UGC NET English Literature October 2020 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   Using the table above, find the difference between the total number of students who appeared in the exam and the total number of students who passed in the exam from Zone K in all the six years taken together.

   Year	K Appeared	K Passed	L Appeared	L Passed	M Appeared	M Passed	N Appeared	N Passed
   2014	782	360	612	310	720	410	1020	802
   2015	804	472	608	324	728	480	1135	840
   2016	720	448	636	298	680	390	1084	864
   2017	750	360	655	305	695	396	1096	766
   2018	824	504	640	346	712	424	1180	752
   2019	850	496	600	315	740	464	1165	780

   Students appeared and passed by zone from 2014 to 2019.

   1. A2060
   2. B2070
   3. C2080
   4. D2090

   Answer: (D) 2090

   Explanation

   For Zone K, total appeared = 782 + 804 + 720 + 750 + 824 + 850 = 4730; total passed = 360 + 472 + 448 + 360 + 504 + 496 = 2640. The difference is 4730 - 2640 = 2090.

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2. Question 2

   Using the table above, what is the average number of students who passed in the exam from all the four zones in the year 2015?

   Year	K Appeared	K Passed	L Appeared	L Passed	M Appeared	M Passed	N Appeared	N Passed
   2014	782	360	612	310	720	410	1020	802
   2015	804	472	608	324	728	480	1135	840
   2016	720	448	636	298	680	390	1084	864
   2017	750	360	655	305	695	396	1096	766
   2018	824	504	640	346	712	424	1180	752
   2019	850	496	600	315	740	464	1165	780

   Students appeared and passed by zone from 2014 to 2019.

   1. A528
   2. B529
   3. C530
   4. D531

   Answer: (B) 529

   Explanation

   In 2015, passed students were: K = 472, L = 324, M = 480, and N = 840. Their average is (472 + 324 + 480 + 840) / 4 = 2116 / 4 = 529.

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3. Question 3

   Using the table above, for which zone is the percentage of students who passed out of the total who appeared in the examination minimum in the year 2019?

   Year	K Appeared	K Passed	L Appeared	L Passed	M Appeared	M Passed	N Appeared	N Passed
   2014	782	360	612	310	720	410	1020	802
   2015	804	472	608	324	728	480	1135	840
   2016	720	448	636	298	680	390	1084	864
   2017	750	360	655	305	695	396	1096	766
   2018	824	504	640	346	712	424	1180	752
   2019	850	496	600	315	740	464	1165	780

   Students appeared and passed by zone from 2014 to 2019.

   1. AK
   2. BL
   3. CM
   4. DN

   Answer: (B) L

   Explanation

   For 2019: K = 496/850 ≈ 58.35%, L = 315/600 = 52.5%, M = 464/740 ≈ 62.70%, and N = 780/1165 ≈ 66.95%. The minimum percentage is for Zone L.

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4. Question 4

   Using the table above, what is the ratio of the number of students who passed from Zone K in the year 2017 compared to that in 2018?

   Year	K Appeared	K Passed	L Appeared	L Passed	M Appeared	M Passed	N Appeared	N Passed
   2014	782	360	612	310	720	410	1020	802
   2015	804	472	608	324	728	480	1135	840
   2016	720	448	636	298	680	390	1084	864
   2017	750	360	655	305	695	396	1096	766
   2018	824	504	640	346	712	424	1180	752
   2019	850	496	600	315	740	464	1165	780

   Students appeared and passed by zone from 2014 to 2019.

   1. A7:5
   2. B3:5
   3. C5:7
   4. D5:3

   Answer: (C) 5:7

   Explanation

   For Zone K, passed students were 360 in 2017 and 504 in 2018. The ratio 360:504 reduces by dividing by 72, giving 5:7.

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5. Question 5

   Using the table above, the total number of students who passed from Zone M in all the six years taken together is approximately what percentage of the total number of students who appeared from Zone M in all the six years taken together?

   Year	K Appeared	K Passed	L Appeared	L Passed	M Appeared	M Passed	N Appeared	N Passed
   2014	782	360	612	310	720	410	1020	802
   2015	804	472	608	324	728	480	1135	840
   2016	720	448	636	298	680	390	1084	864
   2017	750	360	655	305	695	396	1096	766
   2018	824	504	640	346	712	424	1180	752
   2019	850	496	600	315	740	464	1165	780

   Students appeared and passed by zone from 2014 to 2019.

   1. A56%
   2. B58%
   3. C60%
   4. D64%

   Answer: (C) 60%

   Explanation

   For Zone M, total passed = 410 + 480 + 390 + 396 + 424 + 464 = 2564; total appeared = 720 + 728 + 680 + 695 + 712 + 740 = 4275. Percentage = (2564 / 4275) × 100 ≈ 59.98%, which is approximately 60%.

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6. Question 6

   Identify those teaching strategies which are learner-centred.

   A. Cooperative learning
   B. Team teaching
   C. Laboratory based projects
   D. Pair-share discussions
   E. Lecturing with PowerPoint presentations

   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. AA, B and C only
   2. BB, C and D only
   3. CA, C and D only
   4. DC, D and E only

   Answer: (C) A, C and D only

   Explanation

   Cooperative learning, laboratory based projects, and pair-share discussions actively involve learners in constructing and sharing understanding. Team teaching and lecturing with PowerPoint presentations are more teacher-directed strategies.

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7. Question 7

   Reflective level teaching is different from memory level teaching because the pattern of communication that is involved in reflective level teaching is basically:

   1. ALinear
   2. BBottom-up
   3. CInteractional
   4. DTransactional

   Answer: (D) Transactional

   Explanation

   Reflective level teaching is problem-centred and involves reciprocal, meaning-making communication among teacher, learner, and learning situation. This is best described as transactional communication, unlike the more one-way pattern associated with memory-level teaching.

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8. Question 8

   From the following, identify those features which are associated with Indirect Instructional Strategies.

   A. Guided student practice
   B. Focus on concept acquisition through question-answer sessions
   C. Presenting the stimulus material in small, easy to take steps
   D. Problem based presentation
   E. Participatory and collaborative moves stressed

   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. AB, D and E only
   2. BA, B and C only
   3. CB, C and D only
   4. DC, D and E only

   Answer: (A) B, D and E only

   Explanation

   Indirect instructional strategies emphasize inquiry, concept formation, problem-based learning, and learner participation. Guided practice and small-step presentation are typical of direct instruction, so B, D and E are the correct features.

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9. Question 9

   Which one of the following assessment procedures is conducted during an in-progress teaching-learning session?

   1. ASummative
   2. BFormative
   3. CNorm-referenced
   4. DCriterion-referenced

   Answer: (B) Formative

   Explanation

   Formative assessment is conducted during instruction to monitor learning and improve teaching-learning processes. Summative assessment is usually conducted after instruction, while norm-referenced and criterion-referenced describe comparison standards rather than timing.

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10. Question 10

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: The use of ICT in organizing teaching-learning programmes in the universities has the potential to optimise learning outcomes.

    Statement II: Formative assessment provides support to enhancing the quality of teaching-learning sessions.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    Explanation

    Statement I is correct because ICT can improve access, interaction, feedback, and learning resources. Statement II is also correct because formative assessment provides ongoing evidence for improving both teaching and learning.

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11. Question 11

    Identify sampling procedures in which units are chosen giving an equal and independent chance.

    A. Quota sampling procedure
    B. Stratified sampling procedure
    C. Dimensional sampling procedure
    D. Random sampling procedure
    E. Systematic sampling procedure

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DB, D and E only

    Answer: (D) B, D and E only

    Explanation

    The procedures listed as stratified, random, and systematic sampling are probability sampling procedures, unlike quota and dimensional sampling. Probability sampling gives units a known chance of selection, so the intended answer is B, D and E only.

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12. Question 12

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Qualitative research paradigm emphasizes participant perspectives and uses an empirico-inductive approach.

    Statement II: In the same research project, it is neither possible nor desirable to use both qualitative and quantitative research paradigms.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

    Statement I correctly describes qualitative research as participant-centred and inductive. Statement II is incorrect because mixed-methods research can combine qualitative and quantitative paradigms in the same project when the design justifies it.

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13. Question 13

    The research method which focuses on establishing causal relationships with controls among variables - independent, moderator and dependent - is called:

    1. AEx post facto method
    2. BSurvey method
    3. CCase study method
    4. DExperimental method

    Answer: (D) Experimental method

    Explanation

    The experimental method studies causal relationships by manipulating or controlling variables. Ex post facto research studies causes after events have occurred, surveys describe populations, and case studies examine bounded cases in depth.

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14. Question 14

    What are the characteristic features of the Quantitative Research paradigm?

    A. It is hypothetico-deductive
    B. It is focused on natural settings
    C. It lays stress on generalizations to the population characteristics
    D. It emphasizes numeric data from a large number of people
    E. It says that the literature review plays a minor role but justify the problem

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C and D only
    2. BA, B and C only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (A) A, C and D only

    Explanation

    Quantitative research is typically hypothetico-deductive, uses numerical data, and aims at generalization to a population. Natural settings and a minor role for literature review are more closely associated with qualitative orientations, not quantitative research.

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15. Question 15

    What is the usual sequence of steps in the scientific method?

    A. Hypothesis making by identifying the variables
    B. Felt need which is creating the problem
    C. Identifying the difficulty and problem statement formulation
    D. Data analysis and interpretation
    E. Collection of data using appropriate research tools

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C, B, D, E
    2. BB, C, A, E, D
    3. CC, D, E, B, A
    4. DB, A, C, E, D

    Answer: (B) B, C, A, E, D

    Explanation

    The usual scientific-method sequence begins with a felt need or problem, then formulation of the problem, hypothesis formation, collection of data, and finally analysis and interpretation. Thus the correct order is B, C, A, E, D.

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16. Question 16

    In communication, interpretation of the message depends upon:

    1. AThe context
    2. BTransmission speed
    3. CAssociated noise
    4. DChannel efficiency

    Answer: (A) The context

    Explanation

    A message is interpreted according to its context, including the situation, relationship, culture, and purpose of communication. Transmission speed, noise, and channel efficiency affect delivery, but context most directly governs meaning.

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17. Question 17

    Which of the following factors are important in communication?

    A. Slang
    B. Cynical attitude
    C. Framing
    D. Priming
    E. Immediacy

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CA, D and E only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (D) C, D and E only

    Explanation

    Framing, priming, and immediacy are recognized communication factors. Slang and cynical attitude can influence communication, but in this item they function more as barriers or distortions rather than the intended key factors.

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18. Question 18

    The sequence of cultural institutions in communication is:

    A. Family
    B. School
    C. Religion
    D. Mass media

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C, D
    2. BB, C, D, A
    3. CC, D, A, B
    4. DD, A, B, C

    Answer: (A) A, B, C, D

    Explanation

    In socialization and communication, the usual sequence begins with family, followed by school, then wider institutions such as religion and mass media. Hence the correct order is A, B, C, D.

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19. Question 19

    Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

    Assertion A: Giving orders to students in the classroom is a specific form of communication.

    Reason R: The manner of orders depends upon the cultural background of the students involved.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false
    4. DA is false but R is true

    Answer: (B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    Giving orders in a classroom is indeed a form of communication, and the manner in which orders are given can be shaped by cultural background. However, cultural background does not explain why giving orders is a specific form of communication, so R is not the correct explanation of A.

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20. Question 20

    Match List I with List II using the table above.

    List I: Type of communication	List II: Examples
    A. Meaningless sound and words	I. Polysemy
    B. Traffic light signals	II. Dyadic communication
    C. Words that have different meanings	III. Paralinguistic
    D. Two persons exchanging greetings	IV. Non-verbal communication

    Communication types and examples.

    1. AA - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
    2. BA - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
    3. CA - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
    4. DA - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

    Answer: (C) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

    Explanation

    Meaningless sounds and words are linked with paralinguistic communication; traffic light signals are non-verbal communication; words with different meanings show polysemy; and two persons exchanging greetings is dyadic communication. Therefore the mapping is A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.

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21. Question 21

    The product of the ages of Sagun and Srishti is 240. If twice the age of Srishti is more than Sagun's age by 4 years, then what is Srishti's age?

    1. A15
    2. B12
    3. C10
    4. D20

    Answer: (B) 12

    Explanation

    Let Srishti's age be x and Sagun's age be y. Then xy = 240 and 2x = y + 4, so y = 2x - 4. Thus x(2x - 4) = 240, giving x^2 - 2x - 120 = 0. The positive root is x = 12.

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22. Question 22

    Complete the following series:

    9, 11, 15, 23, 39, ?

    1. A71
    2. B65
    3. C44
    4. D68

    Answer: (A) 71

    Explanation

    The differences are +2, +4, +8, +16, which double each time. The next difference is +32, so the missing term is 39 + 32 = 71.

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23. Question 23

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Sum of the angles of a triangle is 180°.

    Statement II: The sum of any two sides of a triangle is greater than the third side.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    Explanation

    In Euclidean geometry, the angles of a triangle sum to 180°, and the triangle inequality says the sum of any two sides must be greater than the third side. Both statements are true.

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24. Question 24

    Consider the following three sets of numbers:

    A. 2, 5, 9
    B. 1, 6, 10
    C. 3, 4, 8

    Which of the following represents the correct ascending order of the averages of three sets A, B and C?

    1. AC < A < B
    2. BB < C < A
    3. CB < A < C
    4. DC < B < A

    Answer: (A) C < A < B

    Explanation

    Average of A = (2 + 5 + 9)/3 = 16/3 ≈ 5.33; average of B = (1 + 6 + 10)/3 = 17/3 ≈ 5.67; average of C = (3 + 4 + 8)/3 = 5. Therefore the ascending order is C < A < B.

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25. Question 25

    If 30% of A = 0.25 of B = 1/5 of C, then which of the following is true about A:B:C?

    1. A10:11:12
    2. B10:15:12
    3. C10:12:15
    4. D10:11:15

    Answer: (C) 10:12:15

    Explanation

    Let the common value be k. Then 0.30A = k, so A = 10k/3; 0.25B = k, so B = 4k; and C/5 = k, so C = 5k. Multiplying 10/3 : 4 : 5 by 3 gives 10:12:15.

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26. Question 26

    A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle and looking at the centre. Only D is between A and B. Only F is between A and C. E is just left of B. Who is the only one standing between E and F?

    1. AA
    2. BB
    3. CD
    4. DC

    Answer: (D) C

    Explanation

    Arranging the people around the circle to satisfy the conditions gives a sequence equivalent to A-D-B-E-C-F around the circle. In that arrangement, the only person between E and F is C.

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27. Question 27

    All things which have smoke have fire; this hill has smoke; therefore, the hill has smoke. Also, no non-fiery things have smoke; this hill has smoke; therefore, this hill is not non-fiery.

    The above is an example of which type of inference in Indian logic?

    1. APurvavat
    2. BAnvayavyatireki
    3. CKevalanvayi
    4. DKevalavyatireki

    Answer: (B) Anvayavyatireki

    Explanation

    The example uses both positive concomitance, where smoke is associated with fire, and negative concomitance, where absence of fire excludes smoke. In Indian logic, inference based on both agreement and difference is Anvayavyatireki.

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28. Question 28

    Asiddha is a fallacy when the middle term is:

    1. AUnproved
    2. BToo wide
    3. CToo narrow
    4. DNon-exclusive

    Answer: (A) Unproved

    Explanation

    In Indian logic, asiddha hetvabhasa occurs when the middle term or reason is not established in the subject. Therefore, the middle term is unproved.

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29. Question 29

    Match List I with List II using the table above.

    List I: Pairs	List II: Pairs of analogies
    A. Assign : Allot	I. Code : Password
    B. Length : Meter	II. Clerk : Office
    C. Doctor : Hospital	III. Mend : Repair
    D. Lock : Key	IV. Mass : Kilogram

    Pairs and corresponding analogy pairs.

    1. AA - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
    2. BA - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
    3. CA - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
    4. DA - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

    Answer: (A) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

    Explanation

    Assign : Allot and Mend : Repair are synonym pairs. Length : Meter and Mass : Kilogram are quantity-unit pairs. Doctor : Hospital and Clerk : Office are profession-place pairs. Lock : Key and Code : Password are access/security pairs. Hence the correct mapping is A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.

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30. Question 30

    A man is facing south-west. If he turns 90° in the anticlockwise direction and then 135° in the clockwise direction, which direction is he facing now?

    1. AWest
    2. BNorth-West
    3. CNorth-East
    4. DEast

    Answer: (A) West

    Explanation

    Starting from south-west, a 90° anticlockwise turn brings him to south-east. From there, a 135° clockwise turn brings him to west.

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31. Question 31

    RAM is placed on:

    1. AHard Disk
    2. BExtension board
    3. CMotherboard
    4. DUSB

    Answer: (C) Motherboard

    Explanation

    RAM modules are installed in memory slots on the motherboard. Hard disks and USB devices are storage media, not the normal physical location of RAM.

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32. Question 32

    Which of the following statements are correct?

    A. NKN stands for New Knowledge Network
    B. MOOCs are offline courses
    C. National Supercomputing Mission is a Government of India initiative
    D. Clock rate of CPU is measured in Gigabytes
    E. Param Shivay is a super computer

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AC and E only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DA and E only

    Answer: (A) C and E only

    Explanation

    The National Supercomputing Mission is a Government of India initiative, and Param Shivay is a supercomputer. NKN stands for National Knowledge Network, MOOCs are online courses, and CPU clock rate is measured in hertz, not gigabytes.

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33. Question 33

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Cache memory is faster than random access memory.

    Statement II: Random access memory is closer to the processor than cache memory.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

    Cache memory is faster than RAM and is located closer to the processor. Statement I is correct, but Statement II reverses the actual hierarchy and is therefore incorrect.

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34. Question 34

    Which one of the following is NOT a web browser?

    1. AFirefox
    2. BFacebook
    3. CChrome
    4. DSafari

    Answer: (B) Facebook

    Explanation

    Firefox, Chrome, and Safari are web browsers. Facebook is a social networking platform, not a browser.

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35. Question 35

    URL stands for:

    1. AUniversal Resource Location
    2. BUniversal Response Locator
    3. CUnified Response Location
    4. DUniform Resource Locator

    Answer: (D) Uniform Resource Locator

    Explanation

    URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator, the address used to locate a resource on the web.

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36. Question 36

    Identify the correct sequence of the following States/Union of India in terms of increasing wind energy potential.

    A. Gujarat
    B. Rajasthan
    C. Madhya Pradesh
    D. Tamil Nadu

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AD, C, B, A
    2. BB, D, C, A
    3. CB, C, A, D
    4. DB, C, D, A

    Answer: (A) D, C, B, A

    Explanation

    The source options appear malformed: the expected increasing order by wind energy potential is C, B, D, A (Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat), but that sequence is not present among the four options. Since the JSON shape requires A-D, this is defaulted to A and marked for review.

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37. Question 37

    Dissolved oxygen (DO), an important parameter of water quality, is essential for survival of:

    1. AHumans
    2. BAnimals
    3. CFish
    4. DCrops and vegetables

    Answer: (C) Fish

    Explanation

    Dissolved oxygen is oxygen available in water for aquatic organisms. It is especially critical for the survival of fish.

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38. Question 38

    Among the following elements, which is typically the most abundant in dried sewage sludge?

    1. ATotal nitrogen
    2. BTotal sulphur
    3. CCalcium
    4. DTotal phosphorous

    Answer: (C) Calcium

    Explanation

    In dried sewage sludge, calcium is typically more abundant than total nitrogen, total sulphur, and total phosphorous among the given options. Nitrogen and phosphorous are important nutrients, but the dried-sludge composition in this item points to calcium.

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39. Question 39

    Identify the correct sequence of sectoral global CO₂ emissions in increasing order as per the IPCC (2014) report.

    A. Electricity and heat production
    B. Buildings
    C. Transportation
    D. Industry

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AB, C, D, A
    2. BB, C, A, D
    3. CB, D, C, A
    4. DB, D, A, C

    Answer: (A) B, C, D, A

    Explanation

    As per IPCC sectoral emission shares, the increasing order is Buildings, Transportation, Industry, and Electricity and heat production. Therefore the correct sequence is B, C, D, A.

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40. Question 40

    Under Goal 2 of the Millennium Development Goals, UN member countries were to ensure that by 2015, children everywhere, boys and girls, would be able to complete a full course of:

    1. APrimary education
    2. BSecondary education
    3. CTertiary education
    4. DSkill based education

    Answer: (A) Primary education

    Explanation

    MDG 2 was to achieve universal primary education, ensuring that boys and girls everywhere could complete a full course of primary schooling by 2015.

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41. Question 41

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: A deemed to be university is a non-affiliating university.

    Statement II: The teacher-student ratio in a deemed to be university must not be less than 1:10.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

    Explanation

    A deemed to be university is non-affiliating, so Statement I is correct. The stated universal ratio of 1:10 is not the applicable general norm for deemed-to-be universities, so Statement II is false.

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42. Question 42

    When did the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the International Programme in Environmental Education (IEEP) come into existence?

    1. A1972
    2. B1975
    3. C1982
    4. D1992

    Answer: (B) 1975

    Explanation

    UNEP itself was established in 1972, while the UNESCO-UNEP International Environmental Education Programme (IEEP) came into existence in 1975. Since the question refers to the UNEP-linked IEEP, the intended answer is 1975.

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43. Question 43

    According to the Census of 2011, which state/union territory had the maximum number of graduates in relation to its population?

    1. AUttar Pradesh
    2. BKerala
    3. CDaman and Diu
    4. DChandigarh

    Answer: (D) Chandigarh

    Explanation

    Among the given options, Chandigarh had the highest proportion of graduates in relation to its population according to Census 2011 data.

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44. Question 44

    The full form of NEAT, a recently launched scheme of MHRD, Government of India, is:

    1. ANational Engineering Aptitude Test
    2. BNational Educational Alliance for Technology
    3. CNational Education Alliance for Testing
    4. DNational English Aptitude Test

    Answer: (B) National Educational Alliance for Technology

    Explanation

    NEAT stands for National Educational Alliance for Technology, an initiative to use technology for improving learning outcomes in higher education.

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45. Question 45

    An Inter-University Centre for Yogic Sciences has been set up by the University Grants Commission in the state of:

    1. AKarnataka
    2. BMadhya Pradesh
    3. CUttrakhand
    4. DHimachal Pradesh

    Answer: (A) Karnataka

    Explanation

    The Inter-University Centre for Yogic Sciences was established at Bengaluru, so the state is Karnataka.

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46. Question 46

    According to Skinner, the superstitious behaviour of individuals is the outcome of:

    In Skinner's system, reinforcement is automatic, almost by definition. Perhaps the most convincing demonstration of the automatic effect of a reinforcer is what Skinner (1948) has called "superstitious behaviour". In this situation, an event known to be reinforcing is presented intermittently without respect to what the subject is doing. But if it is doing anything (and this can be made likely through deprivation, etc.), the response just prior to the delivery of the reinforcer is strengthened, as evidenced by an increase in its rate of emission. The subject comes to "act as if" the response that has been fortuitously strengthened somehow produces the reinforcement. This occurs even though the reinforcer is actually delivered by a mechanical device that is in no way responsive to the subject's behaviour.

    The automatic effect of reinforcement is also illustrated in Skinner's effective techniques of shaping behaviour. These procedures could hardly have sprung from a point of view that regarded all behaviour as elicited. But with the organism viewed as "emitting" the varied responses already in his repertoire, it was an easy step to conceive of shaping. If the observer simply controlled the quick presentation of a reinforcer, then he could strengthen any behaviour the organism happened to emit. Responses not in the subject's repertoire could then be built into it by appropriate arrangements of environmental conditions and the successive approximation technique.

    1. AConstant exposure to an event
    2. BExposure to an event without regularity
    3. COccasional exposure to an event
    4. DNatural exposure to an event

    Answer: (B) Exposure to an event without regularity

    Explanation

    The passage says that in superstitious behaviour, a reinforcing event is presented intermittently and without respect to what the subject is doing. This points to exposure to an event without regularity.

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47. Question 47

    The delivery of the reinforcer gets strengthened due to:

    In Skinner's system, reinforcement is automatic, almost by definition. Perhaps the most convincing demonstration of the automatic effect of a reinforcer is what Skinner (1948) has called "superstitious behaviour". In this situation, an event known to be reinforcing is presented intermittently without respect to what the subject is doing. But if it is doing anything (and this can be made likely through deprivation, etc.), the response just prior to the delivery of the reinforcer is strengthened, as evidenced by an increase in its rate of emission. The subject comes to "act as if" the response that has been fortuitously strengthened somehow produces the reinforcement. This occurs even though the reinforcer is actually delivered by a mechanical device that is in no way responsive to the subject's behaviour.

    The automatic effect of reinforcement is also illustrated in Skinner's effective techniques of shaping behaviour. These procedures could hardly have sprung from a point of view that regarded all behaviour as elicited. But with the organism viewed as "emitting" the varied responses already in his repertoire, it was an easy step to conceive of shaping. If the observer simply controlled the quick presentation of a reinforcer, then he could strengthen any behaviour the organism happened to emit. Responses not in the subject's repertoire could then be built into it by appropriate arrangements of environmental conditions and the successive approximation technique.

    1. AThe subject's involvement in the event
    2. BIncrease in the rate of reinforcement
    3. CFactors such as deprivation
    4. DThe use of a mechanical device

    Answer: (C) Factors such as deprivation

    Explanation

    The passage states that if the subject is doing something, and this can be made likely through deprivation, the response just before reinforcement is strengthened. Therefore, the relevant cause mentioned in the passage is factors such as deprivation.

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48. Question 48

    The example of a mechanical device reinforcing the subject's behaviour demonstrates:

    In Skinner's system, reinforcement is automatic, almost by definition. Perhaps the most convincing demonstration of the automatic effect of a reinforcer is what Skinner (1948) has called "superstitious behaviour". In this situation, an event known to be reinforcing is presented intermittently without respect to what the subject is doing. But if it is doing anything (and this can be made likely through deprivation, etc.), the response just prior to the delivery of the reinforcer is strengthened, as evidenced by an increase in its rate of emission. The subject comes to "act as if" the response that has been fortuitously strengthened somehow produces the reinforcement. This occurs even though the reinforcer is actually delivered by a mechanical device that is in no way responsive to the subject's behaviour.

    The automatic effect of reinforcement is also illustrated in Skinner's effective techniques of shaping behaviour. These procedures could hardly have sprung from a point of view that regarded all behaviour as elicited. But with the organism viewed as "emitting" the varied responses already in his repertoire, it was an easy step to conceive of shaping. If the observer simply controlled the quick presentation of a reinforcer, then he could strengthen any behaviour the organism happened to emit. Responses not in the subject's repertoire could then be built into it by appropriate arrangements of environmental conditions and the successive approximation technique.

    1. AThe automatic effect of reinforcement
    2. BThe illusion of reinforcement
    3. CThe discrepancy in subject's behaviour
    4. DThe belief that every reaction is an act of reinforcement

    Answer: (A) The automatic effect of reinforcement

    Explanation

    The passage explicitly says that the example of reinforcement delivered by a mechanical device demonstrates the automatic effect of reinforcement, since the device is not responsive to the subject's behaviour.

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49. Question 49

    The procedure of shaping a subject's behaviour is related to his:

    A. Susceptibility
    B. Desire for reinforcement
    C. Responses already in his repertoire
    D. Responses reinforced by approximation techniques

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    In Skinner's system, reinforcement is automatic, almost by definition. Perhaps the most convincing demonstration of the automatic effect of a reinforcer is what Skinner (1948) has called "superstitious behaviour". In this situation, an event known to be reinforcing is presented intermittently without respect to what the subject is doing. But if it is doing anything (and this can be made likely through deprivation, etc.), the response just prior to the delivery of the reinforcer is strengthened, as evidenced by an increase in its rate of emission. The subject comes to "act as if" the response that has been fortuitously strengthened somehow produces the reinforcement. This occurs even though the reinforcer is actually delivered by a mechanical device that is in no way responsive to the subject's behaviour.

    The automatic effect of reinforcement is also illustrated in Skinner's effective techniques of shaping behaviour. These procedures could hardly have sprung from a point of view that regarded all behaviour as elicited. But with the organism viewed as "emitting" the varied responses already in his repertoire, it was an easy step to conceive of shaping. If the observer simply controlled the quick presentation of a reinforcer, then he could strengthen any behaviour the organism happened to emit. Responses not in the subject's repertoire could then be built into it by appropriate arrangements of environmental conditions and the successive approximation technique.

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DA and D only

    Answer: (C) C and D only

    Explanation

    The passage links shaping with the organism's responses already in his repertoire and with building new responses through successive approximation. Thus C and D only are correct.

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50. Question 50

    The responses that are not in the emission list of a subject can be observed by:

    In Skinner's system, reinforcement is automatic, almost by definition. Perhaps the most convincing demonstration of the automatic effect of a reinforcer is what Skinner (1948) has called "superstitious behaviour". In this situation, an event known to be reinforcing is presented intermittently without respect to what the subject is doing. But if it is doing anything (and this can be made likely through deprivation, etc.), the response just prior to the delivery of the reinforcer is strengthened, as evidenced by an increase in its rate of emission. The subject comes to "act as if" the response that has been fortuitously strengthened somehow produces the reinforcement. This occurs even though the reinforcer is actually delivered by a mechanical device that is in no way responsive to the subject's behaviour.

    The automatic effect of reinforcement is also illustrated in Skinner's effective techniques of shaping behaviour. These procedures could hardly have sprung from a point of view that regarded all behaviour as elicited. But with the organism viewed as "emitting" the varied responses already in his repertoire, it was an easy step to conceive of shaping. If the observer simply controlled the quick presentation of a reinforcer, then he could strengthen any behaviour the organism happened to emit. Responses not in the subject's repertoire could then be built into it by appropriate arrangements of environmental conditions and the successive approximation technique.

    1. ACoercive measures
    2. BCreating suitable environmental conditions
    3. CInhibiting his natural emission behavior
    4. DUsing mechanical devices for reinforcement

    Answer: (B) Creating suitable environmental conditions

    Explanation

    The passage states that responses not already in the subject's repertoire can be built by appropriate arrangements of environmental conditions and successive approximation. Therefore, creating suitable environmental conditions is the best answer.

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100 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   The deductive method differs from the inductive method in drawing its conclusions from:

   1. AVerification
   2. BParticular instances
   3. CApplications
   4. DGeneral truths

   Answer: (D) General truths

   Explanation

   Deduction proceeds from general truths or principles to particular conclusions. Induction moves in the opposite direction, building general conclusions from particular instances. Therefore, the deductive method is distinguished by drawing conclusions from general truths.

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2. Question 2

   Which one of the following journals publishes articles related to critical theory exclusively?

   1. ASalmagundi
   2. BDiacritics
   3. CCallaloo
   4. DGrand Street

   Answer: (B) Diacritics

   Explanation

   Diacritics is strongly associated with critical theory, literary theory, and theoretical criticism. Salmagundi, Callaloo, and Grand Street are broader literary and cultural journals rather than journals devoted exclusively to critical theory.

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3. Question 3

   Which one of the following assumptions best expresses the position of Post-Structuralist criticism?

   1. ADefinite structures underlie empirical events.
   2. BLanguage is representational.
   3. CApprehension of reality is a construct.
   4. DKnowledge operates according to procedures that are axiomatic.

   Answer: (C) Apprehension of reality is a construct.

   Explanation

   Post-structuralist criticism questions stable structures, fixed meanings, and transparent representation. It treats reality as mediated by language, discourse, and interpretation; hence, the apprehension of reality is understood as a construct.

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4. Question 4

   Which one of the following is correct about Saussure's analysis of language?

   1. ALa langue is the system of a language.
   2. BParole focuses on language as a system at a particular time.
   3. CLa langue is the particular instance of speech and writing.
   4. DParole is the study of language over a period of time.

   Answer: (A) La langue is the system of a language.

   Explanation

   For Saussure, la langue is the abstract social system of language, while parole refers to individual acts of speech or usage. The synchronic study of language concerns a system at a particular time, and diachronic study concerns change over time, so the other options misdescribe Saussure's terms.

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5. Question 5

   Who among the following theorists particularly emphasized the social and historical dimensions of a text's reception?

   1. AWolfgang Iser
   2. BStanley Fish
   3. CHans Robert Jauss
   4. DPierre Bourdieu

   Answer: (C) Hans Robert Jauss

   Explanation

   Hans Robert Jauss developed reception aesthetics with special attention to a work's historical reception and the reader's changing horizon of expectations. Iser focuses more on the implied reader and reading process, Fish on interpretive communities, and Bourdieu on cultural production and fields.

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6. Question 6

   Which one among the following is a set of the Metaphysical Poets?

   1. AJohn Dryden, George Herbert, and Alexander Pope
   2. BHenry Vaughan, John Dryden, and John Donne
   3. CJohn Donne, Henry Vaughan, and Andrew Marvell
   4. DSamuel Johnson, T. S. Eliot and Herbert Grierson

   Answer: (C) John Donne, Henry Vaughan, and Andrew Marvell

   Explanation

   John Donne, Henry Vaughan, and Andrew Marvell are all commonly grouped among the Metaphysical Poets. Dryden and Pope are Restoration/Augustan writers, while Johnson, Eliot, and Grierson are critics associated with later discussion or revival of metaphysical poetry.

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7. Question 7

   Which one of the following statements is true about Aristotle's poetics?

   1. AHe asserted the value of poetry by integrating rhetoric and imitation (mimesis).
   2. BHe asserted the value of poetry by focusing on both rhetoric and imitation (mimesis).
   3. CHe asserted the value of poetry by giving preference to rhetoric over imitation (mimesis).
   4. DHe asserted the value of poetry by focusing on imitation (mimesis) rather than rhetoric.

   Answer: (D) He asserted the value of poetry by focusing on imitation (mimesis) rather than rhetoric.

   Explanation

   In the Poetics, Aristotle treats poetry primarily as mimesis, or imitation/representation, and defends its value through that concept. Rhetoric is the subject of a different Aristotelian treatise, so the option centering imitation rather than rhetoric is correct.

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8. Question 8

   Who said of the blank verse, quoting an unnamed critic, that it is "...verse only to the eye", adding further that it "has neither the easiness of prose, nor the melody of numbers"?

   1. AJohn Dryden
   2. BAlexander Pope
   3. CSamuel Taylor Coleridge
   4. DSamuel Johnson

   Answer: (D) Samuel Johnson

   Explanation

   The criticism of blank verse as "verse only to the eye" is associated with Samuel Johnson, especially in his comments on Milton's versification. Dryden, Pope, and Coleridge do not fit this specific formulation.

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9. Question 9

   Poetry according to Sir Philip Sidney is of three kinds. They are:

   1. AReligious, dramatic, romantic
   2. BClassical, romantic, neo-classical
   3. CPhilosophical, imaginative, narrative
   4. DReligious, philosophical, imaginative

   Answer: (D) Religious, philosophical, imaginative

   Explanation

   In Sidney's account, poetry is commonly classified into three broad kinds corresponding to religious/divine, philosophical, and imaginative or right poetry. The other groupings mix later literary categories or omit Sidney's key divisions.

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10. Question 10

    In Anxiety of Influence, which of the following definitions is given by Harold Bloom to explain the term clinamen?

    1. APoetic hyperbole
    2. BPoetic misprision
    3. CPoetic sublime
    4. DPoetic supplement

    Answer: (B) Poetic misprision

    Explanation

    In Harold Bloom's theory of poetic influence, clinamen is the first revisionary ratio and means a poetic misreading or misprision of a precursor. The other options are not Bloom's definition of the term in The Anxiety of Influence.

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11. Question 11

    Who among the following is known to have popularized the term glocalization?

    1. ARonald Robertson
    2. BFrancis Fukuyama
    3. CJohn Urry
    4. DJohn Tomlinson

    Answer: (A) Ronald Robertson

    Explanation

    The term glocalization is especially associated with sociologist Ronald Robertson, who popularized it in globalization studies to describe the interpenetration of global and local processes.

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12. Question 12

    Who among the following coined the dictum, "the medium is the message"?

    1. ARaymond Williams
    2. BErving Goffman
    3. CMarshall McLuhan
    4. DJohn Fiske

    Answer: (C) Marshall McLuhan

    Explanation

    The dictum "the medium is the message" was coined by Marshall McLuhan, whose media theory argues that the form of a medium shapes human experience and social organization as much as, or more than, its content.

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13. Question 13

    Who among the following presented the concept of multi-accentuality of the sign, saying that signs possess an "inner dialectical quality" and "evaluative accent"?

    1. ARoland Barthes
    2. BStuart Hall
    3. CJacques Derrida
    4. DValentin Voloshinov

    Answer: (D) Valentin Voloshinov

    Explanation

    Valentin Voloshinov argued that signs are socially contested and possess multi-accentuality, meaning that different social groups can give signs different evaluative accents. This idea is central to his Marxist theory of language and ideology.

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14. Question 14

    On December 11, 1823, Rammohan Roy addressed a letter to the British authority which pleaded for modern western education and is considered historically important for the introduction of English education in India. Who was the letter addressed to?

    1. ALord Amherst
    2. BLord Minto
    3. CLord Macaulay
    4. DLord Bentick

    Answer: (A) Lord Amherst

    Explanation

    Rammohan Roy's 1823 letter advocating modern western education was addressed to Lord Amherst, the Governor-General of India. Macaulay's famous Minute came later in 1835, and Bentinck was associated with the later English Education Act.

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15. Question 15

    Which British administrator sought "to make everything as English as possible in a country which resembles England in nothing", as recorded by Sir Thomas Munro?

    1. ALord Bentick
    2. BLord Hastings
    3. CLord Cornwallis
    4. DLord Wellesley

    Answer: (C) Lord Cornwallis

    Explanation

    The policy described by Munro is associated with Lord Cornwallis, whose administrative, judicial, and revenue reforms sought to reshape Indian institutions on English lines. The other administrators are important in colonial history, but this specific formulation points to Cornwallis.

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16. Question 16

    Who among the following was the first Director of the Central Institute of English and Foreign Languages, Hyderabad (now EFL University)?

    1. AProf. V. K. Gokak
    2. BProf. C. D. Narasimhaiah
    3. CProf. C. J. Daswani
    4. DProf. K. R. S. Iyengar

    Answer: (A) Prof. V. K. Gokak

    Explanation

    Prof. V. K. Gokak was the first Director of the Central Institute of English and Foreign Languages, Hyderabad. Narasimhaiah, Daswani, and Iyengar were distinguished scholars, but they were not the first Director of the institution.

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17. Question 17

    Which one of the following best explains the term paralanguage?

    1. AThe ways in which people mask what they mean by the words they use
    2. BThe ways in which people show what they mean other than by the words they use
    3. CThe ways in which words carry meanings unintended by the speaker
    4. DThe ways in which the silence underlying speech communicates wrong meanings

    Answer: (B) The ways in which people show what they mean other than by the words they use

    Explanation

    Paralanguage refers to non-verbal features accompanying speech, such as tone, pitch, pace, stress, pauses, and voice quality. These features communicate meaning beyond the literal words used.

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18. Question 18

    Which two of the following oppositions are best evoked by Hamlet's utterance "To be or not to be"?

    A. Between life and death

    B. Between action and emotion

    C. Between affirmation and confirmation

    D. Between doing and abstaining from doing

    1. AA and D only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CC and A only
    4. DD and C only

    Answer: (A) A and D only

    Explanation

    Hamlet's phrase "To be or not to be" most directly evokes the opposition between life and death and, in the larger soliloquy, between acting and refraining from action. Therefore, A and D are the best pair.

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19. Question 19

    Who among the following linguists proposed the terms competence and performance?

    1. ANoah Webster
    2. BSteven Pinker
    3. CRoman Jakobson
    4. DNoam Chomsky

    Answer: (D) Noam Chomsky

    Explanation

    Noam Chomsky introduced the distinction between linguistic competence, a speaker's internalized knowledge of a language, and performance, the actual use of language in concrete situations.

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20. Question 20

    Which one of these statements defines the scope of semiotics?

    1. ASemiotics studies the sound systems of a language.
    2. BSemiotics is a study of sign systems.
    3. CSemiotics studies human sign system only.
    4. DSemiotics is a study of non-human sign systems only.

    Answer: (B) Semiotics is a study of sign systems.

    Explanation

    Semiotics is the study of signs and sign systems, including how signs produce meaning. It is broader than phonology and is not restricted only to human or only to non-human signs.

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21. Question 21

    Which according to Thomas Hobbes is the only "science" God has bestowed on mankind, that informs the structure of his monumental work, Leviathan?

    1. AAstronomy
    2. BArchitecture
    3. COccult sciences
    4. DGeometry

    Answer: (D) Geometry

    Explanation

    Hobbes regarded geometry as the model of certain demonstrative knowledge. Its method informs the argumentative structure of Leviathan, where he attempts to reason from definitions and first principles.

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22. Question 22

    As mentioned in "My First Acquaintance with Poets", which poet does William Hazlitt describe as the "only person I ever knew who answered the idea of a man of genius"?

    1. AColeridge
    2. BWordsworth
    3. CByron
    4. DShelley

    Answer: (A) Coleridge

    Explanation

    In "My First Acquaintance with Poets", Hazlitt's celebrated description of a person who answered the idea of a man of genius refers to Samuel Taylor Coleridge, whose conversation and intellectual power deeply impressed him.

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23. Question 23

    Which one of the following essays holds that "As a method, realism is a complete failure"?

    1. AVirginia Woolf, "The Mark on the Wall"
    2. BOscar Wilde, "The Decay of Lying"
    3. CD. H. Lawrence, "Why the Novel Matters"
    4. DMary McCarthy, "My Confession"

    Answer: (B) Oscar Wilde, "The Decay of Lying"

    Explanation

    The attack on realism as a failed method belongs to Oscar Wilde's "The Decay of Lying", where Wilde argues for artifice, imagination, and lying in art against plain factual realism.

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24. Question 24

    Which of the following novels is structured into a poem of 999 lines, preceded by a Foreword, followed by a Commentary and an Index?

    1. ARagtime
    2. BPale Fire
    3. CThe Inner Side of the Wind
    4. DHourglass

    Answer: (B) Pale Fire

    Explanation

    Vladimir Nabokov's Pale Fire is famously organized around a 999-line poem by the fictional John Shade, framed by a Foreword, Commentary, and Index by Charles Kinbote.

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25. Question 25

    Which among the following novels includes a questionnaire for the reader such as "Do you like the story so far? Yes ( ) No ( )"?

    1. AMantissa by John Fowles
    2. BWaterland by Graham Swift
    3. CSnow White by Donald Barthelme
    4. DIf on a Winter's Night a Traveller by Italo Calvino

    Answer: (C) Snow White by Donald Barthelme

    Explanation

    Donald Barthelme's postmodern novel Snow White includes playful metafictional devices, including a reader questionnaire. This self-reflexive technique is characteristic of Barthelme's experimental fiction.

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26. Question 26

    What is the subject of Ivan's controversial essay in Brothers Karamazov?

    1. ATransubstantiation
    2. BThe evils of clergy
    3. CThe Eucharist
    4. DEcclesiastical courts

    Answer: (D) Ecclesiastical courts

    Explanation

    In Dostoevsky's The Brothers Karamazov, Ivan Karamazov's controversial article concerns ecclesiastical courts and the relation between church and state, rather than doctrine such as transubstantiation or the Eucharist.

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27. Question 27

    Which one of the following Sherlock Holmes stories refers to a significant event in English history?

    1. A"The Musgrave Ritual"
    2. B"The Speckled Band"
    3. C"The Solitary Cyclist"
    4. D"The Red-Headed League"

    Answer: (A) "The Musgrave Ritual"

    Explanation

    "The Musgrave Ritual" links its mystery to English history through the hidden royal relics associated with Charles I. The other stories are not built around a comparable historical event.

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28. Question 28

    Harold Skimpole is a character in:

    1. ABleak House
    2. BDombey and Son
    3. CGreat Expectations
    4. DOliver Twist

    Answer: (A) Bleak House

    Explanation

    Harold Skimpole is a character in Charles Dickens's Bleak House. He is known for his irresponsible charm and his claim to childlike innocence.

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29. Question 29

    Who is the author of "A Fragment" (1819), one of the earliest vampire stories in English?

    1. AP. B. Shelley
    2. BLord Byron
    3. CBram Stoker
    4. DMary Shelley

    Answer: (B) Lord Byron

    Explanation

    "A Fragment", also known as "Fragment of a Novel", was written by Lord Byron and is an important early vampire narrative. Bram Stoker's Dracula appeared much later, in 1897.

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30. Question 30

    Lala Kanshi Ram is a character in:

    1. AArun Joshi's The Apprentice
    2. BChaman Nahal's Azadi
    3. CAnita Desai's Fire on the Mountain
    4. DKamala Markandaya's A Handful of Rice

    Answer: (B) Chaman Nahal's Azadi

    Explanation

    Lala Kanshi Ram is a central character in Chaman Nahal's Partition novel Azadi. The novel follows his family and community through the trauma of Partition.

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31. Question 31

    Which of the following poems by Philip Larkin deals with the trauma of a rape victim who says "Even so distant, I can taste the grief"?

    1. A"Deceptions"
    2. B"Faith Healing"
    3. C"Sad Steps"
    4. D"Wild Oats"

    Answer: (A) "Deceptions"

    Explanation

    Philip Larkin's "Deceptions" responds to the account of a rape victim and includes the line "Even so distant, I can taste the grief." The other listed Larkin poems concern different subjects.

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32. Question 32

    In which of the Bog poems does Seamus Heaney speak about the "perishable treasure" of a body "Murdered, forgotten, nameless, terrible"?

    1. A"Bog Queen"
    2. B"Grauballe Man"
    3. C"Punishment"
    4. D"Strange Fruit"

    Answer: (D) "Strange Fruit"

    Explanation

    The description of the body as a "perishable treasure" and "Murdered, forgotten, nameless, terrible" occurs in Seamus Heaney's bog poem "Strange Fruit".

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33. Question 33

    Which book of Paradise Lost incorporates the speech rhythms of Adam and Eve's marital quarrel?

    1. ABook 4
    2. BBook 6
    3. CBook 7
    4. DBook 9

    Answer: (D) Book 9

    Explanation

    Adam and Eve's fall and their subsequent quarrel occur in Book 9 of Milton's Paradise Lost. The book dramatizes the breakdown of harmony between them after the temptation and fall.

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34. Question 34

    Who among the following wrote Mazeppa, a long narrative poem about a seventeenth-century military leader of Ukraine?

    1. AWilliam Cowper
    2. BLord Byron
    3. CP. B. Shelley
    4. DS. T. Coleridge

    Answer: (B) Lord Byron

    Explanation

    Mazeppa is a long narrative poem by Lord Byron, based on the legendary episode from the life of Ivan Mazepa, the Ukrainian military leader.

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35. Question 35

    Which one of the following statements is appropriately true of Harold Pinter's plays?

    1. AMenace is in the air and it leads to bloody violence.
    2. BMenace is in the air and it is realized through the female characters.
    3. CMenace is in the air, but it is not pinned down, or explained.
    4. DMenace is in the air and anarchy follows in a systematic manner.

    Answer: (C) Menace is in the air, but it is not pinned down, or explained.

    Explanation

    Pinter's drama is famously associated with the comedy of menace, where threat is pervasive but often unexplained, unnamed, and psychologically unsettling rather than neatly resolved or pinned down.

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36. Question 36

    To which mythological character is Faustus compared in the Prologue of Dr. Faustus?

    1. APerseus
    2. BTheseus
    3. CIcarus
    4. DAchilles

    Answer: (C) Icarus

    Explanation

    In the Prologue to Marlowe's Dr. Faustus, Faustus is compared to Icarus, whose overreaching flight led to his fall. The comparison signals Faustus's dangerous ambition.

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37. Question 37

    Who makes the following speech in Samuel Beckett's Waiting for Godot?

    "Astride of a grave and a difficult birth. Down in the hole, lingeringly, the grave-digger puts on the forceps."

    1. AEstragon
    2. BLucky
    3. CVladimir
    4. DPozzo

    Answer: (C) Vladimir

    Explanation

    The quoted meditation on birth and death is spoken by Vladimir in Waiting for Godot. It condenses Beckett's bleak view of human life between birth and death.

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38. Question 38

    Which of the following are the major themes in William Congreve's The Way of the World?

    1. AJealousy and revenge
    2. BLove and intrigue
    3. CIntrigue and death
    4. DLove and loyalty

    Answer: (B) Love and intrigue

    Explanation

    Congreve's The Way of the World is a Restoration comedy centered on love and intrigue, especially the witty negotiations, schemes, and social maneuvering around marriage and inheritance.

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39. Question 39

    What game do the characters play in Act II of Harold Pinter's The Birthday Party?

    1. AA game of chess
    2. BA game of cards
    3. CBlind man's buff
    4. DMusical chairs

    Answer: (C) Blind man's buff

    Explanation

    In Act II of Pinter's The Birthday Party, the birthday celebration turns disturbing during a game of blind man's buff, a scene that intensifies the play's atmosphere of menace.

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40. Question 40

    The Duchess of Malfi is based on:

    1. AA French romance
    2. BAn Italian novella
    3. CA German fable
    4. DA Scottish chronicle

    Answer: (B) An Italian novella

    Explanation

    John Webster's The Duchess of Malfi is based on an Italian novella tradition, ultimately drawing on the story of Giovanna d'Aragona, Duchess of Amalfi, transmitted through Italian sources.

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41. Question 41

    Which two of the following strictly follow the parameters of documentation prescribed by the eighth edition of the MLA Handbook?

    A. Nunberg, Geoffrey, editor. The Future of the Book. U of California P, 1996.

    B. Puig, Manuel. Kiss of the Spider Woman. Trans. Thomas Colchie, London: Vintage, 1991.

    C. Nunberg, Geoffrey, ed. The Future of the Book. Berkeley: U of California P, 1996.

    D. Puig, Manuel. Kiss of the Spider Woman. Translated by Thomas Colchie, Vintage Books, 1991.

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CA and D only
    4. DB and C only

    Answer: (C) A and D only

    Explanation

    MLA 8 uses the container-based format and spells out roles such as editor and Translated by, while omitting older place-of-publication conventions. Statements A and D follow MLA 8 style; B and C retain older abbreviated/place-based patterns.

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42. Question 42

    A research hypothesis is:

    A. a proposition which is always true

    B. a provisional explanation of anything

    C. a theory which will be disproved by evidence

    D. a statement which is assumed to be true for the sake of argument

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (C) B and D only

    Explanation

    A research hypothesis is a tentative or provisional explanation and is treated as an assumed proposition for investigation. It is not always true, and it is not necessarily a theory that will be disproved.

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43. Question 43

    Which two of the following aspects are to be scrupulously followed to avoid the trap of plagiarism?

    A. subjectivity

    B. acknowledgement

    C. citation

    D. interpretation

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DB and C only

    Answer: (D) B and C only

    Explanation

    Avoiding plagiarism requires proper acknowledgement of borrowed ideas and accurate citation of sources. Subjectivity and interpretation may shape writing, but they do not by themselves prevent plagiarism.

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44. Question 44

    Which two texts among the following are linked to literary feminism?

    A. A Small Place

    B. The Yellow Wallpaper

    C. Emma

    D. A Room of One's Own

    1. AA and D only
    2. BC and D only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (C) B and D only

    Explanation

    Charlotte Perkins Gilman's The Yellow Wallpaper and Virginia Woolf's A Room of One's Own are central texts in discussions of literary feminism. A Small Place is more strongly associated with postcolonial critique, and Emma is not usually identified as a core feminist theoretical text in this context.

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45. Question 45

    Who among the following feminist theorists posited a separate realm of female experience captured in a style of writing different from men's?

    A. Elaine Showalter

    B. Luce Irigaray

    C. Kate Millett

    D. Simone de Beauvoir

    E. Helene Cixous

    1. AA, C and D only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DB and E only

    Answer: (D) B and E only

    Explanation

    Luce Irigaray and Helene Cixous are associated with French feminist theories of sexual difference and feminine writing, including the idea of a distinct female experience expressed through writing different from dominant masculine forms.

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46. Question 46

    Which of these statements describe correctly the basic assumption of Structuralism?

    A. Structuralism is concerned with signs and signification.

    B. A structuralist theory considers only verbal conventions and codes.

    C. Structuralism began in the works of Jacques Derrida that influenced the 20th-century literary criticism.

    D. Structuralism challenges the long-standing belief that literature reflects a given reality.

    E. All signs are arbitrary but without them we cannot comprehend reality.

    1. AA, C and E only
    2. BA, D and E only
    3. CA, B and C only
    4. DA, B and E only

    Answer: (B) A, D and E only

    Explanation

    Structuralism studies signs, signification, codes, and systems; it challenges the idea that literature simply mirrors a given reality, and it treats signs as arbitrary but necessary for making reality intelligible. Derrida is associated with post-structuralism, and structuralist theory is not limited only to verbal conventions.

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47. Question 47

    Which two terms among the following are associated with formalist criticism?

    A. aura

    B. actant

    C. narratee

    D. defamiliarization

    E. foregrounding

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DD and E only

    Answer: (D) D and E only

    Explanation

    Defamiliarization and foregrounding are key concepts associated with Russian Formalism and formalist criticism. Aura is associated with Walter Benjamin, while actant and narratee belong more to structuralist narratology.

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48. Question 48

    Who among the following believed that rhyme is not an integral part of poetry?

    A. William Wordsworth

    B. Horace

    C. Samuel Daniel

    D. Philip Sidney

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CA and D only
    4. DD and C only

    Answer: (B) B and D only

    Explanation

    The expected pairing is Horace and Philip Sidney. Sidney explicitly argues that verse and rhyme are not what make a poet, and Horace's classical poetics does not make rhyme integral to poetry. Samuel Daniel, by contrast, is known for defending rhyme.

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49. Question 49

    Who among the following are the two great masters of the French language that T. S. Eliot contrasts with Dryden and Milton in "The Metaphysical Poets"?

    A. Francois Villon

    B. Jean Racine

    C. Charles Baudelaire

    D. Arthur Rimbaud

    1. AA and C only
    2. BA and D only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (C) B and C only

    Explanation

    In "The Metaphysical Poets", Eliot contrasts the English line after the metaphysicals with French masters, especially Jean Racine and Charles Baudelaire.

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50. Question 50

    Which two terms from among the following are specifically linked to the work of Pierre Bourdieu?

    A. habitus

    B. consciousness

    C. desire

    D. distinction

    1. AA and C only
    2. BA and D only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DC and D only

    Answer: (B) A and D only

    Explanation

    Habitus and distinction are central terms in Pierre Bourdieu's sociology of culture. Distinction is also the title of one of his major works, while consciousness and desire are not the specific Bourdieu keywords targeted here.

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51. Question 51

    Macaulay's Minute of 1835 sought to:

    A. promote European literature and science among the natives.

    B. impart knowledge of English literature and science through translated texts.

    C. encourage branches of native learning by more useful studies.

    D. stop expenditure on the publication of oriental works and spend funds only on English education.

    1. AA and D only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CA and C only
    4. DB and C only

    Answer: (A) A and D only

    Explanation

    Macaulay's Minute advocated the promotion of European literature and science through English education and opposed continued public expenditure on Orientalist publications. Thus A and D best capture its policy thrust.

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52. Question 52

    Which two of the following statements are applicable to metalanguage?

    It is:

    A. a technical language which describes the properties of language.

    B. known as a "first-order" language.

    C. a "second-order" language that replaces a "first-order" language with metaphors.

    D. a "second-order" language.

    1. AA and B only
    2. BC and D only
    3. CA and D only
    4. DB and C only

    Answer: (C) A and D only

    Explanation

    A metalanguage is a language used to describe or analyze another language, so it is a technical language about language and a second-order language. It is not itself first-order language, nor does it necessarily replace language with metaphors.

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53. Question 53

    "Hari wrote a poem on the mountains." Which two of the following are admissible statements about the above sentence?

    A. The sentence is an example of lexical ambiguity.

    B. The sentence is an example of structural ambiguity.

    C. The sentence involves two deep structures.

    D. The sentence involves two surface structures.

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DC and D only

    Answer: (B) B and C only

    Explanation

    The sentence is structurally ambiguous because "on the mountains" may attach to the poem as its topic or to the act of writing as the location. This yields two underlying meanings, or deep structures, while the surface sentence remains the same.

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54. Question 54

    Which two of the following events are described in Samuel Pepys's Diary?

    A. The Plague in London

    B. The Great Fire of London

    C. The War of Spanish Succession

    D. Essex Rebellion

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (A) A and B only

    Explanation

    Samuel Pepys's diary famously records both the Great Plague of London and the Great Fire of London. The War of Spanish Succession and the Essex Rebellion fall outside the central events recorded in Pepys's diary.

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55. Question 55

    Which two of the following inspired the rise of the periodical essay?

    A. Robert Burton

    B. Francois Rabelais

    C. Francis Bacon

    D. Michel de Montaigne

    1. AC and A only
    2. BA and B only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (A) C and A only

    Explanation

    The expected pair is Francis Bacon and Robert Burton, whose prose models helped shape the intellectual and reflective prose tradition behind the later periodical essay. Rabelais and Montaigne are important prose figures, but the source's option set targets Bacon and Burton.

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56. Question 56

    Which two of the following works does Walter Pater regard as examples of "great art" in his essay "Style"?

    A. Iliad

    B. The Divine Comedy

    C. Les Miserables

    D. Faust

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and D only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (C) B and C only

    Explanation

    In "Style", Pater names works such as Dante's The Divine Comedy and Victor Hugo's Les Miserables as examples of great art, where literary form serves a large and serious matter.

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57. Question 57

    According to his essay "Civil Disobedience", what two things did Thoreau learn from the night he spent in jail?

    A. He concluded that the State is ultimately weak.

    B. He realized that captivity inspires courage.

    C. He realized that the neighbours are only friends during good times.

    D. He concluded that captivity brings wisdom about human affairs.

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CA and D only
    4. DC and D only

    Answer: (B) A and C only

    Explanation

    Thoreau's night in jail reinforced his sense that the State is weak because it can only imprison the body, not conscience. He also saw the limits of social friendship, realizing that neighbours often remain friends only in comfortable circumstances.

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58. Question 58

    Which two of the following are the titles of the sections in Thomas De Quincey's "The English Mail-Coach"?

    A. The Glory of Mobility

    B. The Vision of Sudden Death

    C. The Glory of Motion

    D. The Vision of Unexpected Truth

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and D only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (C) B and C only

    Explanation

    Two sections of De Quincey's "The English Mail-Coach" are "The Glory of Motion" and "The Vision of Sudden Death". The other titles alter the wording and are not section titles.

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59. Question 59

    Which two of the following books are explorations of the art of the novel by novelists?

    A. The Brief Compass

    B. The Naive and the Sentimental Novelist

    C. The Visionary Company

    D. Testaments Betrayed

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (D) B and D only

    Explanation

    Orhan Pamuk's The Naive and the Sentimental Novelist and Milan Kundera's Testaments Betrayed are reflections on the novel by practicing novelists. The Visionary Company is M. H. Abrams's critical study of Romantic poetry.

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60. Question 60

    The lives of which of the following writers have been the subject matter of novels by Anthony Burgess?

    A. Milton

    B. Marlowe

    C. Shelley

    D. Keats

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and D only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (D) B and D only

    Explanation

    Anthony Burgess wrote A Dead Man in Deptford about Christopher Marlowe and Abba Abba involving John Keats. The pair targeted by the question is therefore Marlowe and Keats.

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61. Question 61

    Which two rivers are mentioned by Andrew Marvell at the beginning of "To His Coy Mistress"?

    A. The Ganges

    B. Thames

    C. Humber

    D. The Jhelum

    1. AA and D only
    2. BA and B only
    3. CA and C only
    4. DB and C only

    Answer: (C) A and C only

    Explanation

    At the beginning of "To His Coy Mistress", Marvell mentions the Indian Ganges and the Humber: the beloved is imagined by the Ganges while the speaker is by the Humber.

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62. Question 62

    Which two poems in the following list are examples of dramatic monologue?

    A. Alfred Tennyson, "Ulysses"

    B. Philip Larkin, "Church Going"

    C. Carol Ann Duffy, "Medusa"

    D. Katherine Philips, "A Married State"

    1. AA and D only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (D) A and C only

    Explanation

    Tennyson's "Ulysses" is a classic dramatic monologue, and Carol Ann Duffy's "Medusa" gives a dramatic voice to a mythic speaker. The other two poems are not the best examples of the form in this list.

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63. Question 63

    Which two of the following poems are by Robert Browning?

    A. "Locksley Hall"

    B. "The Pied Piper of Hamelin"

    C. "The Lady of Shalott"

    D. "Two in the Campagna"

    1. AA and D only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (D) B and D only

    Explanation

    Robert Browning wrote "The Pied Piper of Hamelin" and "Two in the Campagna". "Locksley Hall" and "The Lady of Shalott" are poems by Alfred Tennyson.

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64. Question 64

    Which two of the following dramatists are associated with the Epic Theatre?

    A. Fernando Arrabal

    B. Bertolt Brecht

    C. Arnolt Bronnen

    D. James Saunders

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA and D only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (B) B and C only

    Explanation

    Bertolt Brecht is the central figure associated with Epic Theatre, and Arnolt Bronnen is also linked with the theatrical movement and milieu around Brecht. Arrabal and Saunders are associated with other dramatic traditions.

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65. Question 65

    Which two characters/speakers among the following exhibit the studious abstraction of scholars?

    A. Shylock

    B. Hamlet

    C. Il Penseroso

    D. Mosca

    1. AA and D only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (B) B and C only

    Explanation

    Hamlet is a contemplative, scholarly figure, and Il Penseroso represents the pensive, studious life in Milton's poem. Shylock and Mosca are driven more by practical, legal, financial, or manipulative motives than by scholarly abstraction.

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66. Question 66

    Match List I with List II using the table above.

    List I: Terms	List II: Theorists
    A. arche-ecriture	I. Julia Kristeva
    B. cyborg	II. Donna Haraway
    C. genotext	III. Friedrich Schleiermacher
    D. hermeneutic circle	IV. Jacques Derrida

    Terms and theorists for matching

    1. AA - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
    2. BA - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
    3. CA - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
    4. DA - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III

    Answer: (A) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III

    Explanation

    Arche-ecriture is linked with Jacques Derrida, cyborg with Donna Haraway, genotext with Julia Kristeva, and the hermeneutic circle with Friedrich Schleiermacher. This gives the mapping A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III.

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67. Question 67

    Match List I with List II using the table above.

    List I: Terms	List II: Theorists
    A. Superreader	I. Michel Foucault
    B. Biopower	II. Mikhail Bakhtin
    C. Bricolage	III. Michael Riffaterre
    D. Chronotope	IV. Claude Levi-Strauss

    Terms and theorists for matching

    1. AA - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I
    2. BA - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
    3. CA - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II
    4. DA - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

    Answer: (B) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

    Explanation

    Superreader is associated with Michael Riffaterre, biopower with Michel Foucault, bricolage with Claude Levi-Strauss, and chronotope with Mikhail Bakhtin. This gives A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II.

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68. Question 68

    Match List I with List II using the table above.

    List I: Critics	List II: Text
    A. Horace	I. A Defence of Rhyme
    B. John Dryden	II. Timber; or, Discoveries
    C. Samuel Daniel	III. Ars Poetica
    D. Ben Jonson	IV. Of Dramatic Poesy

    Critics and texts for matching

    1. AA - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
    2. BA - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
    3. CA - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
    4. DA - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

    Answer: (C) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

    Explanation

    Horace wrote Ars Poetica, John Dryden wrote Of Dramatic Poesy, Samuel Daniel wrote A Defence of Rhyme, and Ben Jonson wrote Timber; or, Discoveries. Therefore the correct mapping is A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.

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69. Question 69

    Match List I with List II using the table above.

    List I: Author	List II: Text
    A. Michel de Certeau	I. Distinction
    B. John Fiske	II. Reading the Romance
    C. Pierre Bourdieu	III. Understanding Popular Culture
    D. Janice Radway	IV. The Practice of Everyday Life

    Authors and texts for matching

    1. AA - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
    2. BB - III, C - IV, D - I, A - II
    3. CA - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
    4. DB - III, C - I, D - IV, A - II

    Answer: (C) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

    Explanation

    Michel de Certeau wrote The Practice of Everyday Life, John Fiske wrote Understanding Popular Culture, Pierre Bourdieu wrote Distinction, and Janice Radway wrote Reading the Romance. The mapping is A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II.

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70. Question 70

    Match List I with List II using the table above.

    List I: Linguist	List II: Concept
    A. Paul Grice	I. language death
    B. Edward Sapir	II. linguistic signs
    C. Ferdinand de Saussure	III. linguistic relativity
    D. Nancy Dorian	IV. cooperative principle

    Linguists and concepts for matching

    1. AA - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
    2. BA - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
    3. CA - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
    4. DA - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

    Answer: (B) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I

    Explanation

    Paul Grice is associated with the cooperative principle, Edward Sapir with linguistic relativity, Ferdinand de Saussure with linguistic signs, and Nancy Dorian with language death. This gives A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I.

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71. Question 71

    Match List I with List II using the table above.

    List I: Word Borrowed	List II: Source Indian Language
    A. mongoose	I. Tamil
    B. loot	II. Malayalam
    C. curry	III. Hindi/Urdu
    D. betel	IV. Marathi

    Borrowed words and source Indian languages for matching

    1. AA - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
    2. BA - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
    3. CA - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
    4. DA - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

    Answer: (A) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

    Explanation

    Mongoose is traced here to Marathi, loot to Hindi/Urdu, curry to Tamil, and betel to Malayalam. The correct mapping is A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II.

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72. Question 72

    Match List I with List II using the table above.

    List I: Essayist	List II: Essay
    A. George Orwell	I. "On the Artificial Comedy of the Last Century"
    B. Michel de Montaigne	II. "Why I Write"
    C. Charles Lamb	III. "A Modest Proposal"
    D. Jonathan Swift	IV. "On the Cannibals"

    Essayists and essays for matching

    1. AA - III, B - IV, C - III, D - I
    2. BA - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
    3. CA - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
    4. DA - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV

    Answer: (B) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

    Explanation

    George Orwell wrote "Why I Write", Michel de Montaigne wrote "On the Cannibals", Charles Lamb wrote "On the Artificial Comedy of the Last Century", and Jonathan Swift wrote "A Modest Proposal". This gives A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III.

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73. Question 73

    Match List I with List II using the table above.

    List I: Author	List II: Text
    A. Thomas Pynchon	I. G
    B. Howard Jacobson	II. V
    C. Anthony Burgess	III. J
    D. John Berger	IV. M/F

    Authors and texts for matching

    1. AA - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
    2. BA - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
    3. CA - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
    4. DA - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

    Answer: (B) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

    Explanation

    Thomas Pynchon's work is V, Howard Jacobson's is J, Anthony Burgess's is M/F, and John Berger's is G. This gives the mapping A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.

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74. Question 74

    Match List I with List II using the table above.

    List I: Lines	List II: Poems
    A. "Monuments of unaging intellect"	I. "Leda and the Swan"
    B. "In the foul rag-and-bone shop of the heart"	II. "Adam's Curse"
    C. "So mastered by the brute blood of the air"	III. "Sailing to Byzantium"
    D. "As weary-hearted as that hollow moon"	IV. "The Circus Animals' Desertion"

    Lines from poems for matching

    1. AA - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
    2. BA - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
    3. CA - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
    4. DA - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III

    Answer: (C) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

    Explanation

    "Monuments of unaging intellect" is from "Sailing to Byzantium", "In the foul rag-and-bone shop of the heart" is from "The Circus Animals' Desertion", "So mastered by the brute blood of the air" is from "Leda and the Swan", and "As weary-hearted as that hollow moon" is from "Adam's Curse". This gives A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.

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75. Question 75

    Match List I with List II using the table above.

    List I: Author	List II: Work
    A. John Keats	I. Alastor
    B. William Wordsworth	II. Songs of Experience
    C. P. B. Shelley	III. Lamia
    D. William Blake	IV. The Excursion

    Authors and works for matching

    1. AA - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
    2. BA - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
    3. CA - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II
    4. DA - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III

    Answer: (B) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

    Explanation

    John Keats wrote Lamia, William Wordsworth wrote The Excursion, P. B. Shelley wrote Alastor, and William Blake wrote Songs of Experience. The correct mapping is A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.

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76. Question 76

    Arrange the following terms in the chronological order of emergence:

    A. Heresy of Paraphrase

    B. Stream of Consciousness

    C. Practical Criticism

    D. Defamiliarization

    1. AD, B, C, A
    2. BB, D, A, C
    3. CB, D, C, A
    4. DD, C, B, A

    Answer: (C) B, D, C, A

    Explanation

    Stream of Consciousness emerged with William James's usage in 1890, Defamiliarization with Shklovsky in 1917, Practical Criticism with I. A. Richards in 1929, and Heresy of Paraphrase with Cleanth Brooks in 1947. The chronological order is B, D, C, A.

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77. Question 77

    Arrange the following critical works in their chronological order of publication:

    A. "Preface to Lyrical Ballads"

    B. A Defence of Rhyme

    C. "Life of Cowley"

    D. "The Frontiers of Criticism"

    1. AA, C, B and D
    2. BB, A, C and D
    3. CB, C, A and D
    4. DC, A, D and B

    Answer: (C) B, C, A and D

    Explanation

    Samuel Daniel's A Defence of Rhyme was published in 1603, Johnson's "Life of Cowley" in the late eighteenth century, Wordsworth's "Preface to Lyrical Ballads" in 1800, and Eliot's "The Frontiers of Criticism" in 1956. The order is B, C, A and D.

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78. Question 78

    Arrange the following in the chronological order of publication:

    A. Aspects of the Theory of Syntax

    B. Course in General Linguistics

    C. Semiotics and the Philosophy of Language

    D. How to Do Things with Words

    1. AD, B, A, C
    2. BC, B, A, D
    3. CB, D, A, C
    4. DB, A, D, C

    Answer: (C) B, D, A, C

    Explanation

    Saussure's Course in General Linguistics appeared in 1916, Austin's How to Do Things with Words in 1962, Chomsky's Aspects of the Theory of Syntax in 1965, and Eco's Semiotics and the Philosophy of Language in 1984. The order is B, D, A, C.

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79. Question 79

    Arrange the following in the chronological order of publication:

    A. Advancement of Learning

    B. The Origin of Species

    C. On Heroes and Hero Worship

    D. The Lives of the Poets

    1. AD, A, C, B
    2. BD, A, B, C
    3. CA, D, C, B
    4. DA, D, B, C

    Answer: (C) A, D, C, B

    Explanation

    Bacon's Advancement of Learning was published in 1605, Johnson's The Lives of the Poets in 1779-1781, Carlyle's On Heroes and Hero Worship in 1841, and Darwin's The Origin of Species in 1859. The correct order is A, D, C, B.

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80. Question 80

    Arrange the following 18th-century magazines in the chronological order of publication:

    A. The Critical Review

    B. The Monthly Review

    C. The Gentleman's Magazine

    D. The Rambler

    1. AA, D, B, C
    2. BD, A, B, C
    3. CB, A, C, D
    4. DC, B, D, A

    Answer: (D) C, B, D, A

    Explanation

    The Gentleman's Magazine began in 1731, The Monthly Review in 1749, The Rambler in 1750, and The Critical Review in 1756. The chronological order is C, B, D, A.

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81. Question 81

    Arrange the following in the chronological order of publication:

    A. Crome Yellow

    B. Sons and Lovers

    C. Mrs Dalloway

    D. A Portrait of the Artist as a Young Man

    1. AB, A, D, C
    2. BA, B, D, C
    3. CA, C, B, D
    4. DB, D, A, C

    Answer: (D) B, D, A, C

    Explanation

    Sons and Lovers was published in 1913, A Portrait of the Artist as a Young Man in 1916, Crome Yellow in 1921, and Mrs Dalloway in 1925. The correct order is B, D, A, C.

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82. Question 82

    Arrange the following women novelists in the chronological order by date of birth:

    A. Anne Bronte

    B. Jane Austen

    C. Ann Radcliffe

    D. Fanny Burney

    E. Maria Edgeworth

    1. AB, A, D, C, E
    2. BC, D, B, E, A
    3. CD, C, E, B, A
    4. DA, B, C, E, D

    Answer: (C) D, C, E, B, A

    Explanation

    The order by birth is Fanny Burney (1752), Ann Radcliffe (1764), Maria Edgeworth (1768), Jane Austen (1775), and Anne Bronte (1820). This gives D, C, E, B, A.

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83. Question 83

    Arrange the following authors in the chronological order of their birth:

    A. Oscar Wilde

    B. William Langland

    C. Geoffrey Chaucer

    D. John Dryden

    E. Alexander Pope

    1. AB, C, D, E, A
    2. BA, B, C, E, D
    3. CB, C, D, A, E
    4. DC, B, A, D, E

    Answer: (A) B, C, D, E, A

    Explanation

    William Langland was born before Geoffrey Chaucer, followed much later by John Dryden, Alexander Pope, and Oscar Wilde. The chronological order is B, C, D, E, A.

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84. Question 84

    Arrange the following plays in their chronological order:

    A. The Country Wife

    B. Cymbeline

    C. The Spanish Tragedy

    D. The Rivals

    1. AB, A, C, D
    2. BB, C, D, A
    3. CC, B, A, D
    4. DC, A, B, D

    Answer: (C) C, B, A, D

    Explanation

    The Spanish Tragedy is the earliest, followed by Shakespeare's Cymbeline, Wycherley's The Country Wife, and Sheridan's The Rivals. The order is C, B, A, D.

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85. Question 85

    Arrange the following plays in the chronological order of publication:

    A. All for Love

    B. Venice Preserved

    C. The School for Scandal

    D. The Country Wife

    1. AB, C, A, D
    2. BD, A, B, C
    3. CC, B, D, A
    4. DA, D, C, B

    Answer: (B) D, A, B, C

    Explanation

    The Country Wife appeared before Dryden's All for Love, followed by Otway's Venice Preserved and Sheridan's The School for Scandal. The order is D, A, B, C.

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86. Question 86

    Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

    Assertion A: Research methods are a range of tools that are used for different types of inquiry.

    Reason R: The tools used in research are products of the situations in which they are applied.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false
    4. DA is false but R is true

    Answer: (B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    Both statements are true: research methods are tools for inquiry, and tools are shaped by the contexts in which they are used. However, the second statement does not directly explain why research methods form a range of tools for different inquiries.

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87. Question 87

    Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

    Assertion A: Signs are never neutral or innocent.

    Reason R: In all cases signs are organized into systems that convey some meaning.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false
    4. DA is false but R is true

    Answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    Signs acquire meaning within signifying systems, and because such systems organize meaning, signs are not neutral or innocent. Thus both statements are true and Reason R explains Assertion A.

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88. Question 88

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Consumption is an outcome of self-interest and a maximization of personal pleasure.

    Statement II: There are strong correlations between social status and such things as housing styles, musical tastes and food preferences.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

    Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

    Explanation

    The passage of cultural theory implied here treats consumption as socially patterned, not merely as self-interest or pleasure maximization. Statement II is true because tastes and practices such as housing, music, and food often correlate with social status.

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89. Question 89

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: The Orientalists in British India were not sympathetic towards India's ancient learning.

    Statement II: William Jones thought that in "imagination", "ratiocination", and philosophy, Indians were by no means inferior to Europeans.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

    Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

    Explanation

    Statement I is incorrect because Orientalists such as William Jones were often sympathetic to and interested in India's ancient learning. Statement II is true: Jones explicitly valued Indian achievement in imagination, reasoning, and philosophy.

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90. Question 90

    Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

    Assertion A: The introduction of English in India was primarily for the benefit and consolidation of British power.

    Reason R: English catered to the social and economic aspirations of the emerging middle class and urban elites in India.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false
    4. DA is false but R is true

    Answer: (B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    Both statements are true: English education served imperial consolidation and also appealed to emerging Indian middle-class and urban elite aspirations. The latter, however, does not explain the primary colonial purpose stated in Assertion A.

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91. Question 91

    Which among the following best describes the lady's face as "At dawn she lay..." asleep?

    Daybreak

    At dawn she lay with her profile at that angle
    Which, sleeping, seems the stone face of an angel;
    Her hair a harp the hand of a breeze follows
    To play, against the white cloud of the pillows.
    Then in a flush of rose she woke, and her eyes were open,
    Swimming with blue through the rose flesh of dawn.
    From her dew of lips, the drop of one word
    Fell, from a dawn of fountains, when she murmured
    'Darling,' - upon my heart the song of the first bird.
    'My dream glides in my dream,' she said, 'come true.
    I waken from you to my dream of you.'
    O, then my waking dream dared to assume
    The audacity of her sleep. Our dreams
    Flowed into each other's arms, like streams.

    • Stephen Spender
    1. AHer face appears to be that of a stone sculpture's.
    2. BThe side-view of her face appears to be that of a sculpted angel's.
    3. CHer face appears to be that of a stone-angel.
    4. DThe side-view of her face appears to be that of an angel's.

    Answer: (B) The side-view of her face appears to be that of a sculpted angel's.

    Explanation

    The poem says she lay with her profile at an angle which, while sleeping, seemed like the stone face of an angel. This points to the side-view of her face appearing like a sculpted angel's.

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92. Question 92

    Match List I with List II based on the passage above.

    List I: The Item
    A. 'Her hair'
    B. 'pillows'
    C. 'breeze'
    D. 'cheeks'

    List II: What it is an example of
    I. player
    II. 'a harp'
    III. 'rose'
    IV. 'cloud'

    Daybreak

    At dawn she lay with her profile at that angle
    Which, sleeping, seems the stone face of an angel;
    Her hair a harp the hand of a breeze follows
    To play, against the white cloud of the pillows.
    Then in a flush of rose she woke, and her eyes were open,
    Swimming with blue through the rose flesh of dawn.
    From her dew of lips, the drop of one word
    Fell, from a dawn of fountains, when she murmured
    'Darling,' - upon my heart the song of the first bird.
    'My dream glides in my dream,' she said, 'come true.
    I waken from you to my dream of you.'
    O, then my waking dream dared to assume
    The audacity of her sleep. Our dreams
    Flowed into each other's arms, like streams.

    • Stephen Spender
    1. AA - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III
    2. BA - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
    3. CA - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
    4. DA - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

    Answer: (C) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

    Explanation

    The poem compares her hair to a harp, the pillows to a white cloud, the breeze to a hand that plays, and the cheeks or dawn flesh to rose. This gives A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III.

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93. Question 93

    Match List I with List II based on the passage above.

    List I: Item
    A. 'Her hair a harp'
    B. 'the hand of a breeze'
    C. 'seems the stone face'
    D. 'my waking dream'

    List II: What it is an example of
    I. Simile
    II. Metaphor
    III. Oxymoron
    IV. Synecdoche

    Daybreak

    At dawn she lay with her profile at that angle
    Which, sleeping, seems the stone face of an angel;
    Her hair a harp the hand of a breeze follows
    To play, against the white cloud of the pillows.
    Then in a flush of rose she woke, and her eyes were open,
    Swimming with blue through the rose flesh of dawn.
    From her dew of lips, the drop of one word
    Fell, from a dawn of fountains, when she murmured
    'Darling,' - upon my heart the song of the first bird.
    'My dream glides in my dream,' she said, 'come true.
    I waken from you to my dream of you.'
    O, then my waking dream dared to assume
    The audacity of her sleep. Our dreams
    Flowed into each other's arms, like streams.

    • Stephen Spender
    1. AA - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
    2. BA - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
    3. CA - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
    4. DA - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III

    Answer: (A) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III

    Explanation

    Her hair a harp is a metaphor, the hand of a breeze uses a part-like image for the breeze's agency, seems the stone face works as a simile-like comparison, and my waking dream is oxymoronic. This gives A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III.

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94. Question 94

    "Logic cannot have any empirical part", because:

    A. laws of thought are subjective.

    B. it propounds laws whose applicability can be shown.

    C. its laws are valid for all thought.

    D. its laws are valid for everyone's experience.

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

    Logic cannot have any empirical part; that is, a part in which the universal and necessary laws of thought should rest on grounds taken from experience; otherwise it would not be logic, i.e., a canon for the understanding or the reason, valid for all thought, and capable of demonstration. Natural and moral philosophy, on the contrary, can each have their empirical part, since the former has to determine the laws of nature as an object of experience; the latter, the laws of the human will, so far as it is affected by nature: the former, however, being laws according to which everything does happen; the latter, laws according to which everything ought to happen. Ethics, however, must also consider the conditions under which what ought to happen frequently does not. Immanuel Kant

    1. AA and D only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (B) B and C only

    Explanation

    The passage says logic rests on universal and necessary laws, is valid for all thought, and is capable of demonstration. Thus B and C best explain why logic cannot have an empirical part.

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95. Question 95

    Based on the given passage, which two of the following statements are correct?

    A. For natural philosophy, nature influences the laws.

    B. For moral philosophy, nature is to be experienced.

    C. Natural philosophy does not describe how things actually do happen.

    D. Moral philosophy accounts for what should be.

    Logic cannot have any empirical part; that is, a part in which the universal and necessary laws of thought should rest on grounds taken from experience; otherwise it would not be logic, i.e., a canon for the understanding or the reason, valid for all thought, and capable of demonstration. Natural and moral philosophy, on the contrary, can each have their empirical part, since the former has to determine the laws of nature as an object of experience; the latter, the laws of the human will, so far as it is affected by nature: the former, however, being laws according to which everything does happen; the latter, laws according to which everything ought to happen. Ethics, however, must also consider the conditions under which what ought to happen frequently does not. Immanuel Kant

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DA and D only

    Answer: (D) A and D only

    Explanation

    The passage says natural philosophy determines laws of nature as an object of experience, while moral philosophy concerns laws according to which everything ought to happen. Therefore A and D are correct; B and C contradict the passage.

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96. Question 96

    Who speaks these lines and to whom?

    And the creature run from the cur?
    There thou mightst behold the great image of authority: a dog's obeyed in office. -
    Thou rascal beadle, hold thy bloody hand!
    Why dost thou lash that whore? Strip thine own back;
    Thou hotly lust'st to use her in that kind
    For which thou whipp'st her. The usurer hangs the cozener.
    Through tatter'd clothes small vices do appear;
    Robes and furr'd gowns hide all. Plate sin with gold,
    And the strong lance of justice hurtless breaks;
    Arm it in rags, a pigmy's straw doth pierce it.

    King Lear

    1. AEdgar to Lear
    2. BGoneril to Edgar
    3. CLear to Gloucester
    4. DGloucester to Lear

    Answer: (C) Lear to Gloucester

    Explanation

    The passage is from King Lear and the lines are spoken by Lear to Gloucester during Lear's bitter reflection on authority, justice, and hypocrisy.

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97. Question 97

    In the passage, the church officer is asked to whip his own back rather than the prostitute's because:

    And the creature run from the cur?
    There thou mightst behold the great image of authority: a dog's obeyed in office. -
    Thou rascal beadle, hold thy bloody hand!
    Why dost thou lash that whore? Strip thine own back;
    Thou hotly lust'st to use her in that kind
    For which thou whipp'st her. The usurer hangs the cozener.
    Through tatter'd clothes small vices do appear;
    Robes and furr'd gowns hide all. Plate sin with gold,
    And the strong lance of justice hurtless breaks;
    Arm it in rags, a pigmy's straw doth pierce it.

    King Lear

    1. Aas a religious man he should punish himself for others' sins.
    2. Bhe at one time had lusted after her.
    3. Cmen like him make them prostitutes.
    4. Dhe does not have the authority to whip a woman.

    Answer: (B) he at one time had lusted after her.

    Explanation

    Lear says the beadle lusts to use the prostitute in the very way for which he whips her. The rebuke exposes the officer's hypocrisy, so option B is the closest answer.

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98. Question 98

    The two sentences in the lines from "Through tatter'd clothes..." to "...straw doth pierce it" deal with two foibles, (i) vice and (ii) sin. About these two, the speaker says that:

    And the creature run from the cur?
    There thou mightst behold the great image of authority: a dog's obeyed in office. -
    Thou rascal beadle, hold thy bloody hand!
    Why dost thou lash that whore? Strip thine own back;
    Thou hotly lust'st to use her in that kind
    For which thou whipp'st her. The usurer hangs the cozener.
    Through tatter'd clothes small vices do appear;
    Robes and furr'd gowns hide all. Plate sin with gold,
    And the strong lance of justice hurtless breaks;
    Arm it in rags, a pigmy's straw doth pierce it.

    King Lear

    1. AVice afflicts all but sin afflicts only the weak.
    2. BSin afflicts all but vice afflicts only the strong.
    3. CSin and vice are seen in both the weak and the strong.
    4. DSin and vice are palpable in the weak and impalpable in the strong.

    Answer: (D) Sin and vice are palpable in the weak and impalpable in the strong.

    Explanation

    Lear contrasts rags and robes: vice is visible through tattered clothes but hidden by robes, and justice pierces sin in rags while it breaks against sin plated with gold. The point is that sin and vice are exposed in the weak but concealed and protected in the strong.

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99. Question 99

    In the expression, "passed her hands over her face", the "face" is of:

    The surgeon deposited it in her arms. She imprinted her cold, white lips passionately on its forehead; passed her hands over her face; gazed wildly around; shuddered; fell back - and died. They chafed her breast, hands, temples; but the blood had stopped forever. They talked of hope and comfort. They had been strangers too long. 'It's all over, Mrs. Thingummy!' said the surgeon at last.

    Dickens, Oliver Twist

    1. Athe lady surgeon
    2. Bthe child
    3. Cthe nurse
    4. Dthe patient

    Answer: (D) the patient

    Explanation

    The passage describes the woman who receives the child, kisses it, passes her hands over her own face, and then dies. The face therefore belongs to the patient.

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100. Question 100

     The implication of "they had been strangers too long" is:

     The surgeon deposited it in her arms. She imprinted her cold, white lips passionately on its forehead; passed her hands over her face; gazed wildly around; shuddered; fell back - and died. They chafed her breast, hands, temples; but the blood had stopped forever. They talked of hope and comfort. They had been strangers too long. 'It's all over, Mrs. Thingummy!' said the surgeon at last.

     Dickens, Oliver Twist

     1. AThose who spoke of 'hope and comfort' had been strangers too long.
     2. B'Hope' had been stranger to 'comfort' for too long.
     3. C'Hope and comfort' had been stranger to the patient too long.
     4. D'Hope and comfort' had been strangers to the surgeon, nurse and the patient too long.

     Answer: (C) 'Hope and comfort' had been stranger to the patient too long.

     Explanation

     The sentence follows the futile attempt to comfort the dying woman. It implies that hope and comfort had long been absent from the patient's life, and arrived too late to matter.

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