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|Management · September 2022

UGC NET Management September 2022 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

The complete UGC NET September 2022 question paper for Management, covering Paper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (Management). Every question below is shown with its options and the correct answer, and a detailed explanation you can unlock by signing in. All 150 questions are free to practise.

UGC NET September 2022 at a glance

ExamUGC NET September 2022
PapersPaper 1 (General Aptitude) and Paper 2 (Management)
Exam date(s)September 30, 2022
Shift(s)Shift 2
Paper 1 questions50 questions · 60 minutes · 100 marks
Paper 2 questions100 questions · 120 minutes · 200 marks
Total150 questions
Marking scheme+2 per correct answer · No negative marking
Paper 1

General Aptitude

UGC NET September 2022 · Management sitting

50 questions60 min100 marks
Practice Now
Paper 2

Management

UGC NET September 2022

100 questions120 min200 marks
Practice Now

Paper 1 — General Aptitude

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50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

  1. Question 1

    During the period from 2016 to 2021 what is the approximate percentage(%) of the total number of programmers who left the company w.r.t the total number of programmers who joined the Company?

    The following table presents the number of employees recruited for five different positions of Administrators, Analysts, Programmers, Testers, and Peons (R) in an IT company and those who left (L) the company during the years 2016 - 2021. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions (Year of foundation of the Company is 2016):

    Year-Wise Distribution of Employees

    YearAdministrators (R / L)Analysts (R / L)Programmers (R / L)Testers (R / L)Peons (R / L)
    2016380 / —600 / —440 / —580 / —410 / —
    2017140 / 60136 / 60128 / 52100 / 5092 / 48
    201890 / 46120 / 64120 / 60112 / 5276 / 44
    201974 / 44118 / 48104 / 50124 / 4898 / 40
    202080 / 36128 / 5096 / 56136 / 44112 / 60
    202196 / 48144 / 56124 / 72130 / 46100 / 52
    1. A19
    2. B21
    3. C27
    4. D29

    Answer: (D) 29

    Explanation

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  2. Question 2

    The total number of Peons working in the Company at the end of year 2020, is

    The following table presents the number of employees recruited for five different positions of Administrators, Analysts, Programmers, Testers, and Peons (R) in an IT company and those who left (L) the company during the years 2016 - 2021. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions (Year of foundation of the Company is 2016):

    Year-Wise Distribution of Employees

    YearAdministrators (R / L)Analysts (R / L)Programmers (R / L)Testers (R / L)Peons (R / L)
    2016380 / —600 / —440 / —580 / —410 / —
    2017140 / 60136 / 60128 / 52100 / 5092 / 48
    201890 / 46120 / 64120 / 60112 / 5276 / 44
    201974 / 44118 / 48104 / 50124 / 4898 / 40
    202080 / 36128 / 5096 / 56136 / 44112 / 60
    202196 / 48144 / 56124 / 72130 / 46100 / 52
    1. A656
    2. B596
    3. C544
    4. D484

    Answer: (B) 596

    Explanation

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  3. Question 3

    If M and N represent the number of Analysts and number of Testers recruited in the company during the years 2017 to 2021. Then M - N =

    The following table presents the number of employees recruited for five different positions of Administrators, Analysts, Programmers, Testers, and Peons (R) in an IT company and those who left (L) the company during the years 2016 - 2021. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions (Year of foundation of the Company is 2016):

    Year-Wise Distribution of Employees

    YearAdministrators (R / L)Analysts (R / L)Programmers (R / L)Testers (R / L)Peons (R / L)
    2016380 / —600 / —440 / —580 / —410 / —
    2017140 / 60136 / 60128 / 52100 / 5092 / 48
    201890 / 46120 / 64120 / 60112 / 5276 / 44
    201974 / 44118 / 48104 / 50124 / 4898 / 40
    202080 / 36128 / 5096 / 56136 / 44112 / 60
    202196 / 48144 / 56124 / 72130 / 46100 / 52
    1. A64
    2. B56
    3. C48
    4. D44

    Accepted answers: (A) 64, (D) 44

    Explanation

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  4. Question 4

    The pooled sum of the total number of employees working for all the five positions in the company at the end of the year 2018 is

    The following table presents the number of employees recruited for five different positions of Administrators, Analysts, Programmers, Testers, and Peons (R) in an IT company and those who left (L) the company during the years 2016 - 2021. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions (Year of foundation of the Company is 2016):

    Year-Wise Distribution of Employees

    YearAdministrators (R / L)Analysts (R / L)Programmers (R / L)Testers (R / L)Peons (R / L)
    2016380 / —600 / —440 / —580 / —410 / —
    2017140 / 60136 / 60128 / 52100 / 5092 / 48
    201890 / 46120 / 64120 / 60112 / 5276 / 44
    201974 / 44118 / 48104 / 50124 / 4898 / 40
    202080 / 36128 / 5096 / 56136 / 44112 / 60
    202196 / 48144 / 56124 / 72130 / 46100 / 52
    1. A3126
    2. B2988
    3. C3028
    4. D2958

    Answer: (B) 2988

    Explanation

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  5. Question 5

    The percentage increase in the number of employees working in the company in 2021 to that in 2016 was maximum for the position of

    The following table presents the number of employees recruited for five different positions of Administrators, Analysts, Programmers, Testers, and Peons (R) in an IT company and those who left (L) the company during the years 2016 - 2021. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions (Year of foundation of the Company is 2016):

    Year-Wise Distribution of Employees

    YearAdministrators (R / L)Analysts (R / L)Programmers (R / L)Testers (R / L)Peons (R / L)
    2016380 / —600 / —440 / —580 / —410 / —
    2017140 / 60136 / 60128 / 52100 / 5092 / 48
    201890 / 46120 / 64120 / 60112 / 5276 / 44
    201974 / 44118 / 48104 / 50124 / 4898 / 40
    202080 / 36128 / 5096 / 56136 / 44112 / 60
    202196 / 48144 / 56124 / 72130 / 46100 / 52
    1. AAdministrator
    2. BAnalyst
    3. CProgrammer
    4. DTester

    Accepted answers: (A) Administrator, (D) Tester

    Explanation

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  6. Question 6

    Given two statements:

    Assertion (A): High concentration of Nitric Oxide (NO) in soils makes them inhabitable to plants.

    Reason (R): NO combines with soil water and forms nitrous and nitric acid which increases the soil acidity.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. BBoth (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
    3. C(A) is true but (R) is false
    4. D(A) is false but (R) is true

    Accepted answers: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A), (D) (A) is false but (R) is true

    Explanation

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  7. Question 7

    Match List I with List II:

    List - I (Fundamental factors)List - II (Attributes of learning)
    A. DriveI. Reward
    B. CueII. Motivation
    C. ResponseIII. Stimulus
    D. ReinforcementIV. Action
    1. A(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
    2. B(A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
    3. C(A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
    4. D(A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)

    Answer: (B) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

    Explanation

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  8. Question 8

    In the context of vocational education, competency level 8 as per NSQF, is equivalent to:

    Review flag: Source reads “Doctrate Degree” (apparent typo); preserved.

    1. ADoctrate Degree
    2. BUndergraduate Degree
    3. CDiploma
    4. DMaster Degree

    Answer: (D) Master Degree

    Explanation

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  9. Question 9

    Who among the following was the first thinker in India to write on Spherical Trigonometry?

    1. ABhaskaracharya
    2. BAryabhatta
    3. CAkshapada
    4. DKanada

    Answer: (A) Bhaskaracharya

    Explanation

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  10. Question 10

    Which of the following approach does not come under cooperative learning?

    1. AFishbowl
    2. BJigsaw
    3. CDemonstration
    4. DTeam-pair-solo

    Answer: (C) Demonstration

    Explanation

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  11. Question 11

    Match List I with List II:

    List-I (Input Method)List -II (Use)
    A. Bar Code ReaderI. To input text from a printed document
    B. Chip ReaderII. To input data from a bank cheque
    C. MICRIII. To input data from a bank card
    D. OCRIV. To input data about a product at a POS (Point of Sale)
    1. A(A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
    2. B(A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
    3. C(A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
    4. D(A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)

    Answer: (C) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

    Explanation

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  12. Question 12

    Which of the following universities in ancient India attained celebrity as the seat of both Brahmanical and Buddhist learning during the time of Siddha Nagarjuna?

    1. ANalanda
    2. BTakshashila
    3. CDharmaganja
    4. DSridhanya Katak

    Answer: (D) Sridhanya Katak

    Explanation

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  13. Question 13

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Artificial Intelligence (AI) learns from changing circumstances, whereas virtual reality is an artificially created environment used to give a feeling of ‘being there’.

    Statement II: QR, a type of more sophisticated barcode which uses a matrix of dark squares on a light background, stands for Quick Reaction.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

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  14. Question 14

    One of the factors that influence our feedback to the communicated message most is

    1. ALocation of reception
    2. BChannel of mediation
    3. CReceptor’s involvement
    4. DTransmission economy

    Answer: (C) Receptor’s involvement

    Explanation

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  15. Question 15

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Understanding the level of teaching and learning is based on the acquisition of factual information. to see relationships, to comprehend, to seek generalization, and their application in life.

    Statement II: Reflective level of teaching and learning is based on the development of critical thinking, problem-solving skills, and creative thinking.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    Review flag: Source contains unusual punctuation/wording in Statement I (“information. to see…”); preserved.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

    Explanation

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  16. Question 16

    Match List I with List II:

    List - I (Committee)List - II (Chairman)
    A. Committee on Corporate Participation in Higher EducationI. Swaminathan
    B. Calcutta University CommissionII. Michael Sadler
    C. Committee on funding Central UniversitiesIII. N.R. Narayanamurthy
    D. Committee on Technical EducationIV. Justice K. Punnayya
    1. A(A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
    2. B(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
    3. C(A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
    4. D(A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

    Answer: (C) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

    Explanation

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  17. Question 17

    'No one has ever succeeded to provide conclusive evidence for the claims of astrology. Therefore we must conclude that astrology is non-sense'. Which fallacy is committed in the above argument?

    1. AHasty Generalisation
    2. BAppeal to Ignorance
    3. CFalse cause
    4. DSlippery slope

    Answer: (B) Appeal to Ignorance

    Explanation

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  18. Question 18

    Given two statements:

    Assertion (A): The new system of digital communication has made the emergence of an interactive society possible.

    Reason (R): The new system is based on 'digitized and networked integration of multiple communication modes'.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. BBoth (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
    3. C(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
    4. D(A) is not correct but (R) is correct

    Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

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  19. Question 19

    In a mixture of two types of oils A and B, the ratio of A : B is 3 :2. If the cost of oil A is Rs. 60 per litre and that of oil B is Rs. 120 per litre, then find the cost per litre of the resulting mixture.

    1. A92
    2. B90
    3. C96
    4. D84

    Answer: (D) 84

    Explanation

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  20. Question 20

    What is the full form of 'NROER'?

    1. ANational Repository of Online Educational Resources
    2. BNational Repository of Open Educational Resources
    3. CNational Recruitment of Online Educational Resources
    4. DNational Recruitment of Open Educational Resources

    Answer: (B) National Repository of Open Educational Resources

    Explanation

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  21. Question 21

    Which of the following statements are correct?

    A. IP addresses are used to identify computers on the Internet.
    B. Internet and WWW are two separate but related terms: Internet is a service on the WWW while WWW is the network infrastructure providing such service.
    C. Large files such as videos which cannot be sent by e-mail as attachments, can be sent to another computer via FTP.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DA, B, C

    Answer: (B) A and C only

    Explanation

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  22. Question 22

    The Likert scale is used to measure a set of

    1. AValues
    2. BNorms
    3. CAttitudes
    4. DFormulae

    Answer: (C) Attitudes

    Explanation

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  23. Question 23

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Qualitative research uses a static set of questions.

    Statement II: In quantitative research, questions are standardized.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

    Explanation

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  24. Question 24

    Exploratory research is primarily intended to

    1. AGather preliminary information
    2. BFind out the causality of relations
    3. CKnow the statistical significance of findings
    4. DDiscover the specific contexts of research

    Answer: (A) Gather preliminary information

    Explanation

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  25. Question 25

    Which one of the following acronyms matches incorrectly with their full form?

    1. AHTTP - Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
    2. BFTP - File Transfer Protocol
    3. CSMTP - Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
    4. DISP - Internet Service Protocol

    Answer: (D) ISP - Internet Service Protocol

    Explanation

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  26. Question 26

    "When I closed my eyes the cat was sitting on the table when I opened my eyes. I found it sitting on the chair therefore I can conclude that the cat must have moved from the table to the chair while my eyes were closed". According to classical Indian Philosophy which of the following means of knowledge is used in the above argument?

    1. APratyaksa (Perception)
    2. BUpamāna (Comparison)
    3. CUnupalabdhi (Non-apprehension)
    4. DArthāpatti (Postulation)

    Answer: (D) Arthāpatti (Postulation)

    Explanation

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  27. Question 27

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Halocarbons contribute significantly to global warming.

    Statement II: Halocarbons also catalytically destroy stratospheric Ozone.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    Explanation

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  28. Question 28

    The sequence of stages in experimental research is

    A. Selection of the setting.
    B. Operationalisation of variables.
    C. Administration of the experiment.
    D. Selection of the experimental design.
    E. Analysis and interpretation of results.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, D, E, C
    2. BB, D, C, A, E
    3. CA, D, B, C, E
    4. DD, A, B, C, E

    Answer: (C) A, D, B, C, E

    Explanation

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  29. Question 29

    If the population of a town decreases by 25% and 40% in two successive years, what shall be the decrease in the percentage of population after 2 years?

    1. A61%
    2. B55%
    3. C65%
    4. D62%

    Answer: (B) 55%

    Explanation

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  30. Question 30

    In how many years the compound interest on Rs. 10.000 at the rate of 10% will be Rs. 2.100?

    Review flag: Source uses “Rs. 10.000” and “Rs. 2.100”; punctuation preserved.

    1. A4 years
    2. B2.5 years
    3. C2 years
    4. D3 years

    Answer: (C) 2 years

    Explanation

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  31. Question 31

    What is the average of first 6 multiples of 11?

    1. A27.5
    2. B40.5
    3. C38.5
    4. D51.5

    Answer: (C) 38.5

    Explanation

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  32. Question 32

    Find the missing term in the series given below:
    8, 10, 7, 12, 5, 16, 3, ?

    1. A18
    2. B20
    3. C24
    4. D19

    Answer: (B) 20

    Explanation

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  33. Question 33

    In intra-personal communication, the medium that carries the messages is

    1. AThe personal ego
    2. BThe central nervous system
    3. CThe physical surrounding
    4. DThe symbol system

    Answer: (B) The central nervous system

    Explanation

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  34. Question 34

    If the statement 'All children are innocent' is given as true, then which of the following statement can be inferred to be true?

    1. AAll those who are innocent are children.
    2. BSome children are innocent.
    3. CAll those who are non-innocent are adults.
    4. DSome children are non-innocent.

    Answer: (B) Some children are innocent.

    Explanation

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  35. Question 35

    What are the benefits of the asynchronous mode of online learning?

    A. Self-pacing
    B. Immediate Feedback
    C. Self-engagement
    D. Flexibility
    E. Presence of Teacher and student at the same time

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and D only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DA, C and E only

    Answer: (C) A, C and D only

    Explanation

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  36. Question 36

    What are the advantages of linear communication?

    A. It is best suited for persuasion
    B. It quickens the process of feedback
    C. It facilitates a two-way exchange of information
    D. It is extensively used in international propaganda
    E. It provides demarcated results

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DA, D and E only

    Answer: (D) A, D and E only

    Explanation

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  37. Question 37

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Most of the emerging contaminants of water are Endocrine Disrupting Chemicals (EDCs).

    Statement II: Flame retardant additives, found in environments throughout the globe, are considered to be EDCs.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

    Explanation

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  38. Question 38

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Relation of invariable concomitance is the relation between hetu and Sa̅dhya which requires no qualifying term or limitation (upadhi). e.g. wherever there is smoke there is fire.

    Statement II: The relation of invariable concomitance is the relation between hetu and Paksa which requires a qualifying term or limitation (upadhi). e.g. wherever there is fire there is smoke.

    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

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  39. Question 39

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: In a breeder reactor the amount of fissile material consumed is more than the amount of fissile material produced.

    Statement II: In India Kalpakkam (Chennai) Nuclear Power Plant is an example of a breeder reactor.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

    Explanation

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  40. Question 40

    Which of the following statement is converse of the statement - "All academicians are visionaries"?

    1. ASome visionaries are academicians.
    2. BSome academicians are visionaries.
    3. CSome academicians are not non-visionaries.
    4. DNo visionaries are not non-academicians

    Answer: (A) Some visionaries are academicians.

    Explanation

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  41. Question 41

    Which of the developments A-E given below have arisen because of the Internet?

    A. Web logs
    B. Databases
    C. Wikis
    D. DTP
    E. Social networking sites

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CA, C and E only
    4. DC and E only

    Answer: (C) A, C and E only

    Explanation

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  42. Question 42

    A literature review will have to answer the questions:

    A. What area should not be investigated?
    B. What type of research has been done in the area?
    C. What research methods have been used?
    D. What area has not been investigated?
    E. What methods should not have been used in earlier studies?

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C only
    2. BB, C, D only
    3. CD, C, E only
    4. DD, E, A only

    Answer: (B) B, C, D only

    Explanation

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  43. Question 43

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Communication technology has made revisiting of ideas impossible.

    Statement II: Technology has redefined the elements of time and distance in favour of communication managers.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

    Explanation

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  44. Question 44

    Given two statements:

    Assertion (A): Oxygen-demanding wastes are substances that Oxidize in the receiving body of water.

    Reason (R): As bacteria decompose these wastes, they release Oxygen into the water.

    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Review flag: Source contains “Reason (R):As… wastes. they…” and option d ends with “(A)”; preserved.

    1. ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. BBoth (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
    3. C(A) is true but (R) is false
    4. D(A) is false but (R) is true (A)

    Answer: (C) (A) is true but (R) is false

    Explanation

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  45. Question 45

    The focus areas of the New Education Policy are:

    A. Establishment of community colleges
    B. Setting up of skill missions in rural India
    C. Institutional re-structuring in the educational sector
    D. Imparting of holistic education
    E. Transforming the regulatory system of higher education

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C only
    2. BB, C, D only
    3. CA, D, E only
    4. DC, D, E only

    Answer: (D) C, D, E only

    Explanation

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  46. Question 46

    What phenomenon marked the Indian independence?

    Review flag: Passage source reads “help considerable power. with its access” and “putforth”; preserved.

    Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

    The formation of the Indian state runs in a parallel narrative with the formation of its elite. Indian independence marked the powerful role of the elite in establishing an agenda of modernisation driven by an instrumentalist notion of the state. The elite were constituted in the emerging national space of an independent India as the drivers of social change processes, bringing Indian society into modernisation. The elite not only comprised of political power brokers and private interests, but also of a middle class educated in English and employed in the private, state, and civil society sectors. The emergent professional middle class as a subject of the modern state help considerable power. with its access to primarily English-language education and opportunities for employment in both the private and public sectors. The state on one hand, developed an extended bureaucracy for running the state apparatus and on the other hand, gradually cultivated the market, creating employment opportunities for the middle classes and ensuring the participation of the middle classes in India's mixed economy. The participation of the middle classes in the Indian economy and in the cultivation of its imagination is a salient feature that plays out in the discursive arena. The success of the Indian state in this sense was intrinsically tied to the recrafting of an imagination of an independent India that, on one hand, putforth a narrative of the nation state and on the other hand, mobilised the market as a site for participation.

    1. ANotion of India
    2. BConcept of states
    3. CRole of power elites
    4. DParallel narratives of modernisation

    Answer: (C) Role of power elites

    Explanation

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  47. Question 47

    The elites were expected to

    Review flag: Same repeated passage source-level wording as Q46; preserved.

    Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

    The formation of the Indian state runs in a parallel narrative with the formation of its elite. Indian independence marked the powerful role of the elite in establishing an agenda of modernisation driven by an instrumentalist notion of the state. The elite were constituted in the emerging national space of an independent India as the drivers of social change processes, bringing Indian society into modernisation. The elite not only comprised of political power brokers and private interests, but also of a middle class educated in English and employed in the private, state, and civil society sectors. The emergent professional middle class as a subject of the modern state help considerable power. with its access to primarily English-language education and opportunities for employment in both the private and public sectors. The state on one hand, developed an extended bureaucracy for running the state apparatus and on the other hand, gradually cultivated the market, creating employment opportunities for the middle classes and ensuring the participation of the middle classes in India's mixed economy. The participation of the middle classes in the Indian economy and in the cultivation of its imagination is a salient feature that plays out in the discursive arena. The success of the Indian state in this sense was intrinsically tied to the recrafting of an imagination of an independent India that, on one hand, putforth a narrative of the nation state and on the other hand, mobilised the market as a site for participation.

    1. APromote private interests
    2. BSet private agenda
    3. CManage the civil society
    4. DChange the society

    Answer: (D) Change the society

    Explanation

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  48. Question 48

    The passage describes

    Review flag: Same repeated passage source-level wording as Q46; preserved.

    Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

    The formation of the Indian state runs in a parallel narrative with the formation of its elite. Indian independence marked the powerful role of the elite in establishing an agenda of modernisation driven by an instrumentalist notion of the state. The elite were constituted in the emerging national space of an independent India as the drivers of social change processes, bringing Indian society into modernisation. The elite not only comprised of political power brokers and private interests, but also of a middle class educated in English and employed in the private, state, and civil society sectors. The emergent professional middle class as a subject of the modern state help considerable power. with its access to primarily English-language education and opportunities for employment in both the private and public sectors. The state on one hand, developed an extended bureaucracy for running the state apparatus and on the other hand, gradually cultivated the market, creating employment opportunities for the middle classes and ensuring the participation of the middle classes in India's mixed economy. The participation of the middle classes in the Indian economy and in the cultivation of its imagination is a salient feature that plays out in the discursive arena. The success of the Indian state in this sense was intrinsically tied to the recrafting of an imagination of an independent India that, on one hand, putforth a narrative of the nation state and on the other hand, mobilised the market as a site for participation.

    1. AThe emergence of national space
    2. BThe elitist imagination of combining nation state with market
    3. CThe role of bureaucracy in modernising India
    4. DSocial change as a limited process

    Answer: (B) The elitist imagination of combining nation state with market

    Explanation

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  49. Question 49

    The middle class became powerful in India because of

    Review flag: Same repeated passage source-level wording as Q46; preserved.

    Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

    The formation of the Indian state runs in a parallel narrative with the formation of its elite. Indian independence marked the powerful role of the elite in establishing an agenda of modernisation driven by an instrumentalist notion of the state. The elite were constituted in the emerging national space of an independent India as the drivers of social change processes, bringing Indian society into modernisation. The elite not only comprised of political power brokers and private interests, but also of a middle class educated in English and employed in the private, state, and civil society sectors. The emergent professional middle class as a subject of the modern state help considerable power. with its access to primarily English-language education and opportunities for employment in both the private and public sectors. The state on one hand, developed an extended bureaucracy for running the state apparatus and on the other hand, gradually cultivated the market, creating employment opportunities for the middle classes and ensuring the participation of the middle classes in India's mixed economy. The participation of the middle classes in the Indian economy and in the cultivation of its imagination is a salient feature that plays out in the discursive arena. The success of the Indian state in this sense was intrinsically tied to the recrafting of an imagination of an independent India that, on one hand, putforth a narrative of the nation state and on the other hand, mobilised the market as a site for participation.

    1. AEnglish-language education
    2. BModernization of the country
    3. CProfessionalisation of politics
    4. DPopularity of power brokering

    Answer: (A) English-language education

    Explanation

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  50. Question 50

    The state ensured the middle class participation in

    Review flag: Same repeated passage source-level wording as Q46; preserved.

    Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

    The formation of the Indian state runs in a parallel narrative with the formation of its elite. Indian independence marked the powerful role of the elite in establishing an agenda of modernisation driven by an instrumentalist notion of the state. The elite were constituted in the emerging national space of an independent India as the drivers of social change processes, bringing Indian society into modernisation. The elite not only comprised of political power brokers and private interests, but also of a middle class educated in English and employed in the private, state, and civil society sectors. The emergent professional middle class as a subject of the modern state help considerable power. with its access to primarily English-language education and opportunities for employment in both the private and public sectors. The state on one hand, developed an extended bureaucracy for running the state apparatus and on the other hand, gradually cultivated the market, creating employment opportunities for the middle classes and ensuring the participation of the middle classes in India's mixed economy. The participation of the middle classes in the Indian economy and in the cultivation of its imagination is a salient feature that plays out in the discursive arena. The success of the Indian state in this sense was intrinsically tied to the recrafting of an imagination of an independent India that, on one hand, putforth a narrative of the nation state and on the other hand, mobilised the market as a site for participation.

    1. ANational politics
    2. BBureaucratisation of power
    3. CIndia's mixed economy
    4. DChanging the state apparatus

    Answer: (C) India's mixed economy

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Spotted a shift or questions missing from this paper?

Paper 2 — Management

Attempt this paper

100 questions with the answer key and explanations.

  1. Question 1

    Which one of the following factors is not a factor in case of wide span of management?

    1. AFast changes in external and internal environment
    2. BWell-defined plans for repetitive operations
    3. CEffective interaction between superior and subordinate
    4. DThorough training of subordinate

    Answer: (A) Fast changes in external and internal environment

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  2. Question 2

    Which one of the following principles of management states that for a group of activity having the same objective, there should be one head and one plan?

    1. AUnity of command
    2. BDivision of work
    3. CUnity of direction
    4. DCentralization

    Answer: (C) Unity of direction

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  3. Question 3

    In which of the following situation (s), a competitive firm is advised to shut down operations temporarily?

    1. AP < AVC
    2. BP < ATC
    3. CP < MC
    4. DP < MR

    Answer: (A) P < AVC

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  4. Question 4

    Percentage of output lost for each one point reduction in the inflation rate is called

    1. AInput and output ratio
    2. BCapital-output ratio
    3. CSacrifice ratio
    4. DTechnological quotient

    Answer: (C) Sacrifice ratio

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  5. Question 5

    Which one of the following is a taxable perquisite?

    1. AInsurance premium
    2. BSalary of servant employed by an employee
    3. CLoan to employees
    4. DAccommodation provided by the employer

    Accepted answers: (B) Salary of servant employed by an employee, (D) Accommodation provided by the employer

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  6. Question 6

    Which one of the following is the characteristic of organizational climate?

    1. AThere are policies that set forth the organization's beliefs about how employees and/or customers are to be treated
    2. BStandards of behaviour exist
    3. CWhen organizational participants interact with one another, they use common language
    4. DThis is an overall "feeling" that is conveyed by the physical layout and the way participants interact

    Answer: (D) This is an overall "feeling" that is conveyed by the physical layout and the way participants interact

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  7. Question 7

    Which one of the following is organizational process-related job stress?

    1. ALittle performance feed back
    2. BRole ambiguity
    3. CNo opportunity for advancement
    4. DRotating work shifts

    Answer: (A) Little performance feed back

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  8. Question 8

    Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a manager?

    1. ADoes the right thing
    2. BImitates
    3. CAsks how and when
    4. DAccepts the status quo

    Answer: (A) Does the right thing

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  9. Question 9

    According to the Economic Times study, which one of the following is India's best company to work for in 2021?

    1. ABlue Dart Express Limited
    2. BDHL Express India Private Limited
    3. CNTPC Limited
    4. DMax Life Insurance Company Limited

    Answer: (B) DHL Express India Private Limited

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  10. Question 10

    Which one of the following is the most significant factor according to the Dunlop Model of Industrial Relation?

    1. AExternal forces
    2. BManagement
    3. CLabour
    4. DGovernment

    Answer: (A) External forces

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  11. Question 11

    Which one of the following is not an intramural function of trade unions?

    1. AHike in wages
    2. BExtension of medical facilities during sickness and casualties
    3. CJob security
    4. DProviding more benefits

    Answer: (B) Extension of medical facilities during sickness and casualties

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  12. Question 12

    Which one of the following is a disadvantage of MBO as a performance appraisal tool?

    1. ADifficult to develop
    2. BTime-consuming
    3. CDifficult to rate or rank employees relative to one another
    4. DCan cause disagreements among employees

    Answer: (B) Time-consuming

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  13. Question 13

    Marston company sells a single product at a price of Rs.50 per unit, its fixed costs total Rs.15,000 and variable costs amount to Rs.20 per unit. If management reduces the sales price of this product by Rs. 5 per unit, the sales volume needed for the company to break even will:

    1. AIncrease by Rs. 5,000
    2. BIncrease by Rs. 4,500
    3. CIncrease by Rs. 2,000
    4. DRemain unchanged

    Answer: (C) Increase by Rs. 2,000

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  14. Question 14

    Nobel Laureate (2013) Robert Shiller advocates price earning ratio based on:

    1. ATrailing twelve months earnings
    2. BLatest four quarters earnings
    3. CAnalysts' forward earnings forecast
    4. DCyclically adjusted 10 years' earnings

    Answer: (D) Cyclically adjusted 10 years' earnings

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  15. Question 15

    The traditional accounting practice of resolving uncertainty by choosing the solution that leads to the lower amount of income being recognized in the current accounting period is based on which of the following accounting principles?

    1. ARealization
    2. BMatching
    3. CConservatism
    4. DMateriality

    Answer: (C) Conservatism

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  16. Question 16

    If a company's current ratio declined in a year during which its quick ratio improved, which of the following is the most likely explanation?

    1. AInventory is increasing
    2. BInventory is declining
    3. CReceivables are being collected more rapidly than in the past
    4. DReceivables are being collected more slowly than in the past

    Answer: (B) Inventory is declining

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  17. Question 17

    Earnings per share of a company is Rs.5 and the rate of return required by its shareholders is 16 per cent. Assuming Gordon valuation model, what rate of return should be earned on investment to ensure that the market price of its share is Rs.50 and the dividend pay out is 40 per cent?

    1. A20 per cent
    2. B16.67 per cent
    3. C33.33 percent
    4. D25 per cent

    Answer: (A) 20 per cent

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  18. Question 18

    In which of the following methods of capital budgeting, cash flows are reinvested at the cost of capital?

    1. AInternal rate of return (IRR)
    2. BNet Present Value (NPV)
    3. CPayback period
    4. DAccounting rate of return (ARR)

    Answer: (B) Net Present Value (NPV)

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  19. Question 19

    Which of the following is a pre-offer takeover defence employed by target companies in hostile takeovers?

    1. AGreen mail
    2. BPacman defence
    3. CPoison pills
    4. DLiability restructuring

    Answer: (C) Poison pills

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  20. Question 20

    In the absence of transactions costs, if a stock plots above the security market line (SML), it is:

    1. AOverpriced
    2. BUnderpriced
    3. CFairly priced
    4. DEfficiently priced

    Answer: (B) Underpriced

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  21. Question 21

    Retailer cooperatives belong to which of the following distribution channel systems?

    1. AContractual
    2. BAdministered
    3. CHorizontal
    4. DCorporate

    Answer: (A) Contractual

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  22. Question 22

    Which of the following is the correct explanation of resource-based approach?

    Source review note: Option A reproduces the source wording 'Internal sources ... internal forces' verbatim.

    1. AInternal sources are more important for a firm than internal forces for competitive advantage
    2. BProcess whereby a firm determines the costs associated with organizational activities
    3. CExternal factors are more important than internal factors for competitive advantage
    4. DEffective integration of both external and internal factors is the key to competitive advantage

    Answer: (A) Internal sources are more important for a firm than internal forces for competitive advantage

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  23. Question 23

    A copier machine company provides better after sales service to its existing customer to improve its (company) and product image and increase sales of accessories and consumables. Above given statement is an example of:

    1. AStability strategy aimed at customer functions
    2. BStability strategy aimed at customer groups
    3. CExpansion strategy aimed at customer groups
    4. DExpansion strategy aimed at customer functions

    Answer: (B) Stability strategy aimed at customer groups

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  24. Question 24

    Concept of 'fit' is central to which of the following schools of thought on strategy formulation?

    1. AThe positioning school
    2. BThe cognitive school
    3. CThe planning school
    4. DThe design school

    Accepted answers: (A) The positioning school, (D) The design school

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  25. Question 25

    How often and how easily customers think of the brand under various purchase or consumption situations, is known as:

    1. Abrand salience
    2. Bbrand resonance
    3. Cbrand feelings
    4. Dbrand imagery

    Answer: (A) brand salience

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  26. Question 26

    Huge stores that combine supermarket, discount and warehouse retailing are called:

    1. ADiscount store
    2. BCategory killer
    3. CHyper market
    4. DOff-price retailer

    Answer: (C) Hyper market

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  27. Question 27

    Central focus of which of the following models is five-stage consumer decision process?

    Source review note: Source spells the model as 'Hovard-Sheth Model'; retained without correction.

    1. ANicosia Model
    2. BHovard-Sheth Model
    3. CEngel-Kollat Blackwell model
    4. DSheth-Newman-Gross Model

    Answer: (C) Engel-Kollat Blackwell model

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  28. Question 28

    A salesperson who relies on creative methods for selling products and services is called:

    1. ADemand creator
    2. BMissionary
    3. CSolution vendor
    4. DDeliverer

    Answer: (A) Demand creator

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  29. Question 29

    Customers arrive at a reception counter at an average interval rate of 10 minutes and the receptionist takes an average of 6 minutes for one customer. The average queue length is:

    1. A3/10
    2. B9/10
    3. C11/10
    4. D7/10

    Answer: (B) 9/10

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  30. Question 30

    Which of the following is not an advantage of implementing a quality system that conform to ISO standards?

    1. AImprovement in employee involvement
    2. BImprovement in house keeping
    3. CImprovement in customer satisfaction
    4. DInefficient decision making

    Answer: (D) Inefficient decision making

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  31. Question 31

    A technique of building up a list or a sample of a special population by using an initial set of members as informants is called:

    1. AQuota sampling
    2. BConvenience sampling
    3. CSnowball sampling
    4. DPurposive sampling

    Answer: (C) Snowball sampling

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  32. Question 32

    Which of the following is true for the coefficient of correlation?

    1. AIt is not dependent on the change of scale
    2. BIt is not dependent on the change of origin
    3. CIt is not dependent on both the change of scale and change of origin
    4. DIt is dependent upon change of scale, but not dependent upon change of origin

    Answer: (C) It is not dependent on both the change of scale and change of origin

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  33. Question 33

    Which one of the following is not the disadvantage of international licensing?

    1. AInviting a potential competitor in third country markets
    2. BHigh agency costs
    3. CPossible loss of quality control
    4. DNo detailed involvement with foreign customers

    Answer: (D) No detailed involvement with foreign customers

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  34. Question 34

    Which one of the following is not the assumption of Theory of Absolute and Comparative advantage?

    1. ACountries are driven only by maximization of production and consumption
    2. BOnly two countries are engaged in the production and consumption of just two goods
    3. CThere are transportation costs for shipping goods from one country to another
    4. DLabour is the only factor of production that helps in converting the raw materials into finished products

    Answer: (C) There are transportation costs for shipping goods from one country to another

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  35. Question 35

    Which one of the following factor does not influence the flow of FDI under Demand factors?

    1. ACustomer access
    2. BFollow rivals
    3. CResource availability
    4. DExploitation of competitive advantage

    Answer: (C) Resource availability

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  36. Question 36

    Which of the following constitutes Foreign Direct Investment?

    1. AA speculator trying to make a profit by buying company shares on a foreign stock exchange
    2. BIndian energy company buying territory abroad where it expects to find oil reserve
    3. CA tourist purchasing foreign currency to spend on a holiday abroad
    4. DA company signing an agreement with a wholesaler to distribute its products in foreign markets

    Answer: (B) Indian energy company buying territory abroad where it expects to find oil reserve

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  37. Question 37

    Diffusion of innovation theory is associated with:

    1. APeter Drucker
    2. BSchumpeter
    3. CEverett Rogers
    4. DFrederick Taylor

    Answer: (C) Everett Rogers

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  38. Question 38

    Currently, the country with the highest level of entrepreneurial activity, represented by Global Entrepreneurship Index is:

    1. AKorea
    2. BNorway
    3. CUS
    4. DAustralia

    Answer: (C) US

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  39. Question 39

    The first and foremost important feature for a project to be successful is:

    1. AIt should have a legal support
    2. BIt should have adequate financing
    3. CIt should have a market
    4. DIt should benefit society

    Answer: (C) It should have a market

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  40. Question 40

    Which scheme on performance and credit rating has been launched by Union MSME Ministry to assess the credit worthiness and capabilities of industries in the sector?

    1. AZero Defect Scheme
    2. BCertification Performance and Economy Rating Scheme
    3. CPerformance and Credit Rating Scheme
    4. DIndustrial Incentive Scheme

    Answer: (C) Performance and Credit Rating Scheme

    Explanation

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  41. Question 41

    What are the problems commonly associated with the scientific management?

    A. Managers often implement only the increased output part of the plan
    B. Managers allow workers to share the benefit thus increased labour costs
    C. Jobs become over-simplified and repetitive, often replaced by new technology
    D. Workers feel comfortable due to job security and practiced work
    E. Workers do not feel comfortable because of heavy pressure of work

    Choose the correct answer from the options below:

    1. A(A), (C) and (D) only
    2. B(B), (C) and (D) only
    3. C(C) and (D) only
    4. D(A) and (C) only

    Answer: (D) (A) and (C) only

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  42. Question 42

    The assumptions of rational decision making are:

    A. Preferences are not clear
    B. Preferences are not constant and stable
    C. Problem is clear and unambiguous
    D. No time or cost constraint exist
    E. Final choice will maximize pay off

    Choose the correct answer from the options below:

    1. A(A), (C), (D), (E) only
    2. B(A), (B), (C) only
    3. C(C), (D), (E) only
    4. D(A), (B), (D), (E) only

    Answer: (C) (C), (D), (E) only

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  43. Question 43

    Efficacy of written communication depends upon:

    A. Lengthy presentation
    B. Editing after writing
    C. Brevity in sentences
    D. Use of strong words
    E. Effective use of words

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below:

    1. A(B), (C) and (E) only
    2. B(D) and (E) only
    3. C(B), (C), (D) only
    4. D(A), (C), (D), (E) only

    Answer: (A) (B), (C) and (E) only

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  44. Question 44

    An approach of managing international operations in which nationality is down-played and the firm actively searches on world-wide or regional basis for the best people to fill key positions, is known as:

    A. Geocentric approach
    B. Ethnocentric approach
    C. Polycentric approach

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below:

    1. A(A) and (B) only
    2. B(A) only
    3. C(B) and (C) only
    4. D(C) only

    Answer: (B) (A) only

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  45. Question 45

    Which of the following are the examples of need for status?

    A. Being in a position of authority over others
    B. Having executive privileges
    C. Participating in pleasant social activities
    D. Working for the right company in the right job
    E. Living in the right neighbourhood

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below:

    1. A(A), (B), (C) only
    2. B(B), (D), (E) only
    3. C(A), (D), (E) only
    4. D(A), (B), (C), (D) only

    Answer: (B) (B), (D), (E) only

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  46. Question 46

    Talent management process include(s):

    A. Human resource planning
    B. Selection of employees
    C. Development of employees
    D. Employee compensation
    E. Employee seperation

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below:

    Source review note: Source spells 'Employee seperation'; retained without correction.

    1. A(A), (B) only
    2. B(B), (C), (D) only
    3. C(C), (D), (E) only
    4. D(A), (B), (C), (D) only

    Answer: (D) (A), (B), (C), (D) only

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  47. Question 47

    Which of the following focus of OD interventions are relevant if the nature of intervention is structured?

    A. Reorganization
    B. Team development
    C. Counselling
    D. Work review
    E. MBO

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below:

    1. A(A), (B) only
    2. B(A), (D), (E) only
    3. C(B), (C), (E) only
    4. D(A), (B), (C), (E) only

    Answer: (B) (A), (D), (E) only

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  48. Question 48

    Which of the following technologies are fast changing the accounting ecosystems?

    A. Blockchain technology
    B. Enterprise Resource planning (ERP)
    C. Cloud computing
    D. Robotics
    E. Machine learning

    Choose the correct answer from the options below:

    1. A(A), (B) and (C) only
    2. B(C), (D) and (E) only
    3. C(A), (D), and (E) only
    4. D(A), (C) and (E) only

    Answer: (D) (A), (C) and (E) only

    Explanation

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  49. Question 49

    Which of the following are the underlying assumptions of cost-volume profit (CVP) analysis?

    A. Number of units produced and sold are equal
    B. Cost inputs and the output produced are linearly related
    C. Sales price and sales mix remain constant
    D. Zero base budgeting underly costs and pricing decisions
    E. Total fixed costs and variable cost per unit are constant

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Source review note: Statement D reproduces the source wording 'Zero base budgeting underly costs and pricing decisions' verbatim.

    1. A(A), (B), and (C) only
    2. B(C), (D) and (E) only
    3. C(A), (C), and (E) only
    4. D(B), (C) and (D) only

    Answer: (C) (A), (C), and (E) only

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  50. Question 50

    While preparing a budget, which of the following activities enable managers to do a better job of managing:

    A. Advance warning of and assignment of responsibility for conditions that require corrective action
    B. Develop new policy to improve control of inventory management
    C. Adjusting the budget to reflect different levels of sales or production
    D. Coordination of activities among all departments within the organization
    E. Creation of standards for evaluating performance

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(A), (B) and (C) only
    2. B(C), (D) and (E) only
    3. C(A), (D) and (E) only
    4. D(B), (C) and (D) only

    Answer: (C) (A), (D) and (E) only

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  51. Question 51

    Which of the following tests/ studies are related to testing of the weak form stock market efficiency?

    A. Event studies
    B. Size effect
    C. Runs test
    D. Price - Earnings (P/E) ratios
    E. Autocorrelation tests

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. A(A), (B) and (C) only
    2. B(C), (D) and (E) only
    3. C(A) and (C) only
    4. D(C) and (E) only

    Answer: (D) (C) and (E) only

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  52. Question 52

    Which of the following are essential characteristics of financial markets?

    A. Price continuity and depth
    B. Liquidity and marketability
    C. Normative governance and regulation
    D. Timely and accurate information flow
    E. Minimum transaction cost and informational efficiency

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. A(A), (B) and (C) only
    2. B(C), (D) and (E) only
    3. C(B), (C) and (D) only
    4. D(A), (B), (D) and (E) only

    Answer: (D) (A), (B), (D) and (E) only

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  53. Question 53

    Which of the following statements are true in context of customer value and satisfaction concept?

    A. Value perceptions increase with quality, service and price
    B. Customer value triad is primarily a combination of quality, service and price
    C. Marketing is the identification, creation, communication, delivery and monitoring of customers value
    D. If the perceived performance of the product matches with perceived expectations, the customer is delighted
    E. Satisfaction reflects a person's judgement of a product's perceived performance in relation to expectations

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(A), (B) and (C) only
    2. B(B), (C) and (D) only
    3. C(B), (C) and (E) only
    4. D(A), (D) and (E) only

    Answer: (C) (B), (C) and (E) only

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  54. Question 54

    Which of the following statements characterise the growth phase of product life-cycle?

    A. Build intensive distribution
    B. Maximize profit while defending market share
    C. Build awareness and interest in the mass market
    D. Diversify brand and items models
    E. Price to penetrate market

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. A(A), (B) and (C) only
    2. B(A), (C) and (E) only
    3. C(C), (D) and (E) only
    4. D(A), (D) and (E) only

    Answer: (B) (A), (C) and (E) only

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  55. Question 55

    Which of the following statements are true in the context of CRM (Customer Relationship Management) 2.0?

    A. Customer interactions are not pre planned but happen in real time
    B. Software as a service is the dominant CRM model particularly in small and medium-sized businesses
    C. Customer data is typically stored on corporate servers only
    D. Means available for analytics are only standard multivariate statistical procedures such as cluster analysis and logistic regression
    E. CRM 2.0 uses massive amounts of structured and unstructured data

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. A(A), (C) and (D) only
    2. B(B), (C) and (E) only
    3. C(A), (B) and (E) only
    4. D(C), (D) and (E) only

    Answer: (C) (A), (B) and (E) only

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  56. Question 56

    Penetration price strategy is followed under which of the following conditions?

    A. Where there is a high degree of price elasticity of demand
    B. When strong competition is expected soon after product introduction
    C. When company wants to recoup its research and development expenditure
    D. When company must keep demand within its production capacity

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. A(A) and (C) only
    2. B(B) and (D) only
    3. C(A) and (B) only
    4. D(A) and (D) only

    Answer: (C) (A) and (B) only

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  57. Question 57

    Which of the following are the myths of brand communities?

    A. Build the brand and the community will follow
    B. Focus on opinion leaders to build a strong community
    C. Brand communities exist to serve the business
    D. Online social networks are the best way to build community
    E. Social networks are one community tool, but the tool is not the strategy

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. A(A) and (E) only
    2. B(B), (E) and (D) only
    3. C(A), (B) and (C) only
    4. D(A), (B), (C) and (D) only

    Answer: (D) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

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  58. Question 58

    Which of the following statements are true?

    A. A good measure of dispersion is not duly affected by extreme observations
    B. Standard deviation incorporates the effect of extreme values thus making it most reliable measure of dispersion
    C. Co-efficient of determination (R²) is always positive and less than one
    D. Non parametric tests do not require us to make restrictive assumptions about shape of population distribution
    E. Z-test can not be applied when population is normal

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(A), (C), (D) only
    2. B(B), (D), (E) only
    3. C(D), (E) only
    4. D(A), (D), (E) only

    Answer: (A) (A), (C), (D) only

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  59. Question 59

    Indicate correct options of the following statements on data collection and questionnaire design:

    A. In order to ensure sufficiency of data, the field questionnaire must be 10% above the required number
    B. In structured interviews, interviewers attributes can significantly affect the respondent's replies
    C. Presentation of closed-ended questions and the general layout constitute important considerations in preparing a self administrated questionnaire
    D. In computer assisted data collection, degree of control over the interview process is high
    E. Description of important terminologies/jargons helps to improve the efficiency of respondent in filling the questionnaire

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. A(A), (B), (C), (D) only
    2. B(A), (C), (D), (E) only
    3. C(B), (C), (D), (E) only
    4. D(C), (D), (E) only

    Answer: (C) (B), (C), (D), (E) only

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  60. Question 60

    Which of the following statement(s) are true in the context of quality standards?

    A. KAIZEN approach deals with continuous improvement
    B. BIS represents India in ISO
    C. TQM cannot applied to crude oil refining
    D. Six sigma allows 3.4 defects per one million cases
    E. Statistical quality control applications are limited to manufacturing industries

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. A(C), (D), (E) only
    2. B(B), (C), (D) only
    3. C(A), (B), (D) only
    4. D(A), (D), (E) only

    Answer: (C) (A), (B), (D) only

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  61. Question 61

    Business intelligence is to improve the timeliness and quality of the input for decision-making. It helps the managers to understand which of the following:

    A. Internal capabilities of the organization
    B. Trends and future directions in the markets
    C. External environment such as economic, political, social and demographic environment
    D. Behaviour of the competitors
    E. External capabilities of the organization

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. A(A), (B), (C) and (D) only
    2. B(A), (D), (E) only
    3. C(A), (B), (D), (E) only
    4. D(A), (C) and (E) only

    Answer: (A) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

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  62. Question 62

    Data warehousing has various characteristics including:

    A. Focuses on modelling and analysis of data relating to a specific area
    B. Data warehouse is an integration of data from various systems like CRM system, SCM system, etc
    C. The time variant for a data warehouse has a historical perspective for example, past 10-20 years
    D. It is stored permanently i.e data once stored can not be updated
    E. It is stored temporarily i.e data once stored can be updated

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. A(B), (D), (E) only
    2. B(A), (B), (D) only
    3. C(A), (C), (D) only
    4. D(C), (E) only

    Answer: (B) (A), (B), (D) only

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  63. Question 63

    In regression model, assumptions of error term are:

    A. Zero-mean assumption
    B. Constant-variance assumption
    C. Dependence assumption
    D. Independence assumption
    E. Normality assumption

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(A), (C), (D), (E) only
    2. B(A), (B), (C) only
    3. C(B), (C), (D), (E) only
    4. D(A), (B), (D), (E) only

    Answer: (D) (A), (B), (D), (E) only

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  64. Question 64

    Reason(s) for sickness in small industries in India are:

    A. Minimal use of artificial intelligence in business
    B. Inability to cope up with large market size
    C. Lack of innovation and technology focus
    D. Direct and indirect competition from foreign players
    E. Absence of regulatory support

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. A(B), (D), (E) only
    2. B(A), (D), (E) only
    3. C(A), (B), (C) only
    4. D(B), (C), (D) only

    Answer: (D) (B), (C), (D) only

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  65. Question 65

    Innovative small firms are more likely to be in existence in which of the following sectors?

    A. Knowledge - based services
    B. Biotechnology
    C. Information technology
    D. Automobiles
    E. Cement

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. A(D), (E) only
    2. B(C), (D), (E) only
    3. C(A), (C) only
    4. D(B), (E) only

    Answer: (C) (A), (C) only

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  66. Question 66

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Management concepts and theories)List-II (Description)
    A. System theoryI. Customer oriented approach emphasizing human resources and quantitative methods to continuously improve
    B. Contingency theoryII. Concerned with formal patterns of arrangements and relationship developed by management
    C. Organization designIII. Based on open-systems theory and recognizes that there are many, internal and external factors that influence organizational behaviour
    D. Total Quality ManagementIV. All parts of an organization are interrelated and dependent on one another
    1. A(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
    2. B(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
    3. C(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
    4. D(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

    Answer: (A) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

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  67. Question 67

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Big Five Personality Traits)List-II (Descriptive characteristics)
    A. AgreeablenessI. Assertive
    B. Emotional stabilityII. Imaginative
    C. ExtroversionIII. Trusting
    D. Openness to experienceIV. Secure
    1. A(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
    2. B(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
    3. C(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
    4. D(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

    Answer: (B) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

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  68. Question 68

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Life Cycle of an MNC)List-II (Staffing approach)
    A. Setting up the host unitI. Polycentric approach is preferred
    B. Establishing the technology team to begin core operational activitiesII. Distinctly polycentric approach
    C. Full blown operations of the host unit with significant role in establishing global objectives and targetsIII. Distinctly polycentric approach; could get to geocentric approach
    D. Strong operational leadership at the unit level while globally consolidating with parent companyIV. Usually an ethnocentric or a geocentric approach
    1. A(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
    2. B(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
    3. C(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
    4. D(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

    Answer: (B) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

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  69. Question 69

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Costs and Financial Concepts)List-II (Mechanism and Measures)
    A. Financial leverageI. Contribution margin ÷ EBIT
    B. Contribution marginII. (EBIT) ÷ (EBIT - interest)
    C. Operating leverageIII. (Contribution margin) ÷ (EBIT - interest)
    D. Combined leverageIV. Sales - variable costs
    1. A(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
    2. B(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
    3. C(A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
    4. D(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

    Answer: (D) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

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  70. Question 70

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Characteristic based price factors)List-II (Descriptions)
    A. Volatility (VOL)I. Captures deviations from linearity in the relationship between returns and firm size
    B. Momentum (MOM)II. Uses returns to firms outside the equity universe to account for risk dimensions not captured by the other risk factors
    C. Size Non Linearity (SNL)III. Differentiates between stocks with positive and negative excess returns in the recent past
    D. Non Estimation Indicator (NEI)IV. Captures both long term and short term dimensions of relative returns variability
    1. A(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
    2. B(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
    3. C(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
    4. D(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

    Answer: (B) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

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  71. Question 71

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Company)List-II (Nature of business)
    A. Alliance airI. Swiss travel group
    B. DelhiveryII. Online travel company
    C. IxigoIII. State owned regional carrier
    D. KuoniIV. New age logistic and supply chain start up
    1. A(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
    2. B(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
    3. C(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
    4. D(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

    Answer: (B) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

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  72. Question 72

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Possible level of customer expectations)List-II (Example)
    A. Normative expectationsI. I expect this restaurant to serve me in an adequate manner
    B. Acceptable expectationsII. I expect terrible service from this restaurant but came because price is low
    C. Minimum trouble expectationsIII. Most of the times this restaurant is very good, but when it gets busy the service is slow
    D. Experience-based expectationsIV. As expensive as this restaurant is, it ought to have excellent food and service
    1. A(A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
    2. B(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
    3. C(A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
    4. D(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

    Answer: (C) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

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  73. Question 73

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Symbol)List-II (Process chart activity)
    A. D (Delay shape)I. Storage
    B. →II. Input
    C. ▽III. Delay
    D. □IV. Transport
    1. A(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
    2. B(A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
    3. C(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
    4. D(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

    Answer: (D) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

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  74. Question 74

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Trade concepts and terminology)List-II (Description)
    A. GATSI. Extends multilateral rules and disciplines to service
    B. TRIPSII. The agreement requires compliance with the provisions of Bern convention of 1886 to which India is a signatory
    C. TRIMSIII. Refers to certain conditions imposed by a government in respect of foreign investment in the country
    D. MFNIV. Prevents countries from discriminating among foreign suppliers of services
    1. A(A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
    2. B(A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
    3. C(A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
    4. D(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

    Answer: (A) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

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  75. Question 75

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Concepts)List-II (Institution/Schemes)
    A. Entrepreneurship and innovationI. Atal Tinkering lab
    B. Gaps in value chainsII. Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana
    C. Think TankIII. Atal Innovation Mission
    D. Machine learningIV. Niti Aayog
    1. A(A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
    2. B(A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
    3. C(A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
    4. D(A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

    Answer: (D) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

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  76. Question 76

    Arrange the following goods in the ascending order of the underlying income elasticity of demand.

    A. Necessities
    B. Inferior goods
    C. Normal goods
    D. Luxury goods
    E. Giffen goods

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(E), (B), (A), (C), (D)
    2. B(D), (C), (B), (A), (E)
    3. C(E), (B), (C), (D), (A)
    4. D(A), (D), (C), (B), (E)

    Answer: (A) (E), (B), (A), (C), (D)

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  77. Question 77

    Arrange the following steps of organizational socialization in the proper sequence:

    A. Select a good first supervisor to be incharge of socialization
    B. Provide a challenging first job
    C. Design a relaxed orientation program
    D. Provide timely and consistent feed back
    E. Provide relevant training

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(C), (E), (D), (B), (A)
    2. B(C), (D), (E), (A), (B)
    3. C(B), (E), (D), (A), (C)
    4. D(D), (A), (E), (B), (C)

    Answer: (C) (B), (E), (D), (A), (C)

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  78. Question 78

    Arrange the given stages of process of organisational change in the correct sequence.

    A. Information collection
    B. Diagnosis
    C. Motivation
    D. Action proposal
    E. Stabilization

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(C), (B), (A), (D), (E)
    2. B(A), (C), (D), (E), (B)
    3. C(D), (A), (C), (B), (E)
    4. D(A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

    Answer: (A) (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)

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  79. Question 79

    Arrange the following bond issues in increasing order of the underlying risk:

    A. Convertible bonds
    B. Callable bonds
    C. Mortgage bonds
    D. Unsecured bond
    E. Junk bonds

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(C), (B), (A), (D), (E)
    2. B(B), (C), (A), (D), (E)
    3. C(A), (C), (B), (E), (D)
    4. D(C), (A), (B), (D), (E)

    Answer: (A) (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)

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  80. Question 80

    Arrange the following in the ascending order in terms of their equity market capitalisation:

    A. India
    B. United States (USA)
    C. Hong Kong
    D. Japan
    E. China

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(B), (E), (A), (C), (D)
    2. B(D), (B), (C), (E), (A)
    3. C(B), (E), (D), (C), (A)
    4. D(A), (C), (D), (E), (B)

    Answer: (D) (A), (C), (D), (E), (B)

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  81. Question 81

    Arrange the following steps in the segmentation process in sequential order:

    A. Determine which demographics, life styles and usage behaviour make the segment distinct and actionable
    B. Create a 'value proposition' and product-price positioning strategy for each segment
    C. Group customers into segments based on similar needs and benefits sought by them
    D. Determine overall attractiveness of each segment based on some predetermined criteria
    E. Create 'segment story board' to list the attractiveness of each segment's positioning strategy

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(C), (A), (D), (E), (B)
    2. B(C), (A), (D), (B), (E)
    3. C(A), (C), (D), (B), (E)
    4. D(A), (D), (C), (B), (E)

    Answer: (B) (C), (A), (D), (B), (E)

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  82. Question 82

    Arrange the following modes of entry in foreign market starting with the mode of entry having least commitment, risk, control and profit potential:

    A. Company hires a local manufacturer to produce the product.
    B. Company starts exports working through domestic export agents and exports management companies.
    C. Company joins hands with local investor and forms a company in which both share ownership and control.
    D. Company starts export using domestic export department and overseas sales branch.
    E. Company offers a complete brand concept and operating system to an investor in return of certain fee.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(D), (B), (E), (C), (A)
    2. B(B), (D), (E), (A), (C)
    3. C(B), (D), (A), (E), (C)
    4. D(D), (B), (A), (E), (C)

    Answer: (C) (B), (D), (A), (E), (C)

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  83. Question 83

    What is the correct sequence of steps involved in the master production schedule preparation?

    A. Obtaining the net requirement of materials
    B. Revising the preliminary master production schedule to accommodate the inadequacy of materials
    C. Obtaining the specification on required production
    D. Assessing the inventory in hand and on order
    E. Determining the gross requirements of materials using MRP

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(A), (D), (C), (B), (E)
    2. B(A), (E), (C), (D), (B)
    3. C(B), (C), (A), (D), (E)
    4. D(C), (E), (D), (A), (B)

    Answer: (D) (C), (E), (D), (A), (B)

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  84. Question 84

    The main processing functions of information system are given below. Arrange them in sequencing order:

    A. Process transaction
    B. Maintain master file
    C. Process enquiry
    D. Process report
    E. Process interactive supper applications

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    Source review note: Statement E reproduces the source wording 'Process interactive supper applications' verbatim.

    1. A(A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
    2. B(A), (C), (D), (B), (E)
    3. C(A), (D), (C), (B), (E)
    4. D(A), (B), (D), (C), (E)

    Answer: (D) (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)

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  85. Question 85

    The steps involved in development of a project are given below. Arrange them in proper sequence:

    A. Selection of business idea for a detailed analysis from the competing ideas
    B. Project installation and initiation
    C. Feasibility analysis
    D. Identification of investment opportunity
    E. Arrangements for financing

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. A(D), (A), (C), (E), (B)
    2. B(A), (C), (E), (D), (B)
    3. C(B), (C), (A), (E), (D)
    4. D(C), (D), (E), (B), (A)

    Answer: (A) (D), (A), (C), (E), (B)

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  86. Question 86

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Employers use human resource management activities to help employees realize their full career potential.
    Statement II: Employers do this just because they gain by making better utilization of employees potential.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

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  87. Question 87

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Effective channel management calls for selecting intermediaries and training and motivating them in order to build long term partnership.
    Statement II: Channel integration must recognize the distinctive strengths of online and offline selling and maximize their joint contributions.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

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  88. Question 88

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Interest coverage ratio indicates how many times fixed interest charges are earned, based on the earnings available to pay these expenses.
    Statement II: One minus the reciprocal of interest coverage ratio indicates how far earnings could decline before it would be impossible to pay the interest charges from current earnings.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

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  89. Question 89

    Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

    Assertion (A): Sustained current account surplus encourages the government to liberalize imports and capital movements.
    Reason (R): The current account and balance of payments positions of a country can significantly influence its economic policies.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. BBoth (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
    3. C(A) is true but (R) is false
    4. D(A) is false but (R) is true

    Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

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  90. Question 90

    Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

    Assertion (A): Median is the middle most item in the set of numbers.
    Reason (R): Mode is not unduly affected by extreme values.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. BBoth (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
    3. C(A) is true but (R) is false
    4. D(A) is false but (R) is true

    Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

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  91. Question 91

    Which of the following could be the most appropriate title of the passage?

    Digital transformation has been a key theme of the Union Budget 2022 with announcements ranging from infrastructure status to data centers to taking fibre to all panchayats under the Bharatnet program. Introduction of a block chain based sovereign digital currency and setting up of 75 digital banking units, constitution of task force for animation, visual effects, gaming and comics (AVGC), launch of a digital university, digitalization of school education platforms and support for the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for large scale electronics manufacturing and IT hardware were also part of the overall focus.

    Announced in 2015 with the goal of ushering in digitally driven transformation in governance, economy and society, it has already led to the launch of new schemes as well as the expansion of others like Unified Payments Interface (UPI), the digital literacy program (PMGDISHA), e-hospital, Digilocker, Common Service Centers (CSCs) and the number of internet users has also grown to over 83 crores. It needs to ensure world class digital infrastructure including high speed broad-band connectivity and 5-G network, hyperscale data centers to make India a global hub for data centers and cloud. With increased focus on privacy, security and the need for storing data within the country, there are strong demand drivers in place for making investments in data centers attractive.

    Whole govt. approach and creation of new public digital platforms in major domains such as education, health, agriculture and logistics need to undergo a paradigm shift. There also needs to be strong focus on standard interoperability and using common technology platforms such as Aadhaar, UPI, Singlesign-on to make the development of new applications easier and faster. Creation of a vibrant startup ecosystem in artificial intelligence, machine learning, internet of things holds the key to achieving trillion-dollar digital economy goal.

    Further, there is an equally strong need to modernise digital laws in India to support growth of digital economy and address concerns on accountability of online platforms and increasing cyber security to create trust and confidence amongst the users in the online world, which is crucial for digital inclusion and to bring the remaining population into the digital world. A national policy on data governance is the need of hour so that access to data is made easier for research apart from a strong push for skilling and capacity building in digital technologies at all levels in partnership with the industry and academia to make India skill and talent capital of the world.

    1. ADigital Transformation
    2. BDigital India: Way Ahead
    3. CIndia: Digital and Skill Capital
    4. DVishava Guru Bharat: Digital Challenge

    Answer: (B) Digital India: Way Ahead

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  92. Question 92

    According to the passage, which one is the most crucial for the universalization of digital inclusion?

    Digital transformation has been a key theme of the Union Budget 2022 with announcements ranging from infrastructure status to data centers to taking fibre to all panchayats under the Bharatnet program. Introduction of a block chain based sovereign digital currency and setting up of 75 digital banking units, constitution of task force for animation, visual effects, gaming and comics (AVGC), launch of a digital university, digitalization of school education platforms and support for the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for large scale electronics manufacturing and IT hardware were also part of the overall focus.

    Announced in 2015 with the goal of ushering in digitally driven transformation in governance, economy and society, it has already led to the launch of new schemes as well as the expansion of others like Unified Payments Interface (UPI), the digital literacy program (PMGDISHA), e-hospital, Digilocker, Common Service Centers (CSCs) and the number of internet users has also grown to over 83 crores. It needs to ensure world class digital infrastructure including high speed broad-band connectivity and 5-G network, hyperscale data centers to make India a global hub for data centers and cloud. With increased focus on privacy, security and the need for storing data within the country, there are strong demand drivers in place for making investments in data centers attractive.

    Whole govt. approach and creation of new public digital platforms in major domains such as education, health, agriculture and logistics need to undergo a paradigm shift. There also needs to be strong focus on standard interoperability and using common technology platforms such as Aadhaar, UPI, Singlesign-on to make the development of new applications easier and faster. Creation of a vibrant startup ecosystem in artificial intelligence, machine learning, internet of things holds the key to achieving trillion-dollar digital economy goal.

    Further, there is an equally strong need to modernise digital laws in India to support growth of digital economy and address concerns on accountability of online platforms and increasing cyber security to create trust and confidence amongst the users in the online world, which is crucial for digital inclusion and to bring the remaining population into the digital world. A national policy on data governance is the need of hour so that access to data is made easier for research apart from a strong push for skilling and capacity building in digital technologies at all levels in partnership with the industry and academia to make India skill and talent capital of the world.

    1. AArtificial intelligence, machine learning and internet of things
    2. BNew Laws to promote accountability, cyber security and privacy
    3. CDigital promotion in education, health, agriculture and logistics
    4. DDigital skilling and capacity building

    Answer: (B) New Laws to promote accountability, cyber security and privacy

    Explanation

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  93. Question 93

    Assertion (A): India needs to modernize its digital Laws to support the rapid growth of the digital economy.
    Reason (R): New digital Laws are needed for digital inclusion and bringing more people to the digital world thus to increase digital users.

    Choose the correct option:

    Digital transformation has been a key theme of the Union Budget 2022 with announcements ranging from infrastructure status to data centers to taking fibre to all panchayats under the Bharatnet program. Introduction of a block chain based sovereign digital currency and setting up of 75 digital banking units, constitution of task force for animation, visual effects, gaming and comics (AVGC), launch of a digital university, digitalization of school education platforms and support for the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for large scale electronics manufacturing and IT hardware were also part of the overall focus.

    Announced in 2015 with the goal of ushering in digitally driven transformation in governance, economy and society, it has already led to the launch of new schemes as well as the expansion of others like Unified Payments Interface (UPI), the digital literacy program (PMGDISHA), e-hospital, Digilocker, Common Service Centers (CSCs) and the number of internet users has also grown to over 83 crores. It needs to ensure world class digital infrastructure including high speed broad-band connectivity and 5-G network, hyperscale data centers to make India a global hub for data centers and cloud. With increased focus on privacy, security and the need for storing data within the country, there are strong demand drivers in place for making investments in data centers attractive.

    Whole govt. approach and creation of new public digital platforms in major domains such as education, health, agriculture and logistics need to undergo a paradigm shift. There also needs to be strong focus on standard interoperability and using common technology platforms such as Aadhaar, UPI, Singlesign-on to make the development of new applications easier and faster. Creation of a vibrant startup ecosystem in artificial intelligence, machine learning, internet of things holds the key to achieving trillion-dollar digital economy goal.

    Further, there is an equally strong need to modernise digital laws in India to support growth of digital economy and address concerns on accountability of online platforms and increasing cyber security to create trust and confidence amongst the users in the online world, which is crucial for digital inclusion and to bring the remaining population into the digital world. A national policy on data governance is the need of hour so that access to data is made easier for research apart from a strong push for skilling and capacity building in digital technologies at all levels in partnership with the industry and academia to make India skill and talent capital of the world.

    1. ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. BBoth (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
    3. C(A) is true but (R) is false
    4. D(A) is false but (R) is true

    Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

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  94. Question 94

    What has been the focus for digital transformation in the India Union Budget, 2022?

    A. High speed broadband connectivity
    B. Accountability of online platforms
    C. Infrastructure status to data centres
    D. Increasing data and intellectual property security
    E. Task force for Animation, Visual effects, Gaming and Comics (AVGC)

    Choose the correct option:

    Digital transformation has been a key theme of the Union Budget 2022 with announcements ranging from infrastructure status to data centers to taking fibre to all panchayats under the Bharatnet program. Introduction of a block chain based sovereign digital currency and setting up of 75 digital banking units, constitution of task force for animation, visual effects, gaming and comics (AVGC), launch of a digital university, digitalization of school education platforms and support for the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for large scale electronics manufacturing and IT hardware were also part of the overall focus.

    Announced in 2015 with the goal of ushering in digitally driven transformation in governance, economy and society, it has already led to the launch of new schemes as well as the expansion of others like Unified Payments Interface (UPI), the digital literacy program (PMGDISHA), e-hospital, Digilocker, Common Service Centers (CSCs) and the number of internet users has also grown to over 83 crores. It needs to ensure world class digital infrastructure including high speed broad-band connectivity and 5-G network, hyperscale data centers to make India a global hub for data centers and cloud. With increased focus on privacy, security and the need for storing data within the country, there are strong demand drivers in place for making investments in data centers attractive.

    Whole govt. approach and creation of new public digital platforms in major domains such as education, health, agriculture and logistics need to undergo a paradigm shift. There also needs to be strong focus on standard interoperability and using common technology platforms such as Aadhaar, UPI, Singlesign-on to make the development of new applications easier and faster. Creation of a vibrant startup ecosystem in artificial intelligence, machine learning, internet of things holds the key to achieving trillion-dollar digital economy goal.

    Further, there is an equally strong need to modernise digital laws in India to support growth of digital economy and address concerns on accountability of online platforms and increasing cyber security to create trust and confidence amongst the users in the online world, which is crucial for digital inclusion and to bring the remaining population into the digital world. A national policy on data governance is the need of hour so that access to data is made easier for research apart from a strong push for skilling and capacity building in digital technologies at all levels in partnership with the industry and academia to make India skill and talent capital of the world.

    1. A(A), (B) and (C) Only
    2. B(A), (D) and (E) only
    3. C(B) and (D) only
    4. D(C) and (E) only

    Answer: (D) (C) and (E) only

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  95. Question 95

    Which of the following initiatives have already initiated India's digital transformation process in governance, economy and society?

    Digital transformation has been a key theme of the Union Budget 2022 with announcements ranging from infrastructure status to data centers to taking fibre to all panchayats under the Bharatnet program. Introduction of a block chain based sovereign digital currency and setting up of 75 digital banking units, constitution of task force for animation, visual effects, gaming and comics (AVGC), launch of a digital university, digitalization of school education platforms and support for the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for large scale electronics manufacturing and IT hardware were also part of the overall focus.

    Announced in 2015 with the goal of ushering in digitally driven transformation in governance, economy and society, it has already led to the launch of new schemes as well as the expansion of others like Unified Payments Interface (UPI), the digital literacy program (PMGDISHA), e-hospital, Digilocker, Common Service Centers (CSCs) and the number of internet users has also grown to over 83 crores. It needs to ensure world class digital infrastructure including high speed broad-band connectivity and 5-G network, hyperscale data centers to make India a global hub for data centers and cloud. With increased focus on privacy, security and the need for storing data within the country, there are strong demand drivers in place for making investments in data centers attractive.

    Whole govt. approach and creation of new public digital platforms in major domains such as education, health, agriculture and logistics need to undergo a paradigm shift. There also needs to be strong focus on standard interoperability and using common technology platforms such as Aadhaar, UPI, Singlesign-on to make the development of new applications easier and faster. Creation of a vibrant startup ecosystem in artificial intelligence, machine learning, internet of things holds the key to achieving trillion-dollar digital economy goal.

    Further, there is an equally strong need to modernise digital laws in India to support growth of digital economy and address concerns on accountability of online platforms and increasing cyber security to create trust and confidence amongst the users in the online world, which is crucial for digital inclusion and to bring the remaining population into the digital world. A national policy on data governance is the need of hour so that access to data is made easier for research apart from a strong push for skilling and capacity building in digital technologies at all levels in partnership with the industry and academia to make India skill and talent capital of the world.

    1. AAadhaar, UPI and Common Service Centers (CSCs)
    2. BProduction Linked Incentive Scheme
    3. CPM Gati Shakti Initiatives
    4. DIndustry academia participation for digital technologies

    Answer: (A) Aadhaar, UPI and Common Service Centers (CSCs)

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  96. Question 96

    __________ is a combination of standardization and differentiation, where the core strategy remains same, but __________ is made to take into account specific customer group requirement.

    ABG Global Ltd. is a large size cereal manufacturing company that markets its morning cereals products to various countries of the world. In order to cater to the local markets, the company makes small changes in its product like sweetness and flavours. The core product, branding and packaging are all standardised. The sales of products have witnessed an unexpected rise in various Asian markets including India in the past few years. In response to this growing demand, the company has pursued an aggressive strategy of marketing and producing its products by doubling its capacity. Last year, the company suffered a jolt, when its sales declined sharply. A careful analysis of market revealed that the market segment which adopted the company's product were upper-middle class representing families where both spouses are working. Initially it was glamorous to adopt cereals as alternative breakfast option. But, after certain time, they reverted back to traditional Indian breakfast. India, being a highly conventional market offers less scope for standardized global products. In a volatile demand structure wherein huge marketing efforts are required, inhouse doubling of production capacity can result in large unrecoverable investment, thus hinting towards alternative strategies. The CEO of the company is now laying emphasis on product positioning strategies. Replacing a full meal with a non-Indian food has a lower success rate calling for customization. As such brand equity may not work.

    1. APositioning, effort
    2. BEvaluation, segmentation
    3. CPenetration, improvement
    4. DFocus, differentiation

    Answer: (D) Focus, differentiation

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  97. Question 97

    A strategy aimed at reducing uncertainty faced by consumers when choosing products with unknown product quality is termed as

    ABG Global Ltd. is a large size cereal manufacturing company that markets its morning cereals products to various countries of the world. In order to cater to the local markets, the company makes small changes in its product like sweetness and flavours. The core product, branding and packaging are all standardised. The sales of products have witnessed an unexpected rise in various Asian markets including India in the past few years. In response to this growing demand, the company has pursued an aggressive strategy of marketing and producing its products by doubling its capacity. Last year, the company suffered a jolt, when its sales declined sharply. A careful analysis of market revealed that the market segment which adopted the company's product were upper-middle class representing families where both spouses are working. Initially it was glamorous to adopt cereals as alternative breakfast option. But, after certain time, they reverted back to traditional Indian breakfast. India, being a highly conventional market offers less scope for standardized global products. In a volatile demand structure wherein huge marketing efforts are required, inhouse doubling of production capacity can result in large unrecoverable investment, thus hinting towards alternative strategies. The CEO of the company is now laying emphasis on product positioning strategies. Replacing a full meal with a non-Indian food has a lower success rate calling for customization. As such brand equity may not work.

    1. AStandardization
    2. BInternationalization
    3. CCustomization
    4. DImprovisation

    Answer: (A) Standardization

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  98. Question 98

    __________ is a set of consumers who evince interest in the marketer's offer

    ABG Global Ltd. is a large size cereal manufacturing company that markets its morning cereals products to various countries of the world. In order to cater to the local markets, the company makes small changes in its product like sweetness and flavours. The core product, branding and packaging are all standardised. The sales of products have witnessed an unexpected rise in various Asian markets including India in the past few years. In response to this growing demand, the company has pursued an aggressive strategy of marketing and producing its products by doubling its capacity. Last year, the company suffered a jolt, when its sales declined sharply. A careful analysis of market revealed that the market segment which adopted the company's product were upper-middle class representing families where both spouses are working. Initially it was glamorous to adopt cereals as alternative breakfast option. But, after certain time, they reverted back to traditional Indian breakfast. India, being a highly conventional market offers less scope for standardized global products. In a volatile demand structure wherein huge marketing efforts are required, inhouse doubling of production capacity can result in large unrecoverable investment, thus hinting towards alternative strategies. The CEO of the company is now laying emphasis on product positioning strategies. Replacing a full meal with a non-Indian food has a lower success rate calling for customization. As such brand equity may not work.

    1. ATarget market
    2. BPotential market
    3. CLoyal market
    4. DSkimmed market

    Answer: (B) Potential market

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  99. Question 99

    While expanding business to new markets, analysis of following is required as a first step:

    ABG Global Ltd. is a large size cereal manufacturing company that markets its morning cereals products to various countries of the world. In order to cater to the local markets, the company makes small changes in its product like sweetness and flavours. The core product, branding and packaging are all standardised. The sales of products have witnessed an unexpected rise in various Asian markets including India in the past few years. In response to this growing demand, the company has pursued an aggressive strategy of marketing and producing its products by doubling its capacity. Last year, the company suffered a jolt, when its sales declined sharply. A careful analysis of market revealed that the market segment which adopted the company's product were upper-middle class representing families where both spouses are working. Initially it was glamorous to adopt cereals as alternative breakfast option. But, after certain time, they reverted back to traditional Indian breakfast. India, being a highly conventional market offers less scope for standardized global products. In a volatile demand structure wherein huge marketing efforts are required, inhouse doubling of production capacity can result in large unrecoverable investment, thus hinting towards alternative strategies. The CEO of the company is now laying emphasis on product positioning strategies. Replacing a full meal with a non-Indian food has a lower success rate calling for customization. As such brand equity may not work.

    1. ANeed for product improvement
    2. BAnalysis of current market position
    3. CNeed for technological infrastructure
    4. DPossibilities of marketing tie-ups

    Answer: (B) Analysis of current market position

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  100. Question 100

    In times of market uncertainties and low brand loyalties, the international firms should respond to spurt in demand for its products through:

    ABG Global Ltd. is a large size cereal manufacturing company that markets its morning cereals products to various countries of the world. In order to cater to the local markets, the company makes small changes in its product like sweetness and flavours. The core product, branding and packaging are all standardised. The sales of products have witnessed an unexpected rise in various Asian markets including India in the past few years. In response to this growing demand, the company has pursued an aggressive strategy of marketing and producing its products by doubling its capacity. Last year, the company suffered a jolt, when its sales declined sharply. A careful analysis of market revealed that the market segment which adopted the company's product were upper-middle class representing families where both spouses are working. Initially it was glamorous to adopt cereals as alternative breakfast option. But, after certain time, they reverted back to traditional Indian breakfast. India, being a highly conventional market offers less scope for standardized global products. In a volatile demand structure wherein huge marketing efforts are required, inhouse doubling of production capacity can result in large unrecoverable investment, thus hinting towards alternative strategies. The CEO of the company is now laying emphasis on product positioning strategies. Replacing a full meal with a non-Indian food has a lower success rate calling for customization. As such brand equity may not work.

    1. AFlexible inhouse capacities
    2. BBalancing local and global production
    3. COutsourcing
    4. DCustomized pricing

    Answer: (C) Outsourcing

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