ii), (b)-(i),(c)-(iv),(d)-(iii)

Answer: (C) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv),(c)-(iii),(d)-(ii)

Explanation

The celebrated short stories match their respective authors directly.

(a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(a) Edgar Allan Poe wrote the gothic tale "The Fall of the House of Usher" (1839).
(b) E.M. Forster wrote the fantasy story "The Celestial Omnibus" (1911).
(c) Katherine Mansfield authored the modernist story "The Garden Party" (1922).
(d) Salman Rushdie wrote the magical realist tale "The Prophet's Hair" in East, West (1994).

Question 63
Which two of the following are associated with Deconstruction?

A. Jacques Derrida
B. Raymond Williams
C. Paul De Man
D. Jonathan Dolli More

Choose the correct option:
1. A(a) and (b)
2. B(a) and (c)
3. C(a) and (d)
4. D(b) and (d)
Answer: (B) (a) and (c)
Explanation
Jacques Derrida and Paul de Man are central foundational theorists of literary deconstruction.

A. Jacques Derrida formulated the philosophical theory of deconstruction in works such as Of Grammatology and Writing and Difference.

C. Paul de Man was a leading figure of the Yale School of deconstruction, writing Blindness and Insight and Allegories of Reading.

B. Raymond Williams and D. Jonathan Dollimore belong to Cultural Materialism and British cultural studies.
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Question 64
In the UNESCO definition, a ‘Pamphlet’ is an unbound publication that is not a periodical and contains:
1. ANo fewer than 5 and no more than 48 pages
2. BNo fewer than 10 and no more than 68 pages
3. CNo fewer than 15 and no more than 64 pages
4. DNo fewer than 20 and no more than 80 pages
Answer: (A) No fewer than 5 and no more than 48 pages
Explanation
According to the UNESCO Recommendation Concerning the International Standardization of Statistics Relating to Book Production and Periodicals (1964):

A pamphlet is a non-periodical printed publication of at least 5 but not more than 48 pages, exclusive of the cover pages.

A book is defined as a non-periodical publication of at least 49 pages, exclusive of covers.

B, C, and D alter these official statistical page limits.
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Question 65
How Many syllables are there in the word intransigently?
1. AThree
2. BSix
3. CFive
4. DFour
Answer: (C) Five
Explanation
The word intransigently divides phonologically into five distinct syllables.

in-tran-si-gent-ly

Syllable 1: in

Syllable 2: tran

Syllable 3: si

Syllable 4: gent

Syllable 5: ly

This yields a total syllable count of five.
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Question 66
Which two names from R.M Ballantyne’s Coral Island are repeated in William Golding’s reworking of the same text as Lord of the Flice?

A. Ralph
B. Roger
C. Jack
D. Simon

The correct option is:
1. A(a) and (d)
2. B(a) and (c)
3. C(c) and (d)
4. D(b) and (d)
Answer: (B) (a) and (c)
Explanation
William Golding directly borrows the character names Ralph and Jack from R.M. Ballantyne's Victorian boys' adventure tale The Coral Island (1857).

In Ballantyne's novel, the three castaways are Ralph Rover, Jack Martin, and Peterkin Gay.

Golding retains Ralph and Jack to deliberately deconstruct Ballantyne's imperialist optimism about inherent British civil propriety.

B. Roger and D. Simon are Golding's original creations, with Simon replacing Peterkin.
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Question 67
Which one of W.M Thackeray’s novels has the following as the closing sentence? “Which of us I happy in this world? Which of us has his desire? Or having it is satisfied”?
1. AThe Luck of Barry Lyndon
2. BPendennis
3. CVanity Fair
4. DThe History of Henry Esmond
Answer: (C) Vanity Fair
Explanation
These famous words form the poignant concluding lines of William Makepeace Thackeray's Vanity Fair (1848).

Chapter 67 ends with the narrator musing on earthly vanity before closing the puppet box.

A. Barry Lyndon ends with a factual note describing Barry's death in the Fleet Prison.

B. Pendennis concludes with moral reflections on Arthur's marriage and worldly temptations.

D. Henry Esmond concludes with Henry and Rachel settling on their Virginia plantation.
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Question 68

Match the poet with the opening line of the poem.

Poet	Opening line
(a) Shelley	i. I cry your mercy- pity love! Aye, love!
(b) Coleridge	ii. The world is too much with us
(c) Keats	iii. O world, O life, O time
(d) Wordsworth	iv. When true love burns desire is Love’s pure flame

A(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
B(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
C(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
D(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

Answer: (A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Explanation

The Romantic poets match their memorable opening lines directly.

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(a) Shelley opens his lyric "A Lament" (1821) with "O world, O life, O time".
(b) Coleridge opens his poem "Desire" with "When true love burns desire is Love's pure flame".
(c) Keats begins his impassioned sonnet to Fanny Brawne with "I cry your mercy- pity love! Aye, love!".
(d) Wordsworth begins his famous sonnet with "The world is too much with us".

Question 69
Which of the following books carried the additional title Sermon on the Sea?
1. AThe Religion of Man by Tagore
2. BEssay on the Gita by Aurobindo
3. CHind Swaraj or Indian Home Rule by Gandhi
4. DChrist and Satyagraha by Elwin
Answer: (C) Hind Swaraj or Indian Home Rule by Gandhi
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi's seminal text Hind Swaraj (1909) was published under the title Sermon on the Sea in an early American edition.

Written aboard the SS Kildonan Castle during his voyage from London to South Africa, Gandhi's philosophical dialogue was published in Chicago in 1924 with an introduction by John Haynes Holmes titled Sermon on the Sea.

A. The Religion of Man (1931) contains Rabindranath Tagore's Hibbert Lectures.

B. Essays on the Gita (1922) is Sri Aurobindo's philosophical commentary.

D. Christ and Satyagraha is an essay by Verrier Elwin.
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Question 70
Which two of the following novels deal with the theme of apartheid?

A. Purple Hibiscus
B. July’s People
C. Cry, The Beloved Country
D. The Mimic Men

Choose the correct option:
1. A(a) and (c)
2. B(b) and (d)
3. C(b) and (c)
4. D(a) and (d)
Answer: (C) (b) and (c)
Explanation
July's People and Cry, The Beloved Country are renowned South African novels addressing the racial oppression and socio-political crisis of apartheid.

B. July's People (1981) by Nadine Gordimer portrays a white family dependent on their black servant July during a violent revolution overthrowing apartheid.

C. Cry, The Beloved Country (1948) by Alan Paton dramatizes racial trauma and institutional injustice in South Africa on the eve of formal apartheid.

A. Purple Hibiscus (2003) by Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie is set in post-colonial Nigeria.

D. The Mimic Men (1967) by V.S. Naipaul depicts post-colonial Caribbean displacement.
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Question 71
Which of the following descriptions delineate Roman a Clef (Novel with key)?
1. AA novel depicting the life of an artist from childhood to maturity
2. BA novel using the altered names of the actual people of the time
3. CA novel describing historical incidents with fictional characters
4. DA novel giving the effect of realism by highlighting the social problems of the time
Answer: (B) A novel using the altered names of the actual people of the time
Explanation
A roman à clef (French for novel with a key) is a work of fiction in which real people, actual contemporary scandals, and historical figures appear under disguised names.

The reader uses a metaphorical key to decipher the true identities behind the fictional persona.

A. A novel depicting an artist's development defines a Künstlerroman.

C. Historical incidents with fictional characters defines a historical novel.

D. Highlighting social problems defines a social problem or protest novel.
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Question 72
Match the theorist with the text:
Theorist Text
(a) John Fiske i. Distinction
(b) Michel de Certeau ii. The Postmodern Condition
(c) Pierre Bourdieu iii. Reading the Popular
(d) Jean Francois Lyotard iv. The Practice of Everyday Life
1. A(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
2. B(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
3. C(a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
4. D(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
Answer: (A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
Explanation
The cultural theorists and philosophers match their seminal published works directly.

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(a) John Fiske authored Reading the Popular (1989), analyzing popular culture and consumer resistance.

(b) Michel de Certeau authored The Practice of Everyday Life (1984), examining everyday tactics and consumption.

(c) Pierre Bourdieu authored Distinction (1979), analyzing taste and cultural capital.

(d) Jean-François Lyotard authored The Postmodern Condition (1979), defining postmodernism as incredulity toward metanarratives.
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Question 73
Which of the following tales in Chaucer’s Canterbury Tales deals with the murder of a child by Jews?
1. A“The Monk’s Tale”
2. B“The Second Nun’s Tale”
3. C“The Prioress’s Tale”
4. D“The Shipman’s Tale”
Answer: (C) “The Prioress’s Tale”
Explanation
In Geoffrey Chaucer's The Canterbury Tales, "The Prioress's Tale" recounts the medieval anti-Semitic miracle of the Virgin legend.

A devout Christian schoolboy is murdered and thrown into a pit for singing the hymn Alma Redemptoris Mater, but continues singing after death until a pearl placed on his tongue by the Virgin Mary is removed.

A. The Monk's Tale consists of a catalog of seventeen historical tragedies.

B. The Second Nun's Tale narrates the hagiography of Saint Cecilia.

D. The Shipman's Tale is a bawdy fabliau about a merchant, his wife, and a monk.
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Question 74
Who did the following? “Discursive practice are not purely and simply modes of manufacture of discourse. They take shape in technical ensembles, in institutions, in behavioral schemes, in types of transmission and dissemination in pedagogical forms that both impose and maintain them”
1. ARoland Barthes
2. BMichel Foucault
3. CHomi K. Bhabha
4. DGayatri Chakravorty Spivak
Answer: (B) Michel Foucault
Explanation
This statement is Michel Foucault's definition of discursive practices from The Archaeology of Knowledge and his Collège de France lectures.

Foucault emphasizes that discourse is not mere linguistic expression but an institutional apparatus rooted in material practices, architectural forms, pedagogy, and power-knowledge regimes.

A. Roland Barthes focused on structural semiology and mythologies.

C. Homi Bhabha focuses on postcolonial hybridity and mimicry.

D. Gayatri Chakravorty Spivak focuses on subalternity and deconstructive postcolonialism.
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Question 75
Which three of the following writers are associated with ‘kitchen sink drama’?

A. Arnold Wesker
B. John Arden
C. Shelagh Delaney
D. John Osborne

Choose the most appropriate option:
1. A(a), (b) and (d)
2. B(a), (b) and (c)
3. C(b), (c) and (d)
4. D(a), (c) and (d)
Answer: (D) (a), (c) and (d)
Explanation
Kitchen sink realism was an influential British theatrical movement of the late 1950s portraying working-class domestic realities.

A. Arnold Wesker wrote the Wesker Trilogy (Chicken Soup with Barley, Roots, I'm Talking About Jerusalem), exploring working-class socialist ideals.

C. Shelagh Delaney wrote A Taste of Honey (1958), capturing gritty working-class life in Salford.

D. John Osborne inaugurated the movement with Look Back in Anger (1956), creating the archetype of the angry young man Jimmy Porter.

B. John Arden wrote stylized historical and epic political allegories such as Serjeant Musgrave's Dance.
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Question 76
Which of the following combinations best describes the typical methodology of literary research?
1. ADirect, empirical and quantitative
2. BPhenomenological, speculative and abstract
3. CTextual, critical and historical
4. DSynoptic, conceptual and speculative
Answer: (C) Textual, critical and historical
Explanation
Literary research methodology fundamentally integrates close textual analysis, critical interpretation, and historical contextualization.

Textual analysis examines the primary text, variants, rhetoric, and linguistic structures.

Critical analysis applies theoretical models and evaluative frameworks to interpret meaning.

Historical inquiry reconstructs cultural, biographical, and archival contexts.

A. Quantitative and empirical belong to natural and behavioral sciences rather than humanities literary scholarship.

B and D lack the central textual and archival discipline required in literary research.
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Question 77
Following Plato, which two of the following statements about ‘Phantasm and Semblance’ are correct?

A. ‘Phantasm’ is an image, while ‘Semblance is the real object’.
B. ‘Phantasm’ is the real object while ‘Semblance is only a resemblance’.
C. ‘Phantasm’ unlike semblance has the same proportional as the object.
D. Semblance is unreal’ but looks ‘real’ as compared to phantasm.

Choose the correct option:
1. A(b) and (c)
2. B(c) and (d)
3. C(a) and (b)
4. D(d) and (a)
Answer: (B) (c) and (d)
Explanation
In Plato's dialogue Sophist, image-making divides into likeness-making (semblance) and appearance-making (phantasm).

C. ‘Phantasm’ unlike semblance has the same proportional as the object. — describes the theoretical distinction where the likeness reproduces true proportions rather than deceptive surface adjustments.

D. Semblance is unreal’ but looks ‘real’ as compared to phantasm. — reflects Plato's critique that sophistical semblance presents an illusion of reality to human perception while remaining ontologically deficient.

A and B are incorrect because neither phantasm nor semblance constitutes the real object, as both are secondary mimeses of Forms.
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Question 78
What is the order of publication of the following books of Noam Chomsky?

A. Problems of Knowledge and Freedom
B. Aspects of the Theory of Syntax
C. Syntactic Structures
D. Knowledge of Language

Choose the correct option:
1. A(d), (c), (b),(a)
2. B(b), (c), (d), (a)
3. C(c), (b), (a), (d)
4. D(a), (b), (c), (d)
Answer: (C) (c), (b), (a), (d)
Explanation
Noam Chomsky's major linguistic works appeared in an established chronological sequence across four decades.

(c), (b), (a), (d)

C. Syntactic Structures was published in 1957, introducing transformational generative grammar.

B. Aspects of the Theory of Syntax appeared in 1965, presenting the Standard Model of deep and surface structure.

A. Problems of Knowledge and Freedom was published in 1971 based on the Russell Lectures.

D. Knowledge of Language appeared in 1986, articulating the Government and Binding framework.
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Question 79
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion (A): Cultural Studies is simply the study of culture as a discrete entity divorced from its social and political context.
Reason (R): Cultural Studies aim to understand Culture in all its complex forms and to analyse the Social and Political context within which it manifests itself.

In the light of the above two statements, choose the correct option:
1. ABoth (A) and (R) are true and is the correct explanation of (A)
2. BBoth (A) and (R) true and is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. C(A) is true, but is (R) false
4. D(A) is false, but is (R) true
Answer: (D) (A) is false, but is (R) true
Explanation
Cultural Studies is premised on the fundamental principle that culture cannot be separated from societal power dynamics.

Assertion (A) is false because Cultural Studies explicitly rejects treating culture as an isolated or autonomous aesthetic realm.

Reason (R) is true because the discipline actively interrogates how cultural forms intersect with class, gender, ideology, and political institutions.

Therefore Assertion (A) is false while Reason (R) is true.
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Question 80
Which term among the following will be applicable to a situation in which a character initiates a scheme which depends for its success on the ignorance of the poem against whom it is directed?
1. AConflict
2. BIntrigue
3. CAlly
4. DFoil
Answer: (B) Intrigue
Explanation
In dramatic and narrative structure, an intrigue is a secret, calculated scheme engineered by one character that succeeds only while the intended victim remains unaware.

The success of an intrigue relies entirely on deception, dramatic irony, and concealment from the target.

A. Conflict describes the broader general tension or opposition between opposing dramatic forces.

C. Ally denotes a confederate or supportive character.

D. Foil is a character whose contrasting attributes illuminate the traits of another character.
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Question 81
Which two of the following novels belong to the Victorian Age in English Literature?

A. Pendennis
B. The Way of All Flesh
C. The Battle of the Books
D. Barchester Towers

Choose the correct option:
1. A(a) and (c)
2. B(b) and (d)
3. C(c) and (d)
4. D(a) and (d)
Answer: (D) (a) and (d)
Explanation
Pendennis and Barchester Towers are quintessential mid-Victorian novels portraying nineteenth-century English society.

A. Pendennis (1848–1850) is William Makepeace Thackeray's Victorian bildungsroman tracing Arthur Pendennis's literary career.

D. Barchester Towers (1857) is Anthony Trollope's classic Victorian ecclesiastical chronicle of clerical rivalry.

B. The Way of All Flesh by Samuel Butler was completed in the Victorian era but published posthumously in 1903 in the Edwardian period.

C. The Battle of the Books (1704) by Jonathan Swift is an eighteenth-century Augustan satire.
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Question 82
Which one of the following titles of Robert Browning’s works means to disport in the open air, to amuse oneself at random?
1. AJocoseria
2. B“Andrea del Sarto”
3. C“Abt Voglet”
4. DAsolando
Answer: (D) Asolando
Explanation
Robert Browning derived the title of his final volume Asolando (1889) from the Italian verb asolare.

Browning explains in his prefatory dedication that the verb means to disport in the open air and amuse oneself at random, a word associated with the town of Asolo.

A. Jocoseria (1883) combines Latin words for jest and seriousness.

B. Andrea del Sarto (1855) is a dramatic monologue based on the Renaissance painter.

C. Abt Vogler (1864) portrays the eighteenth-century German organist-composer.
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Question 83
Match the characters with the play:
Character Play
(a) Donalbain i. King Lear
(b) Claudio ii. Macbeth
(c) Nerissa iii. Merchant of Venice
(d) Goneril iv. Measure for Measure
1. A(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
2. B(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
3. C(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
4. D(a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Answer: (B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
Explanation
The Shakespearean dramatic characters match their respective plays directly.

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(a) Donalbain is King Duncan's younger son in Macbeth.

(b) Claudio is sentenced to death for premarital fornication in Measure for Measure.

(c) Nerissa is Portia's loyal waiting-gentlewoman in The Merchant of Venice.

(d) Goneril is the treacherous eldest daughter in King Lear.
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Question 84
Which of the following is the proper explanation of the concept of “Freytag’s Pyramid”?
1. AAnalysis of the plot of a drama
2. BAnalysis of the characters of a drama
3. CAnalysis of the theme of conflict between a woman and two men in drama
4. DAnalysis of the different types of drama
Answer: (A) Analysis of the plot of a drama
Explanation
Gustav Freytag formulated Freytag's Pyramid in Die Technik des Dramas (1863) to map the narrative plot structure of dramatic tragedy.

The pyramid models five distinct plot stages: exposition, rising movement, climax, falling action, and catastrophe.

B, C, and D misrepresent the diagram as a character analysis, a specific romantic conflict theme, or a generic categorization of dramatic genres.
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Question 85
Which of the following movements was Arthur Symons was referring to as ‘an interesting disease’ and ‘an over subtilizing refinement upon refinement’?
1. ACeltic Revival
2. BRomantic Movement
3. CDecadence
4. DFeminism
Answer: (C) Decadence
Explanation
Arthur Symons characterized the Decadent Movement with these phrases in his influential 1893 essay "The Decadent Movement in Literature".

Symons described Decadence as a fascinating modern literary condition marked by extreme stylistic refinement, nervous sensitivity, and spiritual perversity.

A. Celtic Revival celebrated Irish folk mythology and native traditions.

B. Romantic Movement emphasized nature, sublime imagination, and emotional spontaneity.

D. Feminism advocated socio-political and economic equality for women.
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Question 86
Who among the following theorists believes that the proliferation of television images is producing a cultural condition a kin to ‘historical amnesia’?
1. AJean Baudrillard
2. BIhab Hassan
3. CFrederic Jameson
4. DDaniel Bell
Answer: (C) Frederic Jameson
Explanation
Fredric Jameson identified historical amnesia as a defining pathology of late capitalist culture in Postmodernism, or, The Cultural Logic of Late Capitalism (1991).

Jameson contends that the saturation of electronic media and pastiche severs the present from historical depth, eroding genuine collective memory.

A. Jean Baudrillard is known for theories of simulacra, simulation, and hyperreality.

B. Ihab Hassan developed tables of dichotomy contrasting modernism and postmodernism.

D. Daniel Bell analyzed post-industrial society and cultural contradictions of capitalism.
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Question 87
Which of the following plays by Ben Jonson ends with the performance of a puppet play in imitation of Marlowe’s Hero and Leander?
1. AThe Alchemist
2. BVolpone
3. CBartholomew Fair
4. DEvery Man in His Humour
Answer: (C) Bartholomew Fair
Explanation
Ben Jonson's carnivalesque comedy Bartholomew Fair (1614) climaxes in Act V with Lantern Leatherhead's farcical puppet show.

The show presents a vulgarized parody of Christopher Marlowe's Hero and Leander, during which the puppet famously debates and confounds the zealous Puritan Zeal-of-the-Land Busy.

A. The Alchemist concludes with Face surrendering his swindles to his returned master Lovewit.

B. Volpone ends with severe judicial punishments meted out to Volpone and Mosca.

D. Every Man in His Humour culminates in reconciliation supervised by Justice Clement.
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Question 88
Which two of the following plays were written by Thomas Heywood?

A. Gorboduc
B. The Play called the Four P.P
C. The Play of the Weather
D. The Spanish Tragedy

Choose the correct option:
1. A(a) and (b)
2. B(a) and (c)
3. C(b) and (c)
4. D(c) and (d)
Answer: (C) (b) and (c)
Explanation
The Four PP and The Play of the Weather are Tudor interludes written by the dramatist Heywood.

The exam question attributes them under Thomas Heywood, though historically they were authored by the earlier Tudor dramatist John Heywood (c. 1497–1580).

B. The Play called the Four PP is an interlude debating whether the Palmer, Pardoner, Pothecary, or Peddler tells the greatest lie.

C. The Play of the Weather is an interlude where Jupiter hears petitions regarding the weather.

A. Gorboduc was written by Thomas Norton and Thomas Sackville.

D. The Spanish Tragedy was written by Thomas Kyd.
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Question 89
Which of the following is true of Aristotle’s Critical Position?
1. AWriters are likely to be mere entertainers who appeal to the emotions and passions of the audience.
2. BTexts created by poets are almost inevitably inaccurate and defective as imitations
3. CThe best artitistic texts will be both complex and unified: every part of the work will be essential to it and will be linked to every other part.
4. DTexts should be judged on the basis of how accurately they imitate philosophical truth.
Answer: (C) The best artitistic texts will be both complex and unified: every part of the work will be essential to it and will be linked to every other part.
Explanation
In Chapter 8 of the Poetics, Aristotle articulates the foundational aesthetic principle of organic dramatic unity.

Aristotle insists that a well-crafted plot must imitate a single whole action where no part can be detached without dislocating the entire structure.

A, B, and D reflect Platonic objections that poetry is an inaccurate copy of truth and morally suspect because it stirs irrational passions.
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Question 90
In the following list, which two journals relate to the field of post-colonial literature?

A. Kunapipi
B. Interventions
C. Daedalus
D. Clio

Choose the correct option:
1. A(a) and (c)
2. B(b) and (c)
3. C(c) and (d)
4. D(a) and (b)
Answer: (D) (a) and (b)
Explanation
Kunapipi and Interventions are prominent international academic journals dedicated specifically to postcolonial literary studies.

A. Kunapipi was established in 1979 by Anna Rutherford as a journal of postcolonial and Commonwealth writing.

B. Interventions is an international journal devoted to postcolonial studies and decolonial theory.

C. Daedalus is the general multidisciplinary journal of the American Academy of Arts and Sciences.

D. Clio is an academic journal of literature, history, and the philosophy of history.
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Question 91
Why is the ‘home’ ‘Sad’?
Read the following poem and answer the questions:

HOME IS SO SAD
Home is so sad. It stays as it was left,
Shaped to the comfort of the last to go
As if to win them back. Instead, bereft
of anyone to please, it withers so,
having no heart to put aside the theft.
And turn again to what is started as,
a joyous shot at how things ought to be,
Long fallen wide. You can see how it was:
Look at the pictures and the cutlery.
The music in the piano stool. That vase.
1. ABecause it has waited in vain
2. BBecause its joy has faded
3. CBecause it remains unchanged
4. DBecause it is devoid of resident
Answer: (A) Because it has waited in vain
Explanation
In Philip Larkin's poem "Home Is So Sad", the house is personified as an expectant entity that has waited in vain for its former inhabitants to return.

Larkin writes that the house remains arranged to the comfort of the last to leave as if to win them back, turning its unfulfilled waiting into sorrow.

B, C, and D describe consequences of departure, but the poem locates its poignant sadness in its futile yearning to welcome them back.
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Question 92
There is a ‘thief’ in the poem. Who is that ‘thief’?
Read the following poem and answer the questions:

HOME IS SO SAD
Home is so sad. It stays as it was left,
Shaped to the comfort of the last to go
As if to win them back. Instead, bereft
of anyone to please, it withers so,
having no heart to put aside the theft.
And turn again to what is started as,
a joyous shot at how things ought to be,
Long fallen wide. You can see how it was:
Look at the pictures and the cutlery.
The music in the piano stool. That vase.
1. AThe time that ticks away
2. BThe fate that overpowers
3. CThe tenant who leaves
4. DThe past that beckons
Answer: (C) The tenant who leaves
Explanation
In "Home Is So Sad", the metaphorical theft is committed by the departing tenant who leaves the house bereft of life.

The house is left bereft of anyone to please and has no heart to put aside the theft, identifying the departure of its occupants as a robbery of its purpose.

A, B, and D are abstract temporal forces, whereas Larkin roots the immediate betrayal in the physical desertion of the residents.
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Question 93
Why has the ‘home’ ‘withered’?
Read the following poem and answer the questions:

HOME IS SO SAD
Home is so sad. It stays as it was left,
Shaped to the comfort of the last to go
As if to win them back. Instead, bereft
of anyone to please, it withers so,
having no heart to put aside the theft.
And turn again to what is started as,
a joyous shot at how things ought to be,
Long fallen wide. You can see how it was:
Look at the pictures and the cutlery.
The music in the piano stool. That vase.
1. ABecause everything has to fade sooner or later
2. BBecause it has no longer the reason to be what it was
3. CBecause it is an organic entity in any case
4. DBecause it has been betrayed categorically
Answer: (B) Because it has no longer the reason to be what it was
Explanation
The home withers because its domestic raison d'être has vanished following the departure of its residents.

Having no one left to comfort or please, the empty domestic setting loses the purpose that originally animated its existence.

A. Everything has to fade is a generalized cliché rather than the specific cause established in the verse.

C. An organic entity is a literal physical impossibility for an inanimate building.

D. Betrayed categorically overstates the personification with melodramatic terminology.
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Question 94
How was the home before it became ‘sad’?
Read the following poem and answer the questions:

HOME IS SO SAD
Home is so sad. It stays as it was left,
Shaped to the comfort of the last to go
As if to win them back. Instead, bereft
of anyone to please, it withers so,
having no heart to put aside the theft.
And turn again to what is started as,
a joyous shot at how things ought to be,
Long fallen wide. You can see how it was:
Look at the pictures and the cutlery.
The music in the piano stool. That vase.
1. AIt was as it would be
2. BIt was as it shall be
3. CIt was as it should be
4. DIt was as it could be
Answer: (C) It was as it should be
Explanation
The poem describes the home's origin as a joyous shot at how things ought to be.

The phrase "ought to be" aligns directly with moral and domestic ideals of how a life should be.

A, B, and D alter the normative modal verb used in Larkin's verse.
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Question 95
‘Lying’ is a fault that should be punished only
Read the following passage and answer the questions:

Lying is an accursed vice. It is only our words which bind us together and make us human. If we realized the horror and weight of lying, we would see that it is more worthy of the stake than other crimes. I find that people normally waste time quite inappropriately punishing children for innocent misdemeanors formenting them for thoughtless actions which lead nowhere and leave no trace. It seems to me that the only faults which we should vigorously attack as soon as they arise and start to develop are lying and little below that, stubbornness. Those faults grow up with the children. Once let the tongue acquire the habit of lying and it is astonishing how impossible it is to make it give it up. That is why some otherwise decent men are object slaven to it. One of my tailors is a good enough fellow, but I have never heard him once speak the truth, not even when it would help him, if he did so.
1. AWhen the first lie is uttered
2. BWhen it becomes convenient
3. CWhen it becomes stubborn
4. DWhen it begins to turn into a habit
Answer: (D) When it begins to turn into a habit
Explanation
Montaigne asserts that educators and parents should vigorously combat lying when it begins to turn into an ingrained habit.

The passage warns that once the tongue acquires the habit of lying, it becomes nearly impossible to eradicate.

A. When the first lie is uttered is not asserted, as the author contrasts forgivable innocent misdemeanors with developing habits.

B and C contradict the author's emphasis on attacking the formative consolidation of the vice.
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Question 96
It is suggested in the passage that the tailor does never speak the truth because
Read the following passage and answer the questions:

Lying is an accursed vice. It is only our words which bind us together and make us human. If we realized the horror and weight of lying, we would see that it is more worthy of the stake than other crimes. I find that people normally waste time quite inappropriately punishing children for innocent misdemeanors formenting them for thoughtless actions which lead nowhere and leave no trace. It seems to me that the only faults which we should vigorously attack as soon as they arise and start to develop are lying and little below that, stubbornness. Those faults grow up with the children. Once let the tongue acquire the habit of lying and it is astonishing how impossible it is to make it give it up. That is why some otherwise decent men are object slaven to it. One of my tailors is a good enough fellow, but I have never heard him once speak the truth, not even when it would help him, if he did so.
1. AHe cannot keep the word he gives
2. BHe does not know lying is a crime
3. CHe thinks lying will help him.
4. DHe is a slave of his profession
Answer: (A) He cannot keep the word he gives
Explanation
The author introduces the tailor as an example of a habitual liar who cannot keep his promises or word.

The passage notes that the tailor fails to speak the truth even when honesty would benefit him, proving an inability to maintain fidelity to his spoken word.

B. Does not know lying is a crime is not suggested, as the tailor is described as otherwise a decent fellow.

C. Thinks lying will help him is refuted by the text, which notes he lies even when truth would help him.

D. Slave of his profession misinterprets the phrase object slaven to the habit of lying.
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Question 97
According to the author “thoughtless actions”
Read the following passage and answer the questions:

Lying is an accursed vice. It is only our words which bind us together and make us human. If we realized the horror and weight of lying, we would see that it is more worthy of the stake than other crimes. I find that people normally waste time quite inappropriately punishing children for innocent misdemeanors formenting them for thoughtless actions which lead nowhere and leave no trace. It seems to me that the only faults which we should vigorously attack as soon as they arise and start to develop are lying and little below that, stubbornness. Those faults grow up with the children. Once let the tongue acquire the habit of lying and it is astonishing how impossible it is to make it give it up. That is why some otherwise decent men are object slaven to it. One of my tailors is a good enough fellow, but I have never heard him once speak the truth, not even when it would help him, if he did so.
1. ATorment others
2. BAre strictly not misdemeanors
3. CMean nothing and are soon forgotten
4. DAre punishment for children
Answer: (C) Mean nothing and are soon forgotten
Explanation
The passage describes thoughtless actions in children as innocent misdemeanors that lead nowhere and leave no trace.

Because these minor childhood actions leave no lasting negative consequences, they mean nothing and are quickly forgotten.

A. Torment others contradicts the author's characterization of them as innocent.

B. Are strictly not misdemeanors contradicts the text, which explicitly terms them innocent misdemeanors.

D. Are punishment for children reverses the grammatical subject and action.
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Question 98
How does ‘lying’ affect human relationships?
Read the following passage and answer the questions:

Lying is an accursed vice. It is only our words which bind us together and make us human. If we realized the horror and weight of lying, we would see that it is more worthy of the stake than other crimes. I find that people normally waste time quite inappropriately punishing children for innocent misdemeanors formenting them for thoughtless actions which lead nowhere and leave no trace. It seems to me that the only faults which we should vigorously attack as soon as they arise and start to develop are lying and little below that, stubbornness. Those faults grow up with the children. Once let the tongue acquire the habit of lying and it is astonishing how impossible it is to make it give it up. That is why some otherwise decent men are object slaven to it. One of my tailors is a good enough fellow, but I have never heard him once speak the truth, not even when it would help him, if he did so.
1. AIt makes the relationships ‘human’
2. BIt reduces the affinity among people
3. CIt promotes togetherness among diverse people
4. DIt does not affect at all as it is merely words
Answer: (B) It reduces the affinity among people
Explanation
The author establishes that honest speech is the sole bond that holds human society together.

Because words bind people together, deceitful speech dissolves social trust and reduces affinity among human beings.

A and C represent positive qualities that the author attributes to truthful words, not to lying.

D. Does not affect at all directly contradicts the author's claim that lying is more worthy of the stake than other crimes.
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Question 99
Read the passage from Antigone and answer the question:

Creon: And yet wert bold enough to break the law
Antigone: Yea, for these laws were not ordained by Zeus. And she who sits enthroned with gods below,
Justice enacted not these human laws. Nor did I deem that thou, a mortal man, Could’st by a breath annual and override.
The immutable unwritten laws of Heaven

The three kinds of laws implicit in Antigone’s response are:
1. AHuman, unwritten, written
2. BOf Gods, of Zeus, of Justice
3. COf Gods, of Justice, of Man
4. DOf Man, of Heaven, Of Zeus
Answer: (C) Of Gods, of Justice, of Man
Explanation
Antigone's speech delineates a tripartite hierarchy of legal authorities.

She invokes the immutable unwritten laws of Heaven and the Olympian gods (Laws of Gods).

She references the chthonic justice that sits enthroned with the gods below (Laws of Justice).

She contrasts these divine mandates with mortal decrees promulgated by Creon (Laws of Man).

A, B, and D fail to capture this complete threefold division among Olympian divine law, underworld justice, and human political law.
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Question 100
Read the passage and answer the question:

It was the best of times, it was the worst of times, it was the age of wisdom, it was the age of foolishness, it was the epoch of belief, it was the epoch of incredibility, it was the season of light, it was the season of Darkness, it was the spring of hope, it was the winter of despair, we had everything before us, we had nothing before us, we were all going direct to heaven, we were all going direct the other way- in short, the period was far like the present period, that some of its noisiest authorities insisted on its being received, for good or for evil, in the superlative degree of comparison only.

The Age described in the passage is best described as the Age of:
1. AParallelisms
2. BInconsistencies
3. CContraries
4. DAnomalie
Answer: (C) Contraries
Explanation
The famous opening of Charles Dickens's A Tale of Two Cities depicts the era of the French Revolution through a sequence of antitheses or contraries.

Dickens balances best of times against worst of times, wisdom against foolishness, belief against incredulity, and light against darkness.

While parallelism is the rhetorical device used, the thematic condition of the historical period is defined by these stark, conflicting contraries.

B. Inconsistencies and D. Anomalie do not capture the balanced polarity of the era.
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Paper 1 had 50 questions and Paper 2 (English Literature) had 100 questions, for 150 in total across 3 hours.

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No. Each correct answer earns 2 marks and there is no penalty for a wrong answer, so leaving a question blank is never better than attempting it.

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Answers follow the official NTA answer key for this session. If you spot a discrepancy, use the report option inside the practice test and we will review it.

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More English Literature practice

All 2019 sessions All English Literature PYQs English Literature topic-wise practice Paper 1 topic-wise practice

Practice Paper 1 from other subjects

Every subject's exam sitting has its own Paper 1 (General Aptitude) set — more real PYQs to solve.

Paper 1 · Economics sittings Paper 1 · Computer Science & Applications sittings Paper 1 · Management sittings Paper 1 · Commerce sittings

Year	Amount of exports (in crore Rs.) - A	B	C
2012	40	90	70
2013	70	50	100
2014	50	70	130
2015	80	70	100
2016	110	90	70
2017	60	110	90
2018	130	150	110

Author	Work
(a) Homi bhabha	i. Saving the text
(b) Georey Hartman	ii. The location of culture
(c) Edward said	iii. Desire in language
(d) Julia Kristeva	iv. Culture and imperialism

Periodical	Writer/Contributor
(a) The Rambler	i. Charles Dickens
(b) Macmillan’s Magazine	ii. Samuel Johnson
(c) The guardian	iii. David Masson
(d) Bentley’s Miscellany	iv. Richard Steele

Work	Author
(a) Bodies that matter	i. Camille paglia
(b) A world of difference	ii. Elaine showalter
(c) A literature of their own	iii. Barbara Johnson
(d) Vamps and tamps	iv. Judith butler

Technological advancement	Year
(a) Hypertext markup language (HTML)	i. 2004
(b) Streaming of video on the internet	ii. 2003
(c) Myspace.com	iii. 1991
(d) Facebook	iv. 1997

Author	Text
(a) Rita Kothari	i. The Queen’s Hinglish
(b) Probal Dasgupta	ii. The Indianization Of English
(c) Braj B. Kachru	iii. Translating India
(d) Baljinder K. Mahal	iv. The Otherness Of English

Theorist	Text
(a) John Fiske	i. Distinction
(b) Michel de Certeau	ii. The Postmodern Condition
(c) Pierre Bourdieu	iii. Reading the Popular
(d) Jean Francois Lyotard	iv. The Practice of Everyday Life

Character	Play
(a) Donalbain	i. King Lear
(b) Claudio	ii. Macbeth
(c) Nerissa	iii. Merchant of Venice
(d) Goneril	iv. Measure for Measure

UGC NET English Literature December 2019 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

UGC NET December 2019 at a glance

General Aptitude

English Literature

Paper 1 — General Aptitude

Question 1

Question 2

Question 3

Question 4

Question 5

Question 6

Question 7

Question 8

Question 9

Question 10

Question 11

Question 12

Question 13

Question 14

Question 15

Question 16

Question 17

Question 18

Question 19

Question 20

Question 21

Question 22

Question 23

Question 24

Question 25

Question 26

Year-wise amount of Exports from companies

Question 27

Year-wise amount of Exports from companies

Question 28

Year-wise amount of Exports from companies

Question 29

Year-wise amount of Exports from companies

Question 30

Year-wise amount of Exports from companies

Question 31

Question 32

Question 33

Question 34

Question 35

Question 36

Question 37

Question 38

Question 39

Question 40

Question 41

Question 42

Question 43

Question 44

Question 45

Question 46

Question 47

Question 48

Question 49

Question 50

Paper 2 — English Literature

Question 1

Question 2

Question 3

Question 4

Question 5

Question 6

Question 7

Question 8

Question 9

Question 10

Question 11

Question 12

Question 13

Question 14

Question 15

Question 16

Question 17

Question 18

Question 19