UGC NET Management June 2024 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   If the number of kidney patients in South America decreases by 25%, what is the percentage decrease in the total number of kidney patients in the world?

   Table I shows the percentage distribution of patients with various diseases in the world in 2023. Table II shows the percentage distribution of all patients and kidney patients across continents. The total population of the world is 800 crore, and 10% of the population are patients.

   Table I: Disease-wise Patients

   Disease	Patients (%)
   Heart Disease	22%
   AIDS	10%
   TB	8%
   Hepatitis	6%
   Kidney Disease	30%
   Others	24%

   Table II: Continent-wise Patients

   Continent	All Patients (%)	Kidney Patients (%)
   Europe	10%	10%
   Australia	6%	5%
   South America	15%	40%
   Africa	25%	10%
   North America	12%	15%
   Asia	32%	20%

   1. A4%
   2. B8%
   3. C10%
   4. D5%

   Answer: (C) 10%

   Explanation

   Total kidney patients = 30% of total patients (80 crore, since 10% of 800 crore) = 24 crore. South America's share of kidney patients is 40% of 24 crore = 9.6 crore.

   A 25% decrease in South America's kidney patients removes 25% × 9.6 crore = 2.4 crore from the world total.

   Percentage decrease in world kidney patients = 2.4 / 24 × 100 = 10%.

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2. Question 2

   If the number of patients increases by 10% every year in Europe, what will be the difference between the number of patients in Europe after 2 years and the number of kidney patients in South America in 2023?

   Table I shows the percentage distribution of patients with various diseases in the world in 2023. Table II shows the percentage distribution of all patients and kidney patients across continents. The total population of the world is 800 crore, and 10% of the population are patients.

   Table I: Disease-wise Patients

   Disease	Patients (%)
   Heart Disease	22%
   AIDS	10%
   TB	8%
   Hepatitis	6%
   Kidney Disease	30%
   Others	24%

   Table II: Continent-wise Patients

   Continent	All Patients (%)	Kidney Patients (%)
   Europe	10%	10%
   Australia	6%	5%
   South America	15%	40%
   Africa	25%	10%
   North America	12%	15%
   Asia	32%	20%

   1. A8 lakh
   2. B9 lakh
   3. C7 lakh
   4. D5 lakh

   Answer: (A) 8 lakh

   Explanation

   Europe's 2023 patients = 10% of 80 crore = 8 crore. Growing at 10% per year for 2 years: 8 × 1.1² = 8 × 1.21 = 9.68 crore.

   South America's kidney patients in 2023 = 40% of 24 crore (total kidney patients) = 9.6 crore.

   Difference = 9.68 crore − 9.6 crore = 0.08 crore = 8 lakh (1 crore = 100 lakh).

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3. Question 3

   If the number of hepatitis patients increases by 6% and the number of heart-disease patients increases by 22%, what will be the new ratio of hepatitis patients to heart-disease patients?

   Table I shows the percentage distribution of patients with various diseases in the world in 2023. Table II shows the percentage distribution of all patients and kidney patients across continents. The total population of the world is 800 crore, and 10% of the population are patients.

   Table I: Disease-wise Patients

   Disease	Patients (%)
   Heart Disease	22%
   AIDS	10%
   TB	8%
   Hepatitis	6%
   Kidney Disease	30%
   Others	24%

   Table II: Continent-wise Patients

   Continent	All Patients (%)	Kidney Patients (%)
   Europe	10%	10%
   Australia	6%	5%
   South America	15%	40%
   Africa	25%	10%
   North America	12%	15%
   Asia	32%	20%

   1. A156 : 673
   2. B14 : 61
   3. C159 : 671
   4. D2 : 11

   Answer: (C) 159 : 671

   Explanation

   Hepatitis patients = 6% of 80 crore = 4.8 crore; heart-disease patients = 22% of 80 crore = 17.6 crore.

   After the stated growth: new hepatitis = 4.8 × 1.06 = 5.088 crore; new heart-disease = 17.6 × 1.22 = 21.472 crore.

   Ratio = 5.088 : 21.472 = 5088 : 21472 = 159 : 671 after dividing both terms by 32.

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4. Question 4

   The number of kidney patients in Australia is approximately what percentage of the number of heart-disease patients in the world?

   Table I shows the percentage distribution of patients with various diseases in the world in 2023. Table II shows the percentage distribution of all patients and kidney patients across continents. The total population of the world is 800 crore, and 10% of the population are patients.

   Table I: Disease-wise Patients

   Disease	Patients (%)
   Heart Disease	22%
   AIDS	10%
   TB	8%
   Hepatitis	6%
   Kidney Disease	30%
   Others	24%

   Table II: Continent-wise Patients

   Continent	All Patients (%)	Kidney Patients (%)
   Europe	10%	10%
   Australia	6%	5%
   South America	15%	40%
   Africa	25%	10%
   North America	12%	15%
   Asia	32%	20%

   1. A6.01%
   2. B6.82%
   3. C5.49%
   4. D7.85%

   Answer: (B) 6.82%

   Explanation

   Australia's kidney patients = 5% of 24 crore (total kidney patients) = 1.2 crore. Heart-disease patients worldwide = 22% of 80 crore = 17.6 crore.

   Required percentage = 1.2 / 17.6 × 100 ≈ 6.82%.

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5. Question 5

   What is the ratio of the total number of patients in Africa to the total number of kidney patients in Asia and North America together?

   Table I shows the percentage distribution of patients with various diseases in the world in 2023. Table II shows the percentage distribution of all patients and kidney patients across continents. The total population of the world is 800 crore, and 10% of the population are patients.

   Table I: Disease-wise Patients

   Disease	Patients (%)
   Heart Disease	22%
   AIDS	10%
   TB	8%
   Hepatitis	6%
   Kidney Disease	30%
   Others	24%

   Table II: Continent-wise Patients

   Continent	All Patients (%)	Kidney Patients (%)
   Europe	10%	10%
   Australia	6%	5%
   South America	15%	40%
   Africa	25%	10%
   North America	12%	15%
   Asia	32%	20%

   1. A3 : 1
   2. B2 : 1
   3. C49 : 22
   4. D50 : 21

   Answer: (D) 50 : 21

   Explanation

   Africa's total patients = 25% of 80 crore = 20 crore.

   Asia's kidney patients = 20% of 24 crore = 4.8 crore; North America's kidney patients = 15% of 24 crore = 3.6 crore; together = 8.4 crore.

   Ratio = 20 : 8.4 = 50 : 21 after multiplying both terms by 10 and dividing by 4.

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6. Question 6

   Match List I with List II.

   List I (Communication form)	List II (Description)
   A. Personal address	I. Sequential accounts told and retold from a particular viewpoint
   B. Social drama	II. Subject to a community's rules for appropriate conduct
   C. Narratives	III. Points to self and others in interaction
   D. Silence	IV. Invokes local socio-cultural rules for behavior

   1. AA-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
   2. BA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
   3. CA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
   4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

   Answer: (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

   Explanation

   A-III: personal address forms — names, pronouns, terms of address — are what 'point to self and others in interaction,' marking speaker and addressee within a conversation.

   B-IV: a social drama unfolds through a community's own socio-cultural conventions of breach, crisis, and redress, so it 'invokes local socio-cultural rules for behavior' rather than merely being subject to a fixed code of conduct.

   C-I: narratives are, by definition, 'sequential accounts told and retold from a particular viewpoint' — the same events retold and reshaped across tellings.

   D-II: silence in a culture follows the community's own norms of when speech is or is not appropriate, so it is 'subject to a community's rules for appropriate conduct.'

   Mapping: A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.

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7. Question 7

   Employment of classroom technology needs clarity with regard to:

   A. Instructional messages
   B. Course objectives
   C. Technological competencies
   D. Experience of failures
   E. Institutional indolence

   1. AA, B and C
   2. BB, C and D
   3. CC, D and E
   4. DA, D and E

   Answer: (A) A, B and C

   Explanation

   Before deploying classroom technology, three things need to be clear: A. Instructional messages — what content/message the technology is meant to convey, B. Course objectives — what learning outcome it serves, and C. Technological competencies — whether teachers and learners can actually use the tool.

   D. Experience of failures and E. Institutional indolence describe barriers to adoption, not prerequisites of clarity, so they do not belong in this list.

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8. Question 8

   Arrange the following sections of a research dissertation in the correct sequence.

   A. Acknowledgment
   B. Research Methods
   C. Discussion
   D. Literature Review

   1. AA, B, C, D
   2. BB, D, C, A
   3. CD, B, C, A
   4. DA, D, B, C

   Answer: (D) A, D, B, C

   Explanation

   A dissertation opens with front matter — A. Acknowledgment — before the main chapters begin. The chapter sequence then runs D. Literature Review (situating the study), B. Research Methods (how the study was conducted), and C. Discussion (interpreting the results).

   Sequence: A, D, B, C.

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9. Question 9

   Identify the correct sequence, from earliest to latest, of the following universities established in twentieth-century India.

   A. Osmania University
   B. Aligarh Muslim University
   C. SNDT Women's University
   D. Nagpur University
   E. Patna University

   1. AE, A, C, B, D
   2. BC, E, A, B, D
   3. CD, A, C, E, B
   4. DA, D, E, B, C

   Answer: (B) C, E, A, B, D

   Explanation

   Founding years: SNDT Women's University (C) — 1916; Patna University (E) — 1917; Osmania University (A) — 1918; Aligarh Muslim University (B) — 1920; Nagpur University (D) — 1923.

   Earliest to latest: C, E, A, B, D.

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10. Question 10

    Which of the following refers to a sampling approach in structured observation whereby a sampled individual is observed for a set period of time?

    1. AFocal sampling
    2. BSnowball sampling
    3. CPurposive sampling
    4. DCluster sampling

    Answer: (A) Focal sampling

    Explanation

    Focal sampling is the structured-observation technique where one sampled individual is observed continuously for a fixed time interval before moving to the next.

    • B. Snowball sampling — a way of recruiting participants through referrals, not an observation technique.
    • C. Purposive sampling — deliberately selecting a sample based on judgement, unrelated to timed observation.
    • D. Cluster sampling — sampling by naturally occurring groups, not individual time-based observation.

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11. Question 11

    Which of the following are characteristics of mass communication?

    A. Homogeneous audience
    B. Professional communication as a source
    C. Immediate feedback
    D. Use of medium
    E. Rapid transmission of messages

    1. AA, B and C
    2. BB, C and D
    3. CC, D and E
    4. DB, D and E

    Answer: (D) B, D and E

    Explanation

    Mass communication is produced by B. professional communicators/organizations, relies on D. a medium (print, broadcast, digital) to reach its audience, and achieves E. rapid transmission of messages to large numbers of people simultaneously.

    A is wrong because mass communication reaches a large, heterogeneous (not homogeneous) and often anonymous audience. C is wrong because feedback in mass communication is typically delayed and indirect, not immediate.

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12. Question 12

    In Buddhist thought, self-reflexivity is built into the process of:

    1. APower relations
    2. BReligious change
    3. CVerbal communication
    4. DPoliticisation

    Answer: (C) Verbal communication

    Explanation

    In Buddhist thought, mindful attention to one's own speech-in-progress means self-reflexivity is treated as built into the very process of verbal communication itself, not as a separate faculty applied to it afterward.

    The other options — power relations, religious change, politicisation — describe contexts communication can be embedded in, not the process singled out by this idea.

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13. Question 13

    Arrange the following fractions in increasing order.

    A. 14/17
    B. 11/13
    C. 7/9
    D. 16/19

    1. AC, A, B, D
    2. BC, A, D, B
    3. CA, D, C, B
    4. DB, C, A, D

    Answer: (B) C, A, D, B

    Explanation

    The fastest way to compare fractions like these is to convert each to a decimal rather than cross-multiplying every pair. A = 14/17 ≈ 0.824, B = 11/13 ≈ 0.846, C = 7/9 ≈ 0.778, D = 16/19 ≈ 0.842.

    Notice each fraction is 'one short' of a whole number over its denominator (17−14=3, 13−11=2, 9−7=2, 19−16=3), so the fraction closest to 1 belongs to the pair with the smallest relative shortfall — that intuition confirms B and D are the two largest, and C, with the biggest proportional gap (2/9), is the smallest.

    Increasing order: C (0.778) < A (0.824) < D (0.842) < B (0.846).

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14. Question 14

    What is the correct sequence, from lower number to higher, of the following related to Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)?

    A. Number of Publications
    B. Number of Goals
    C. Number of Targets
    D. Number of Indicators

    1. AA, B, C, D
    2. BB, D, C, A
    3. CB, C, D, A
    4. DC, B, A, D

    Answer: (C) B, C, D, A

    Explanation

    The SDGs comprise B. 17 Goals, broken into C. 169 Targets, tracked by D. 231 global Indicators. The number of publications and reports discussing the SDGs worldwide (A) vastly exceeds all three of these fixed counts.

    Lower to higher: B, C, D, A.

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15. Question 15

    Which of the following are National Coordinators appointed for SWAYAM?

    A. IIM Bangalore
    B. NPTEL
    C. NIOS
    D. BITE
    E. CEC

    1. AB and D
    2. BC, D and E
    3. CA, B and C
    4. DA, B, C and E

    Answer: (D) A, B, C and E

    Explanation

    SWAYAM's nine National Coordinators include A. IIM Bangalore (management studies), B. NPTEL (engineering, run by the IITs), C. NIOS (school-level education), and E. CEC (undergraduate non-technology courses), alongside AICTE, UGC, NCERT, IGNOU, and NITTTR.

    D. BITE is not one of the designated National Coordinators.

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16. Question 16

    Which of the following statements are true?

    A. Truth and falsehood are attributes of individual propositions.
    B. Validity can never apply to any single proposition by itself.
    C. In a valid argument, all the premises have to be true.
    D. A valid deductive argument cannot have all true premises and a false conclusion.

    1. AA, B and D
    2. BA and C
    3. CA, C and D
    4. DC and D

    Answer: (A) A, B and D

    Explanation

    A is true: truth/falsehood are properties of individual propositions. B is true: validity is a property of the reasoning connecting premises to a conclusion, so it cannot apply to a lone proposition. D is true: it is the defining property of a valid deductive argument that true premises cannot lead to a false conclusion.

    C is false — validity depends only on logical form; a valid argument can have false premises (and still be valid, though not sound).

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17. Question 17

    Match the following water-specific diseases with their examples.

    Water-specific diseases	Examples
    A. Waterborne diseases (due to ingestion of polluted water)	I. Malaria
    B. Water-washed diseases (due to lack of cleaning water)	II. Schistosomiasis
    C. Water-based diseases (due to contact with polluted water)	III. Typhoid
    D. Water-related diseases (due to habitation of disease-causing parasites in polluted water)	IV. Trachoma

    1. AA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    2. BA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    3. CA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    4. DA-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

    Answer: (B) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    A-III: waterborne diseases spread by ingesting contaminated water, such as typhoid. B-IV: water-washed diseases result from insufficient water for hygiene, such as trachoma. C-II: water-based diseases need a water-dwelling intermediate host, as in schistosomiasis (via infected snails). D-I: water-related diseases involve vectors that breed in water, such as the mosquitoes that transmit malaria.

    Mapping: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.

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18. Question 18

    Which one of the following is an extremely short-lived and unstable air/water pollutant?

    1. ASMOG
    2. BVolatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)
    3. CPersistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
    4. DPolycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons (PAHs)

    Answer: (B) Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)

    Explanation

    Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are highly reactive and evaporate readily, making them extremely short-lived and unstable in air and water.

    Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) and PAHs are, by definition, long-lived and resistant to breakdown — the opposite of what the question asks — and smog is a visible mixture/phenomenon, not itself a short-lived unstable compound.

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19. Question 19

    Match the following words with the codes formed using the same rule.

    Words	Codes
    A. BOLT	I. 52
    B. RING	II. 50
    C. SOLD	III. 49
    D. FROM	IV. 48

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    In word-to-number coding questions, always test the simplest rule first: the sum of each letter's position in the alphabet (A=1 … Z=26). Here that rule fits all four codes at once, which confirms it's the intended pattern rather than a coincidence.

    BOLT: B(2)+O(15)+L(12)+T(20) = 49 → III
    RING: R(18)+I(9)+N(14)+G(7) = 48 → IV
    SOLD: S(19)+O(15)+L(12)+D(4) = 50 → II
    FROM: F(6)+R(18)+O(15)+M(13) = 52 → I

    Mapping: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.

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20. Question 20

    A culture that is not touched by communication of alphabetic writing is known as a culture of:

    1. ALiteracy
    2. BTypography
    3. CExclusivity
    4. DPrimary Orality

    Answer: (D) Primary Orality

    Explanation

    Walter Ong's term 'primary orality' describes a culture wholly untouched by writing — knowledge and communication exist only through spoken word and memory.

    Literacy and typography describe cultures shaped by writing/print, and 'exclusivity' is not a recognized term for this concept.

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21. Question 21

    Which of the following are true about Solar Thermal Energy Collectors (STECs)?

    A. The basic unit of STEC is a solar cell.
    B. STECs may be flat-plate or concentrating type.
    C. Temperature in STECs may rise over a thousand degrees centigrade.
    D. STECs can produce electricity.
    E. A paraboloid dish collector is an example of STEC where temperature can go up to 2000°C.

    1. AA and D
    2. BB, C, D and E
    3. CA, B, C and E
    4. DA, B, C, D and E

    Answer: (B) B, C, D and E

    Explanation

    STECs collect solar radiation as heat using an absorber, not a solar cell — a solar cell converts light directly to electricity via the photovoltaic effect, which is a different technology. This rules out A.

    B is true: collectors are built as flat-plate or concentrating types. C and E are true: concentrating designs, including paraboloid dish collectors, can reach temperatures up to roughly 2000°C. D is true: the heat from STECs can drive turbines to generate electricity, as in concentrated solar power plants.

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22. Question 22

    International Solar Alliance (ISA) is an alliance of countries, most of which lie partially or completely:

    1. AAbove the Tropic of Cancer
    2. BBelow the Tropic of Capricorn
    3. CBetween the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn
    4. DIn the Southern Hemisphere

    Answer: (C) Between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn

    Explanation

    The International Solar Alliance targets countries with abundant year-round sunshine, which are concentrated between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn — the tropical belt.

    Countries wholly above the Tropic of Cancer or below the Tropic of Capricorn receive comparatively less direct annual solar radiation, so they are not the Alliance's core membership zone.

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23. Question 23

    The systematic elimination of extraneous variables other than those you are interested in can be achieved in:

    1. AQualitative research
    2. BCorrelational research
    3. CExperimental research
    4. DLongitudinal research

    Answer: (C) Experimental research

    Explanation

    Experimental research uses controlled conditions — random assignment, control groups, and manipulation of only the variable of interest — to systematically eliminate the influence of extraneous variables.

    Qualitative, correlational, and longitudinal designs describe or track variables as they naturally occur, without this level of control.

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24. Question 24

    Arrange the following in order of increasing connotation.

    A. Domestic Animal
    B. Animal
    C. Horse
    D. Beast of burden

    1. AC, D, B, A
    2. BB, A, C, D
    3. CB, A, D, C
    4. DC, D, A, B

    Answer: (C) B, A, D, C

    Explanation

    Connotation (the specificity of meaning a word carries) increases as a term narrows: B. Animal (broadest, least connotation) → A. Domestic Animal (narrower) → D. Beast of burden (narrower still, functional) → C. Horse (most specific, most connotation).

    Increasing connotation: B, A, D, C.

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25. Question 25

    If (L)ₘ represents a number L in the base-M number system, identify the correct ascending order of the following numbers A–D when converted to base 10.

    A. (8B)₁₆
    B. (212)₈
    C. (260)₇
    D. (10001101)₂

    1. AB, A, C, D
    2. BD, C, A, B
    3. CA, B, C, D
    4. DC, D, B, A

    Answer: (A) B, A, C, D

    Explanation

    Each number must be converted to base 10 by multiplying every digit by its place value (the base raised to the digit's position, counting from 0 on the right) and summing the results.

    A. (8B)₁₆: digit B = 11 in hex, so 8×16¹ + 11×16⁰ = 128 + 11 = 139
    B. (212)₈: 2×8² + 1×8¹ + 2×8⁰ = 128 + 8 + 2 = 138
    C. (260)₇: 2×7² + 6×7¹ + 0×7⁰ = 98 + 42 + 0 = 140
    D. (10001101)₂: 1×2⁷ + 0 + 0 + 0 + 1×2³ + 1×2² + 0 + 1×2⁰ = 128 + 8 + 4 + 1 = 141

    All four values land within a narrow range (138–141), so the exact arithmetic — not an estimate — is what separates them.

    Ascending order: B (138), A (139), C (140), D (141).

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26. Question 26

    "I believe I will do well in this class," Ram declared to his brother. "I received a perfect score in the verbal part of the SAT, and I have always excelled in my literature classes." Ram is demonstrating which of the following?

    1. AHigher self-esteem
    2. BHigh levels of empathy
    3. CHigh self-efficacy in literature
    4. DLow self-efficacy in literature

    Answer: (C) High self-efficacy in literature

    Explanation

    Ram bases his confidence specifically on past success in verbal/literature tasks — a perfect SAT verbal score and consistent excellence in literature classes. This is self-efficacy: a domain-specific belief in one's own competence built from prior mastery experiences, here specifically in literature.

    It is not general self-esteem (a broader sense of self-worth) or empathy (understanding others' feelings), and it is clearly high, not low, self-efficacy.

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27. Question 27

    Match the following Internet protocols with their Internet activities.

    Internet Protocol	Internet Activity
    A. HTTP	I. Sends email through the Internet
    B. SSL	II. Encrypts data for online transmission
    C. SMTP	III. Sends TCP/IP packets to a web server for displaying web pages
    D. FTP	IV. Transfers files over the Internet

    1. AA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    2. BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    3. CA-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
    4. DA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

    Answer: (D) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

    Explanation

    A-III: HTTP sends the TCP/IP packets that display web pages. B-II: SSL encrypts data for secure online transmission. C-I: SMTP sends email across the internet. D-IV: FTP transfers files between systems.

    Mapping: A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV.

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28. Question 28

    Match the following colleges with their founders.

    College	Founder
    A. Poona College for Hindu Learning	I. Alexander Duff
    B. Hindu College, Kolkata (Presidency College)	II. M. Elphinstone
    C. Bishop College, Sibpur	III. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
    D. Scottish Missionary College, Kolkata	IV. Church of England

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Explanation

    A-II: the Poona College for Hindu Learning (Poona Sanskrit College) was established under Mountstuart Elphinstone's patronage. B-III: Hindu College, Kolkata (later Presidency College) is credited to Raja Ram Mohan Roy, alongside other reformers. C-IV: Bishop's College, Sibpur was founded under the auspices of the Church of England. D-I: the Scottish (General Assembly's) Missionary College, Kolkata was founded by the Scottish missionary Alexander Duff.

    Mapping: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.

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29. Question 29

    Identify the four quadrants of the courses hosted on SWAYAM.

    A. Self-assessment tests
    B. Video lecture
    C. Online discussion forum for clearing doubts
    D. Specially prepared reading material that can be downloaded/printed
    E. Face-to-face interaction among learners

    1. AA, B, D and E
    2. BA, B, C and D
    3. CC, D and E
    4. DC and E

    Answer: (B) A, B, C and D

    Explanation

    SWAYAM structures every course around four quadrants: B. video lecture, D. downloadable/printable reading material, A. self-assessment tests, and C. an online discussion forum for doubt resolution.

    E. Face-to-face interaction is not one of the four quadrants — SWAYAM is designed as a fully online, self-paced platform.

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30. Question 30

    Match the following threats to internal validity with their descriptions.

    Threats to Internal Validity	Description
    A. Maturation threat	I. When participants' behavior changes as a function of having been tested previously.
    B. Attrition threat	II. When some event outside the research project affects participants systematically.
    C. History threat	III. Occurs because of short- or long-term changes in participants due to psychological changes such as boredom, fatigue, etc.
    D. Testing threat	IV. When participants drop out of a study, leading to a change in the nature of the sample.

    1. AA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    2. BA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    3. CA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    4. DA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Answer: (B) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    A-III: maturation threats arise from short- or long-term psychological changes in participants, such as boredom or fatigue. B-IV: attrition threats occur when participants drop out, altering the sample. C-II: history threats occur when an outside event systematically affects participants during the study. D-I: testing threats occur when prior testing itself changes participants' subsequent behavior.

    Mapping: A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.

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31. Question 31

    A 500 m long train running at a speed of 100 m/s crosses a tunnel in 10 seconds. What is the length of the tunnel?

    1. A200 m
    2. B500 m
    3. C800 m
    4. D1000 m

    Answer: (B) 500 m

    Explanation

    Distance covered while crossing the tunnel = speed × time = 100 m/s × 10 s = 1000 m.

    This distance equals the train's length plus the tunnel's length, so tunnel length = 1000 − 500 = 500 m.

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32. Question 32

    Which digital platform of the Ministry of Education has been formed by merging three consortium initiatives, namely UGC-INFONET Digital Library Consortium, NLIST, and INDEST-AICTE Consortium?

    1. AShodh Ganga
    2. Be-Shodh Sindhu
    3. CE-Vidwan
    4. DShodh Shuddhi

    Answer: (B) e-Shodh Sindhu

    Explanation

    e-Shodh Sindhu, launched by the Ministry of Education, was formed by merging the UGC-INFONET Digital Library Consortium, NLIST, and the INDEST-AICTE Consortium into a single national digital library and information platform for academic institutions.

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33. Question 33

    Which of the following computer devices are output devices only?

    A. Trackball
    B. CRT monitor
    C. Number pad
    D. Plotter

    1. AA and B
    2. BA, B and D
    3. CC and D
    4. DB and D

    Answer: (D) B and D

    Explanation

    B. CRT monitor and D. Plotter only display or print output — they cannot send data back into the computer as input.

    A. Trackball and C. Number pad are input devices, used to send data or commands to the computer.

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34. Question 34

    A sum of 50 is divided among A, B and C. A is 5 less than B, and B is 10 less than C. What is the ratio A : B : C?

    1. A1 : 2 : 3
    2. B2 : 3 : 4
    3. C1 : 2 : 4
    4. D2 : 3 : 5

    Answer: (D) 2 : 3 : 5

    Explanation

    Express every unknown in terms of a single variable before summing — here, B is the natural anchor since both other values are defined relative to it. Let B = x. Then A = x − 5 (A is 5 less than B) and C = x + 10 (B is 10 less than C, so C is 10 more than B).

    Substituting into the total: (x − 5) + x + (x + 10) = 50 → 3x + 5 = 50 → 3x = 45 → x = 15.

    So A = 15 − 5 = 10, B = 15, C = 15 + 10 = 25 (and 10 + 15 + 25 = 50, confirming the total). The ratio A : B : C = 10 : 15 : 25 simplifies by dividing through by 5 to 2 : 3 : 5.

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35. Question 35

    Identify the scale/scales of measurement that would allow the ranking of observations.

    A. Nominal scale
    B. Ordinal scale
    C. Interval scale
    D. Ratio scale

    1. AA, B and C
    2. BB, C and D
    3. CB only
    4. DA and B

    Answer: (B) B, C and D

    Explanation

    B. Ordinal, C. Interval, and D. Ratio scales all order observations along a scale, so they all permit ranking.

    A. Nominal scales only label categories (like colors or names) with no inherent order, so they do not allow ranking.

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36. Question 36

    Who proposed the stored-program computer concept around 1945?

    1. AAlan Turing
    2. BTim Berners-Lee
    3. CCharles Babbage
    4. DJohn von Neumann

    Answer: (D) John von Neumann

    Explanation

    John von Neumann proposed the stored-program computer architecture around 1945 in his 'First Draft of a Report on the EDVAC,' describing a computer that stores both instructions and data in the same memory.

    Alan Turing contributed the theoretical basis of computation, Charles Babbage designed earlier mechanical calculating engines, and Tim Berners-Lee later invented the World Wide Web — none proposed the stored-program concept.

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37. Question 37

    Which fallacy is committed in the statement: "Tarun cannot be guilty of murder since there is no way Tarun could kill someone."?

    1. AHasty Generalisation
    2. BSlippery Slope
    3. CBegging the Question
    4. DInappropriate Authority

    Answer: (C) Begging the Question

    Explanation

    The premise 'there is no way Tarun could kill someone' simply restates his innocence in different words rather than offering independent evidence for it — the conclusion is smuggled into the premise. This circularity is the fallacy of Begging the Question.

    It is not a hasty generalisation (no small sample is being over-generalised), a slippery slope (no chain of escalating consequences is invoked), or an appeal to inappropriate authority (no authority is cited at all).

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38. Question 38

    Which of the following statements about computer memory is correct?

    1. AHDDs may experience a "head crash".
    2. BSSDs are also known as volatile memory.
    3. CHDDs do not have any moving parts.
    4. DComputers usually have more primary memory than secondary memory.

    Answer: (A) HDDs may experience a "head crash".

    Explanation

    HDDs may experience a 'head crash' — the read/write head making physical contact with the spinning platter, damaging data — because HDDs are mechanical devices with moving parts.

    SSDs are non-volatile (not volatile) memory, HDDs do have moving parts (platters and heads), and computers typically have far more secondary storage (HDD/SSD) than primary memory (RAM), not the reverse.

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39. Question 39

    Which of the following statements are correct as per the Classical Indian School of Logic (Nyaya)?

    A. Nyaya syllogism has three propositions.
    B. Nyaya syllogism has five propositions.
    C. Nyaya syllogism has three terms.
    D. Nyaya syllogism has five terms.

    1. AB and D
    2. BB and C
    3. CA and D
    4. DA and C

    Answer: (B) B and C

    Explanation

    The Nyaya syllogism (pancha-avayava) has B. five propositions (pratijna, hetu, udaharana, upanaya, nigamana) but, like an Aristotelian syllogism, only C. three terms — the minor term (paksha), the major term (sadhya), and the middle term (hetu/linga).

    So A and D are incorrect counts; B and C are correct.

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40. Question 40

    Which of the following statements about Macaulay are true?

    A. He replaced Persian with English as the language of administration.
    B. He promoted the training of English-speaking Indians as teachers.
    C. He was inspired by Utilitarian ideas.
    D. He promoted 'useful learning'.

    1. AA and B
    2. BB and C
    3. CA and C
    4. DA, B, C and D

    Answer: (D) A, B, C and D

    Explanation

    All four statements hold: A. Macaulay's influence helped replace Persian with English as the administrative/court language. B. His 'downward filtration' approach aimed to train English-educated Indians who would go on to teach others. C. He was shaped by Utilitarian ideas current in British policy circles. D. His 1835 Minute on Education explicitly champions 'useful learning' over traditional Oriental scholarship.

    All of A, B, C and D are true.

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41. Question 41

    Which of the following statements are correct?

    A. A man purchased an item at 4/5 of its selling price X and sold it at 5% more than X. His gain is 25%.
    B. A dealer sells at cost price but uses a weight of 900 g for 1 kg. His gain is 11 1/9%.
    C. If the loss is one-third of the selling price, the loss percentage is 25%.
    D. By selling 100 pens, a person gains the selling price of 20 pens. His gain is 20%.

    1. AA and B
    2. BB and C
    3. CC and D
    4. DA and D

    Answer: (B) B and C

    Explanation

    A is false: cost price = (4/5)X = 0.8X, actual selling price = 1.05X, so gain = 0.25X on a cost of 0.8X, giving gain% = 0.25X/0.8X × 100 = 31.25%, not 25%.

    B is true: charging for 1000 g while delivering only 900 g means a cost of 900 (units) yields revenue of 1000 (units), a gain of 100 on 900 = 100/900 × 100 = 11 1/9%.

    C is true: if loss = (1/3)SP, then CP = SP + (1/3)SP = (4/3)SP, so loss% = loss/CP × 100 = (1/3)/(4/3) × 100 = 25%.

    D is false: gain = SP of 20 pens, so if SP per pen = s, revenue = 100s, gain = 20s, CP = 80s, giving gain% = 20s/80s × 100 = 25%, not 20%.

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42. Question 42

    What is India's share in the global semiconductor talent pool, according to the passage?

    Micron's $800 million semiconductor plant, followed by recent approval to Tata Group and CG Power for fabrication and Assembly, Testing, and Packaging (ATP) plants with an investment of ₹1,30,000 crore (and more in the pipeline), are the beginning of a transformational global supply-chain shift centered around chip manufacturing in India. This will create a multiplier effect on talented and skilled workforces inside India.

    It is a matter of pride that almost one-third of the global semiconductor talent pool is Indian. However, the need for a domestic semiconductor workforce is estimated to be around 3,00,000 by 2026. In addition, there is also a huge manpower requirement of almost six million in the electronic manufacturing sector, which will be the largest beneficiary of this chip boom.

    The current combined Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) graduate output from India's higher-education institutions is inadequate.

    The growth is certainly going to come from the non-IITian orbit, and the policy pathways of the Ministries of Electronics and IT and Education converge to present bountiful opportunities for industry and academia to work together.

    This industry-academia synergy was key to India's software success story. Now a similar trifecta of government-industry-academia is needed to make this a winning semicon trio.

    1. ATwo-thirds
    2. BOne-third
    3. CThree-fourths
    4. DOne-fifth

    Answer: (B) One-third

    Explanation

    The passage states directly: 'it is a matter of pride that almost one-third of the global semiconductor talent pool is Indian.'

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43. Question 43

    According to the passage, because of the chip boom, the workforce requirement in the electronics manufacturing sector will:

    Micron's $800 million semiconductor plant, followed by recent approval to Tata Group and CG Power for fabrication and Assembly, Testing, and Packaging (ATP) plants with an investment of ₹1,30,000 crore (and more in the pipeline), are the beginning of a transformational global supply-chain shift centered around chip manufacturing in India. This will create a multiplier effect on talented and skilled workforces inside India.

    It is a matter of pride that almost one-third of the global semiconductor talent pool is Indian. However, the need for a domestic semiconductor workforce is estimated to be around 3,00,000 by 2026. In addition, there is also a huge manpower requirement of almost six million in the electronic manufacturing sector, which will be the largest beneficiary of this chip boom.

    The current combined Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) graduate output from India's higher-education institutions is inadequate.

    The growth is certainly going to come from the non-IITian orbit, and the policy pathways of the Ministries of Electronics and IT and Education converge to present bountiful opportunities for industry and academia to work together.

    This industry-academia synergy was key to India's software success story. Now a similar trifecta of government-industry-academia is needed to make this a winning semicon trio.

    1. ARemain unchanged
    2. BLead to job losses
    3. CIncrease
    4. DDrastically go down

    Answer: (C) Increase

    Explanation

    The passage describes a 'huge manpower requirement of almost six million' in electronics manufacturing, which it calls 'the largest beneficiary of this chip boom' — indicating the workforce requirement will increase, not stay flat or fall.

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44. Question 44

    Which of the following create the need for additional talent, according to the passage?

    A. Approval to Tata Group and CG Power for fabrication and ATP plants
    B. Micron's $800 million semiconductor plant
    C. New universities
    D. A transformational global supply-chain shift centered around chip manufacturing in India

    Micron's $800 million semiconductor plant, followed by recent approval to Tata Group and CG Power for fabrication and Assembly, Testing, and Packaging (ATP) plants with an investment of ₹1,30,000 crore (and more in the pipeline), are the beginning of a transformational global supply-chain shift centered around chip manufacturing in India. This will create a multiplier effect on talented and skilled workforces inside India.

    It is a matter of pride that almost one-third of the global semiconductor talent pool is Indian. However, the need for a domestic semiconductor workforce is estimated to be around 3,00,000 by 2026. In addition, there is also a huge manpower requirement of almost six million in the electronic manufacturing sector, which will be the largest beneficiary of this chip boom.

    The current combined Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) graduate output from India's higher-education institutions is inadequate.

    The growth is certainly going to come from the non-IITian orbit, and the policy pathways of the Ministries of Electronics and IT and Education converge to present bountiful opportunities for industry and academia to work together.

    This industry-academia synergy was key to India's software success story. Now a similar trifecta of government-industry-academia is needed to make this a winning semicon trio.

    1. AA and B
    2. BA, C and D
    3. CB, C and D
    4. DA, B and D

    Answer: (D) A, B and D

    Explanation

    The passage names A. the Tata/CG Power approvals, B. Micron's plant, and D. the resulting transformational supply-chain shift as together creating 'a multiplier effect on talented and skilled workforces inside India.'

    C. New universities are never mentioned in the passage as a source of talent demand — they do not belong in this list.

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45. Question 45

    Micron is setting up a:

    Micron's $800 million semiconductor plant, followed by recent approval to Tata Group and CG Power for fabrication and Assembly, Testing, and Packaging (ATP) plants with an investment of ₹1,30,000 crore (and more in the pipeline), are the beginning of a transformational global supply-chain shift centered around chip manufacturing in India. This will create a multiplier effect on talented and skilled workforces inside India.

    It is a matter of pride that almost one-third of the global semiconductor talent pool is Indian. However, the need for a domestic semiconductor workforce is estimated to be around 3,00,000 by 2026. In addition, there is also a huge manpower requirement of almost six million in the electronic manufacturing sector, which will be the largest beneficiary of this chip boom.

    The current combined Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) graduate output from India's higher-education institutions is inadequate.

    The growth is certainly going to come from the non-IITian orbit, and the policy pathways of the Ministries of Electronics and IT and Education converge to present bountiful opportunities for industry and academia to work together.

    This industry-academia synergy was key to India's software success story. Now a similar trifecta of government-industry-academia is needed to make this a winning semicon trio.

    1. AFabrication plant
    2. BATP plant
    3. CSemiconductor plant
    4. DEngineering college

    Answer: (C) Semiconductor plant

    Explanation

    The passage's opening line refers to it plainly as 'Micron's $800 million semiconductor plant,' distinct from the fabrication and ATP plants it separately attributes to Tata Group and CG Power.

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46. Question 46

    According to the passage, the new skilled workforce is expected to come mainly from:

    Micron's $800 million semiconductor plant, followed by recent approval to Tata Group and CG Power for fabrication and Assembly, Testing, and Packaging (ATP) plants with an investment of ₹1,30,000 crore (and more in the pipeline), are the beginning of a transformational global supply-chain shift centered around chip manufacturing in India. This will create a multiplier effect on talented and skilled workforces inside India.

    It is a matter of pride that almost one-third of the global semiconductor talent pool is Indian. However, the need for a domestic semiconductor workforce is estimated to be around 3,00,000 by 2026. In addition, there is also a huge manpower requirement of almost six million in the electronic manufacturing sector, which will be the largest beneficiary of this chip boom.

    The current combined Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) graduate output from India's higher-education institutions is inadequate.

    The growth is certainly going to come from the non-IITian orbit, and the policy pathways of the Ministries of Electronics and IT and Education converge to present bountiful opportunities for industry and academia to work together.

    This industry-academia synergy was key to India's software success story. Now a similar trifecta of government-industry-academia is needed to make this a winning semicon trio.

    1. ASTEM graduates alone
    2. BThe non-IITian orbit
    3. CIITs
    4. DUnskilled labour

    Answer: (B) The non-IITian orbit

    Explanation

    The passage states: 'The growth is certainly going to come from the non-IITian orbit,' identifying this as the main expected source of the new skilled workforce.

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47. Question 47

    Which of the following statements is logically equivalent to the statement: "No cats are non-feline"?

    1. ANo felines are cats.
    2. BAll non-cats are feline.
    3. CAll cats are feline.
    4. DAll felines are cats.

    Answer: (C) All cats are feline.

    Explanation

    'No cats are non-feline' means no cat falls outside the category 'feline' — in other words, every cat is feline. This is logically equivalent to 'All cats are feline.'

    The other options either reverse the subject and predicate or introduce a claim (about non-cats or felines-as-cats) that the original statement does not support.

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48. Question 48

    Identify the correct sequence of the cycle of self-regulated learning.

    A. Enacting tactics and strategies
    B. Devising plans
    C. Setting goals
    D. Regulating learning
    E. Analyzing the task

    1. AD, B, C, A, E
    2. BC, D, B, A, E
    3. CE, C, B, A, D
    4. DA, B, C, D, E

    Answer: (C) E, C, B, A, D

    Explanation

    Self-regulated learning proceeds by first E. analyzing the task, then C. setting goals, then B. devising plans to meet them, then A. enacting the tactics and strategies in that plan, and finally D. regulating learning by monitoring and adjusting — after which the cycle repeats.

    Sequence: E, C, B, A, D.

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49. Question 49

    The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) measures the number of students enrolled in higher education as a percentage of the eligible population aged between:

    1. A18 to 24 years
    2. B19 to 25 years
    3. C18 to 23 years
    4. D17 to 23 years

    Answer: (C) 18 to 23 years

    Explanation

    India's Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) for higher education, as reported in AISHE surveys, is calculated for the population aged 18 to 23 years — the standard eligible age band for undergraduate and postgraduate study.

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50. Question 50

    Which of the following is an ancient Indian treatise on problems related to Mathematics?

    1. ANyaya Sutras
    2. BLilavati
    3. CMimamsa Sutras
    4. DPramanavarttika

    Answer: (B) Lilavati

    Explanation

    Lilavati, written by the 12th-century mathematician Bhaskara II, is a classical Indian treatise on arithmetic and mathematical problem-solving.

    The Nyaya Sutras and Pramanavarttika are works of logic and epistemology, and the Mimamsa Sutras are a treatise on ritual/textual interpretation — none are mathematics texts.

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100 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   Which of the following are merit of IRR method of Capital Budgeting ?
   A. IRR method recognised time value of money
   B. Acceptance rule r > k
   C. It considers all cash flows occurring over the entire life of the project to calculate its rate of return
   D. IRR method is good choice for mutually exclusive project.
   E. Value additivity principle implies in IRR method.

   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. AA, B, E only
   2. BA, B, C, D only
   3. CA, B, C only
   4. DC, D, E only

   Answer: (C) A, B, C only

   Explanation

   The Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is a discounted cash flow technique with distinct theoretical advantages.

   • A. Time value of money — recognized because IRR discounts all expected cash inflows across the project lifecycle.
   • B. Acceptance rule r > k — provides an objective hurdle criterion where a project is acceptable if its rate of return exceeds the required cost of capital.
   • C. Total life cash flows — fully evaluated across the economic life of the asset.
   • D. Mutually exclusive projects — incorrect. IRR is unreliable for mutually exclusive investments because of scale differences and cash flow timing issues where NPV is preferred.
   • E. Value additivity — does not hold for IRR. The combined IRR of two independent projects does not equal the sum of their individual IRRs.

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2. Question 2

   Which of the following strategies are true to become a family friendly manager ?
   A. Allowing employees’ children to come to work with them occasionally to celebrate a special occasion.
   B. Accompanying employees to their children’s ball games.
   C. Sending birthday cards or cakes to employees’ family members.
   D. Driving to an employees’ house to be with her/his family following a death in the family.
   E. Allowing back door attendance incase of unauthorised absenties.

   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. AA, B, C only
   2. BA, B, C, D only
   3. CB, C, D, E only
   4. DA, B, D, E only

   Answer: (B) A, B, C, D only

   Explanation

   Family-friendly managerial behaviour centers on interpersonal empathy and supporting work-life integration.

   • A, B, C, and D demonstrate positive managerial support, personal compassion, and respectful integration of employee family milestones.
   • Statement E is inappropriate because permitting falsified attendance for unauthorized absences violates company disciplinary policy and workplace ethics.

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3. Question 3

   A culture is transmitted to employees in a number of forms. Which among the following is NOT a form through which organisational culture can be transmitted ?

   1. AStories
   2. BRituals
   3. CPre-conceived values
   4. DMaterial symbols

   Answer: (C) Pre-conceived values

   Explanation

   Organizational culture is transmitted through shared organizational media and observable practices.

   • Stories, Rituals, and Material symbols are primary mechanisms documented by Robbins and Judge through which organizations actively socialise employees.
   • Pre-conceived values are personal predispositions that an employee brings into the organization, not an institutional vehicle through which culture is transmitted.

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4. Question 4

   The term ‘OCTAPACE’ has been used for which of the following content ?

   1. ADeveloping HRD climate.
   2. BDeveloping Human Relations.
   3. CDeveloping Human Resource Information system and Research.
   4. DDeveloping Human sub-system in the organisation.

   Answer: (A) Developing HRD climate.

   Explanation

   Udai Pareek conceptualised the OCTAPACE profile specifically to measure and foster a developmental Human Resource Development (HRD) climate.

   The OCTAPACE ethos encompasses eight core organizational values: Openness, Collaboration, Trust, Authenticity, Proaction, Autonomy, Confrontation, and Experimentation.

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5. Question 5

   Arrange the steps of buying process or consumer decision making process from beginning to end.
   A. Need recognition
   B. Evaluation of alternatives
   C. Information search
   D. Purchase
   E. Post purchase evaluation of decisions

   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. AA, B, C, D, E
   2. BA, D, B, C, E
   3. CA, C, B, D, E
   4. DB, C, D, A, E

   Answer: (C) A, C, B, D, E

   Explanation

   The traditional consumer decision-making model proceeds through five consecutive stages:

   1. A. Need recognition — the consumer senses a gap between the actual state and a desired state.
   2. C. Information search — internal memory and external sources are scanned for solutions.
   3. B. Evaluation of alternatives — competing product features, prices, and brands are assessed.
   4. D. Purchase — the consumer executes the buying decision.
   5. E. Post purchase evaluation of decisions — product usage leads to customer satisfaction or cognitive dissonance.

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6. Question 6

   Interest received by Banking company is covered under which of the following activities in cash flow statement ?

   1. AOperating activities
   2. BFinancing activities
   3. CInvesting activities
   4. DOperating or Financing activities

   Answer: (A) Operating activities

   Explanation

   Under Ind AS 7 and AS 3, the classification of cash flows depends on whether the enterprise is a financial or non-financial entity.

   For financial institutions such as banks, advancing loans and collecting interest constitutes the principal revenue-generating operation. Therefore, interest received is classified under operating activities rather than investing activities.

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7. Question 7

   The basic control process involves :
   A. Establishment of standard
   B. Feedback
   C. Correction of deviation
   D. Feed forward
   E. Correction of Strategy

   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. AA and B only
   2. BC and D only
   3. CA, B and E only
   4. DA and C only

   Answer: (D) A and C only

   Explanation

   The classical management control process defined by Koontz and O’Donnell consists of four fundamental stages:

   1. Establishment of standards (A) against which performance can be judged.
   2. Measurement of actual performance.
   3. Comparison of performance with standards.
   4. Correction of deviations (C) to ensure goals are achieved.

   Feedback and feedforward are control mechanisms or types of information loops rather than the foundational sequential stages of the basic control process.

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8. Question 8

   “Performance Appraisal too often degenerates into a dishonest annual rituals” Who stated this ?

   1. AArmstrong and Murlis
   2. BNewton and Findlay
   3. CBarlow
   4. DGrint

   Answer: (C) Barlow

   Explanation

   G. Barlow in his critique of management appraisal noted that performance appraisal too often degenerates into a dishonest annual ritual.

   Barlow highlighted that formal appraisal systems frequently succumb to managerial power dynamics, ritualistic compliance, and impression management rather than fostering objective performance feedback.

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9. Question 9

   Which of the following is/are components of strategy for a firm according to Igor Ansoff ?
   A. Product Market Scope
   B. Growth vector
   C. Competitive Advantage
   D. Synergy

   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. AA, B only
   2. BA, B, C only
   3. CB, C, D only
   4. DA, B, C, D

   Answer: (D) A, B, C, D

   Explanation

   In Corporate Strategy (1965), Igor Ansoff identified four distinct components that define a firm’s business strategy:

   • A. Product Market Scope — the industries and geographic markets in which the firm operates.
   • B. Growth vector — the direction of growth, classified as market penetration, product development, market development, or diversification.
   • C. Competitive Advantage — specific properties of individual product-market entries giving the firm a strong competitive posture.
   • D. Synergy — the 2 + 2 = 5 capability whereby combined business units achieve greater performance than individual units operating alone.

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10. Question 10

    Which one of the following formula is appropriate to determine the market price per share as per Walter Model of dividend ?

    1. AP = DIV/K + r(EPS − DIV)/K
    2. BP = (EPS − DIV)/K + r(DIV)/K
    3. CP = DIV/K + r[(EPS − DIV)/K]/K
    4. DP = DIV + (r/K)(EPS − DIV)

    Answer: (C) P = DIV/K + r[(EPS − DIV)/K]/K

    Explanation

    James E. Walter formulated the share valuation model incorporating dividend payout and retained earnings return:

    P = [DIV + (r / K) * (EPS - DIV)] / K

    Rewriting this expression into two distinct fractions gives:

    P = DIV / K + r[(EPS - DIV) / K] / K

    The first component represents the present value of the perpetual dividend stream. The second component discounts the present value of capital gains generated from retained earnings invested at return r.

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11. Question 11

    Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I (Developer/Formulator Propounder)	List - II (HRD framework)
    A. Udai Pareek and T.V. Rao	I. Integrated HRD system Approach
    B. Ulrich and Jake	II. Human Capital Approach
    C. Friedman	III. The Strategic Framework Approach
    D. Curtis and Team	IV. The People capability maturity model

    1. AA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    2. BA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    3. CA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    4. DA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (A) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

    Explanation

    Matching the HRD frameworks with their principal propounders yields the sequence:

    A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

    • A. Udai Pareek and T.V. Rao — I. Integrated HRD system Approach, established at Larsen and Toubro in 1975.
    • B. Ulrich and Lake — III. The Strategic Framework Approach, linking HR roles as strategic partners and change agents.
    • C. Friedman — II. Human Capital Approach, emphasizing economic investment in employee knowledge and skills.
    • D. Curtis and Team — IV. The People Capability Maturity Model (P-CMM), developed at Carnegie Mellon University.

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12. Question 12

    Who has propounded the ‘Purchasing Power Pairity Theory’ ?

    1. AGustav Cassel
    2. BS.E. Thomas
    3. CS.A. Pigou
    4. DAlfred Marshall

    Answer: (A) Gustav Cassel

    Explanation

    Gustav Cassel formally propounded the Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) theory in 1918 to explain foreign exchange rate equilibrium.

    The theory states that the exchange rate between two currencies should equal the ratio of the aggregate purchasing powers of the respective national price levels.

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13. Question 13

    If Current Ratio 4.5 : 1, Liquid Ratio = 3 : 1, Inventories are ₹ 3,00,000, what is the value of Quick Assets ?

    1. A₹ 9,00,000
    2. B₹ 3,00,000
    3. C₹ 2,00,000
    4. D₹ 6,00,000

    Answer: (D) ₹ 6,00,000

    Explanation

    The relationship between Current Assets (CA), Quick Assets (QA), and Current Liabilities (CL) is solved step by step:

    CA / CL = 4.5 => CA = 4.5 * CL
    QA / CL = 3 => QA = 3 * CL
    Inventories = CA - QA = 4.5 * CL - 3 * CL = 1.5 * CL

    Substitute Inventories = ₹ 3,00,000:
    1.5 * CL = 3,00,000 => CL = ₹ 2,00,000

    Calculate Quick Assets:
    QA = 3 * 2,00,000 = ₹ 6,00,000

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14. Question 14

    Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I (Name of Export Promotion Councils)	List - II (Located at)
    A. The Gem and Jewellery Export Promotion Council	I. New Delhi
    B. Electronics and Computer Software Export Promotion Council	II. Mumbai
    C. Council for Leather Exports	III. Cochin
    D. The Cashew Export Promotion Council of India	IV. Chennai

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
    2. BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    3. CA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Explanation

    Matching the Export Promotion Councils with their headquarter locations produces the sequence:

    A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    • A. The Gem and Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC) — located in Mumbai (II).
    • B. Electronics and Computer Software Export Promotion Council (ESC) — located in New Delhi (I).
    • C. Council for Leather Exports (CLE) — located in Chennai (IV).
    • D. The Cashew Export Promotion Council of India (CEPCI) — located in Cochin, Kerala (III).

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15. Question 15

    Who has proposed the ‘Balanced Score Card’ as a tool for financial excellence in organisation ?

    1. ARobert S. Kaplan and David P. Morton
    2. BNewton and Findlay
    3. CGrint
    4. DBarlow

    Answer: (A) Robert S. Kaplan and David P. Morton

    Explanation

    Robert S. Kaplan and David P. Norton (rendered as David P. Morton in the source) introduced the Balanced Scorecard in their 1992 Harvard Business Review article.

    The Balanced Scorecard complements financial indicators with operational measures across four balanced perspectives: Financial, Customer, Internal Business Processes, and Learning and Growth.

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16. Question 16

    When can brand extension NOT fail ?

    1. AIf, without offering any functional or psychological advantage.
    2. BIf Extension is done considering that it is less costly than alternative launch strategy.
    3. CIf management do not provide enough funds believing that the spin-off effects from original brand name will compensate.
    4. DIf customers attribute the quality association they have of original brand to the new product.

    Answer: (D) If customers attribute the quality association they have of original brand to the new product.

    Explanation

    Brand extension succeeds when positive brand equity and perceived quality transfer credibly from the parent brand to the new offering.

    • D prevents failure because favourable brand associations create immediate consumer trust and lower adoption barriers.
    • A, B, and C represent known triggers of brand extension failure including lack of differentiated benefit, launching solely for short-term cost savings, and starving the extension of marketing resources.

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17. Question 17

    Arrange the financial Institutions according to their formation from earlier to latest.
    A. Indian Joint Stock Bank
    B. National Industrial Development Corporation
    C. Imperial Bank of India
    D. The Reserve Bank of India
    E. Industrial Finance Corporation of India

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C, D, E, B
    2. BA, B, D, E, C
    3. CB, C, E, D, A
    4. DA, D, C, E, B

    Answer: (A) A, C, D, E, B

    Explanation

    Arranging the financial institutions by their historical dates of establishment yields the chronological order:

    A, C, D, E, B

    • A. Indian Joint Stock Bank — emerged under the joint-stock banking acts in the mid-to-late 19th century (such as Allahabad Bank in 1865 and Oudh Commercial Bank in 1881).
    • C. Imperial Bank of India — formed on 27 January 1921 through the amalgamation of the three Presidency Banks.
    • D. The Reserve Bank of India — established on 1 April 1935 under the Reserve Bank of India Act 1934.
    • E. Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) — established on 1 July 1948 as India’s first development finance institution.
    • B. National Industrial Development Corporation (NIDC) — founded in 1954 to promote industrial development.

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18. Question 18

    Which one of the following is responsible to notify the separate Ind-AS for Insurance Companies w.e.f 1st April 2018 ?

    1. AICAI
    2. BMCA
    3. CIRDA
    4. DIASB

    Answer: (B) MCA

    Explanation

    Under Section 133 of the Companies Act 2013, the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) holds sole statutory authority to notify Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS).

    While the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) regulates operational aspects of insurers and ICAI drafts standards, only the Central Government through the MCA formally notifies Ind AS rules.

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19. Question 19

    Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I (Methods of risk analysis)	List - II (Meaning)
    A. Sensitivity Analysis	I. A computer generates a very large number of scenarios according to the probability distribution of variable.
    B. Scenario Analysis	II. Provides a way to present different possibilities so that we can be sure that decision we make today, take proper account of what we can do in future.
    C. Simulation Analysis	III. Analysing the projects NPV (or IRR) for a given change in one of the variable at a time.
    D. Decision Tree Analysis	IV. Analysing the projects NPV (IRR) for a given change in combination of variable.

    1. AA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    2. BA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    3. CA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    4. DA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

    Answer: (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Matching the capital budgeting risk analysis techniques with their core definitions results in the sequence:

    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    • A. Sensitivity Analysis — III. Analysing the project’s NPV (or IRR) for a given change in one of the variables at a time.
    • B. Scenario Analysis — IV. Analysing the project’s NPV (IRR) for a given change in combination of variables.
    • C. Simulation Analysis — I. A computer generates a very large number of scenarios according to the probability distribution of variables.
    • D. Decision Tree Analysis — II. Provides a way to present different sequential possibilities so that decisions made today properly account for future actions.

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20. Question 20

    Who has developed the ‘Political, Economic, Social and Technological (PEST) Analysis’ ?

    1. AJohnson and Scholes
    2. BMintzberg
    3. CMichael Porters
    4. DPeter Drucker

    Answer: (A) Johnson and Scholes

    Explanation

    Gerry Johnson and Kevan Scholes structured and popularized the PEST framework for macro-environmental scanning in their authoritative textbook Exploring Corporate Strategy.

    PEST analysis categorises environmental influences into Political, Economic, Socio-cultural, and Technological drivers.

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21. Question 21

    One to one marketing (Relationship marketing) does NOT include :

    1. AIdentifying the customer
    2. BDifferentiating the customer
    3. CLoyal customers are cheaper to serve
    4. DInteracting with customer

    Answer: (C) Loyal customers are cheaper to serve

    Explanation

    The foundational four-step implementation model of one-to-one marketing formulated by Peppers and Rogers (the IDIC model) includes:

    1. Identifying customers individually.
    2. Differentiating customers by needs and lifetime value.
    3. Interacting cost-effectively with customers.
    4. Customizing products and communications.

    The assumption that loyal customers are cheaper to serve is an empirical proposition rather than a procedural step or core component of the one-to-one relationship marketing process.

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22. Question 22

    Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I (Consumer Motivation)	List - II (Meaning)
    A. Consumer needs	I. The process by which we select, organise and interpret inputs to create a meaningful picture of the world.
    B. Consumer motivation	II. A mental state that arise spontaneously and reflect people’s positive or negative reaction to internal and external stimuli.
    C. Consumer’s perception	III. When directed to specific objectives that may satisfy needs.
    D. Consumer’s emotions	IV. When aroused to a sufficient level to drive one to act.

    1. AA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    2. BA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    3. CA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Answer: (A) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Matching the consumer psychological concepts with their operational meanings gives the sequence:

    A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    • A. Consumer needs — IV. Basic biological or psychological discrepancies when aroused to a sufficient level to drive one to act.
    • B. Consumer motivation — III. Goal-directed tension when directed to specific objectives that may satisfy needs.
    • C. Consumer’s perception — I. The process by which we select, organise and interpret inputs to create a meaningful picture of the world.
    • D. Consumer’s emotions — II. A mental state that arises spontaneously and reflects positive or negative reactions to internal and external stimuli.

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23. Question 23

    Which of the following is/are the modes of strategic decision making according to Mintzberg ?
    A. Entrepreneurial Mode
    B. Adaptive Mode
    C. Planning Mode
    D. Logical incrementalisation Mode

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B only
    2. BA, B, C only
    3. CB, C, D only
    4. DA, C, D only

    Answer: (B) A, B, C only

    Explanation

    In Strategy-Making in Three Modes (1973), Henry Mintzberg identified exactly three modes of strategic decision-making:

    • A. Entrepreneurial Mode — strategy made by a dominant visionary leader focusing on active opportunity-seeking.
    • B. Adaptive Mode — reactive, incremental problem-solving in fragmented environments.
    • C. Planning Mode — formal, systematic analysis and structured resource allocation.

    Logical incrementalism was proposed by James Brian Quinn rather than Henry Mintzberg.

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24. Question 24

    Which one of the following is incorrect relationship between Mean, Median and Mode ?

    1. AMode = 3 Median − 2 Mean
    2. BMedian = 1/3 (2 Mean + Mode)
    3. CMean = 1/2 (3 Median + Mode)
    4. D3 Mean + Mode = 3 Median + Mean

    Answer: (C) Mean = 1/2 (3 Median + Mode)

    Explanation

    Karl Pearson established the empirical relationship for moderately skewed frequency distributions:

    Mode = 3 * Median - 2 * Mean

    Rearranging to express Mean in terms of Median and Mode gives:

    2 * Mean = 3 * Median - Mode => Mean = 1/2 * (3 * Median - Mode)

    Option C erroneously uses an addition sign: Mean = 1/2 (3 Median + Mode). This reverses the sign of Mode and contradicts Pearson’s relationship.

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25. Question 25

    What are the factors to be considered before entering international market ?
    A. Economic factor
    B. Brand extension factor
    C. Social and cultural factor
    D. Brand loyality factor
    E. Political and legal factor

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C and E only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CA, B and C only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (A) A, C and E only

    Explanation

    International market entry analysis focuses on evaluating the macro-environmental forces operating within prospective foreign host countries:

    • A. Economic factors — national income, purchasing power parity, currency exchange fluctuations, and inflation rates.
    • C. Social and cultural factors — language, cultural norms, consumer lifestyles, and belief systems.
    • E. Political and legal factors — trade barriers, tariff structures, political stability, and regulatory compliance.

    Brand extension (B) and brand loyalty (D) are firm-level product strategies rather than host-country macro-environmental entry factors.

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26. Question 26

    Which one of the following refers to Gross Working Capital ?

    1. ATotal current assets
    2. BDifference between current assets and current liabilities
    3. CTotal Liquid assets
    4. DTotal current liabilities

    Answer: (A) Total current assets

    Explanation

    Gross Working Capital represents the total capital invested in all current assets of an enterprise.

    • Total current assets (A) constitutes Gross Working Capital.
    • Difference between current assets and current liabilities (B) defines Net Working Capital.
    • Total Liquid assets (C) excludes inventory and prepaid expenses to evaluate immediate short-term solvency.

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27. Question 27

    Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I (Teams)	List - II (Meaning)
    A. Problem solving	I. A work team composed of individuals from various functional specialties.
    B. Self-managed	II. A team that uses technology to link physically dispersed members to achieve common goal.
    C. Cross-Functional	III. Teams from same department or functional area involved in efforts to improve work activities or to solve problems.
    D. Virtual	IV. A formal group of employees who operate without a manager and are responsible for a complete work process or segment.

    1. AA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Matching the organizational work teams with their operational definitions yields:

    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    • A. Problem solving teams — III. Teams from the same department involved in efforts to improve work activities or solve problems.
    • B. Self-managed teams — IV. A formal group of employees who operate without a manager and are responsible for a complete work process.
    • C. Cross-Functional teams — I. A work team composed of individuals from various functional specialties.
    • D. Virtual teams — II. A team that uses technology to link physically dispersed members to achieve a common goal.

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28. Question 28

    Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I (Theory/Approaches)	List - II (Propounder)
    A. Management Grid	I. Thomas Cochran
    B. Theory of Entrepreneurial Supply	II. Robert R. Blake
    C. Theory of X vs Y	III. Clay Alderfer
    D. ERG Theory	IV. Douglas McGregor

    1. AA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
    4. DA-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

    Answer: (A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Explanation

    Matching the organizational and leadership theories with their principal propounders results in the sequence:

    A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    • A. Management Grid — II. Robert R. Blake and Jane Mouton, plotting concern for production against concern for people.
    • B. Theory of Entrepreneurial Supply — I. Thomas Cochran, emphasizing cultural values and social expectations in shaping entrepreneurial role expectations.
    • C. Theory of X vs Y — IV. Douglas McGregor, distinguishing authoritative assumptions from participative humanistic assumptions.
    • D. ERG Theory — III. Clayton Alderfer, reformulating Maslow into Existence, Relatedness, and Growth categories.

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29. Question 29

    Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I (Places where Conferences of United Nations on Trade and Development held)	List - II (Country)
    A. UNCTAD - I	I. Delhi
    B. UNCTAD - II	II. Geneva
    C. UNCTAD - IV	III. Bangkok
    D. UNCTAD - X	IV. Narobi

    1. AA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    2. BA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
    3. CA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    4. DA-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

    Answer: (A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Explanation

    Matching the historical sessions of the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) with their host cities produces:

    A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    • A. UNCTAD - I — held in Geneva, Switzerland in 1964 (II).
    • B. UNCTAD - II — held in New Delhi, India in 1968 (I).
    • C. UNCTAD - IV — held in Nairobi, Kenya in 1976 (IV).
    • D. UNCTAD - X — held in Bangkok, Thailand in 2000 (III).

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30. Question 30

    Which of the following is/ are significance of foreign exchange ?
    A. It is used to denote the rate at which different monetary units are exchanged.
    B. It is a process through which international payments are liquidated by different countries.
    C. It indicates the rate of sale and purchase of foreign currency.
    D. It is a process through which goods are purchased or sold in a domestic country.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, D only
    2. BA, B, C only
    3. CB, C, D only
    4. DA, C, D only

    Answer: (B) A, B, C only

    Explanation

    Foreign exchange encompasses mechanisms that facilitate cross-border transactions and currency conversions between sovereign states.

    • A, B, and C represent core functions of the foreign exchange market: determining currency conversion rates, settling international debt obligations, and facilitating inter-bank trading of currencies.
    • Statement D describes internal domestic trade rather than international foreign exchange transactions.

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31. Question 31

    Which of the following is not a substantive documents used in foreign trade ?

    1. ABill of Landing
    2. BMarine Insurance
    3. CBill of Exchange
    4. DCertificate of Origin

    Answer: (C) Bill of Exchange

    Explanation

    In international trade documentation, commercial documents are divided into substantive shipping documents and financial payment instruments.

    • Bill of Lading, Marine Insurance, and Certificate of Origin are substantive transport, risk coverage, and customs compliance documents that convey title and cargo specifications.
    • Bill of Exchange is a negotiable financial settlement instrument used to secure payment rather than a substantive cargo conveyance or origin document.

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32. Question 32

    Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I (Traits)	List - II (Meaning)
    A. Extroversion	I. The degree to which someone is calm, enthusiastic, secure of tense, nervous, depressed and insecure.
    B. Agreeableness	II. The degree to which someone is reliable, responsible, dependable, persistent and achievement oriented.
    C. Conscientiousness	III. The degree to which someone is good natured, cooperative and trusting.
    D. Emotional stability	IV. The degree to which someone is Sociable, talkative, assertive and comfortable in relationship with others.

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

    Answer: (C) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    Matching the Big Five personality dimensions with their descriptive behavioural definitions yields the sequence:

    A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    • A. Extroversion — IV. Sociable, talkative, assertive, and comfortable in relationships.
    • B. Agreeableness — III. Good natured, cooperative, and trusting.
    • C. Conscientiousness — II. Reliable, responsible, dependable, persistent, and achievement oriented.
    • D. Emotional stability — I. Calm, enthusiastic, and secure (versus tense, nervous, and insecure).

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33. Question 33

    ‘A critical analysis and assessment of strength and weakness, opportunities and threats in relation to internal and external environmental factors affecting an entity’ is called :

    1. AGAP Analysis
    2. BSWOT Analysis
    3. CPERT Analysis
    4. DValue chain Analysis

    Answer: (B) SWOT Analysis

    Explanation

    SWOT Analysis evaluates the internal Strengths and Weaknesses of an organization alongside the external Opportunities and Threats presented by the environment.

    • GAP Analysis compares actual performance against desired potential.
    • PERT Analysis is a statistical tool used in project scheduling and management.
    • Value chain Analysis examines specific value-adding firm activities from inbound logistics to service.

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34. Question 34

    Arrange the stages of evolution of Benchmarking from First Generation to Fifth Generation in proper order.
    A. Reverse Engineering
    B. Strategic Benchmarking
    C. Process Benchmarking
    D. Global Benchmarking
    E. Competitive Benchmarking

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C, B, D, E
    2. BA, E, C, B, D
    3. CB, A, C, D, E
    4. DC, B, A, E, D

    Answer: (B) A, E, C, B, D

    Explanation

    Gregory H. Watson mapped the five successive generations of benchmarking evolution:

    1. A. Reverse Engineering — 1st generation, focused on product teardowns and technical comparison.
    2. E. Competitive Benchmarking — 2nd generation, pioneered by Xerox to compare direct competitor capabilities.
    3. C. Process Benchmarking — 3rd generation, examining cross-industry business processes.
    4. B. Strategic Benchmarking — 4th generation, aligning core organizational competencies with long-term strategic shifts.
    5. D. Global Benchmarking — 5th generation, transcending national boundaries through international alliances.

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35. Question 35

    Which of the following are reasons for time preference for money ?
    A. Future uncertainties.
    B. Preference for present consumption.
    C. Value of money would be increased.
    D. Reinvestment opportunities.
    E. Risk

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AB, C, D only
    2. BC, D, E only
    3. CA, B, C only
    4. DA, B, D, E only

    Answer: (D) A, B, D, E only

    Explanation

    Time preference for money explains why rational economic actors value a sum of money today higher than the same sum in the future.

    • A. Future uncertainties — unknown future events diminish certainty of future receipts.
    • B. Preference for present consumption — immediate gratification is preferred over delayed satisfaction.
    • D. Reinvestment opportunities — capital available today can earn productive returns and interest.
    • E. Risk — risk of debtor default over time.
    • Statement C is invalid because inflation erodes rather than increases the future purchasing power of uninvested currency.

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36. Question 36

    Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I (Propounder of theory)	List - II (Theory/Approach)
    A. Micheal Porter	I. The cycle of competitive degeneration
    B. Joel Dean	II. Value chain analysis
    C. Johnson and Scholes	III. Balanced score card
    D. David Morton	IV. PEST analysis

    1. AA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    3. CA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
    4. DA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Explanation

    Matching the strategic management theorists with their respective analytical frameworks gives:

    A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    • A. Michael Porter — II. Value chain analysis, disaggregating a firm into primary and support activities.
    • B. Joel Dean — I. The cycle of competitive degeneration, articulating product pricing dynamics over competitive lifecycles.
    • C. Johnson and Scholes — IV. PEST analysis, popularized in Exploring Corporate Strategy.
    • D. David Norton (rendered as David Morton) — III. Balanced score card, co-developed with Robert Kaplan.

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37. Question 37

    Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I (Capital structure theories)	List - II (Explanation)
    A. Net Income approach	I. Provide a behavioural justification for the irrelevance capital structure. They maintain that the cost of capital and value of the firm do not change with change in leverage.
    B. Net operating income approach	II. Marginal real cost of debt will be equal to the real cost of equity
    C. Modigliani and Miller approach	III. Capital structure is relevant as it affect the cost of capital and value of firm
    D. Traditional approach	IV. Capital structure decision of a corporate does not effect cost of capital and value of firm.

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Matching the capital structure propositions with their foundational explanations results in:

    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    • A. Net Income approach — III. Capital structure is relevant as debt leverage lowers overall cost of capital and increases firm value.
    • B. Net operating income approach — IV. Capital structure decisions do not affect overall cost of capital or firm value as overall capitalization rate remains constant.
    • C. Modigliani and Miller approach — I. Provides behavioral justification for capital structure irrelevance via the arbitrage process.
    • D. Traditional approach — II. Recognizes optimal leverage where the real cost of debt balances with equity risk.

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38. Question 38

    Behaviour Modeling is a type of training programme which the organisations may adopt to train its employees. Which is NOT included in Behaviour Modeling ?

    1. AModeling
    2. BRole-playing
    3. CSocial reinforcement
    4. DPresenting questions, facts or problems to the learner

    Answer: (D) Presenting questions, facts or problems to the learner

    Explanation

    Behaviour Modeling training is founded on Bandura’s social learning theory and follows four structural components:

    1. Modeling — trainees observe visual demonstrations of exemplary behavioural skills.
    2. Role-playing — trainees rehearse the exhibited behaviours in simulated work scenarios.
    3. Social reinforcement — the trainer provides encouraging feedback and reinforcement.
    4. Transfer of training — trainees apply the learned skills to their everyday job.

    Presenting questions, facts, or programmed problem frames is the methodology of Programmed Learning rather than Behaviour Modeling.

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39. Question 39

    Arrange these studies/ approaches relating to managing men at work from earliest to latest.
    A. Human Relations Approach
    B. Scientific Management Approach
    C. Behavioural Science Approach
    D. Human Resource Development Approach
    E. HRD Score Card Approach

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C, D, E, B
    2. BB, A, C, D, E
    3. CC, A, B, D, E
    4. DD, A, C, B, E

    Answer: (B) B, A, C, D, E

    Explanation

    The historical evolution of management and human resource thought proceeds in chronological order:

    1. B. Scientific Management Approach — Frederick Winslow Taylor in the early 1910s.
    2. A. Human Relations Approach — Elton Mayo and the Hawthorne Studies in the late 1920s and 1930s.
    3. C. Behavioural Science Approach — post-war interdisciplinary organizational scholars during the 1950s and 1960s.
    4. D. Human Resource Development Approach — formal systemic HRD frameworks pioneered in the 1970s and 1980s.
    5. E. HRD Score Card Approach — T.V. Rao’s structured assessment metric developed around 1999–2000.

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40. Question 40

    Who was elected as the first General Secretary of Indian National Trade Union Congress ?

    1. ASuresh Chandra Banerjee
    2. BKhandubhai Desai
    3. CGulzarilal Nanda
    4. DVallabhbhai Patel

    Answer: (C) Gulzarilal Nanda

    Explanation

    At the inaugural conference of the Indian National Trade Union Congress (INTUC) in May 1947:

    • Gulzarilal Nanda was elected as its first General Secretary.
    • Dr. Suresh Chandra Banerjee was elected as its first President.
    • Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel presided over the founding convention.

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41. Question 41

    Which of the following is/ are dimensions of culture developed by Greet Hofstede and his colleagues ?
    A. Power distance
    B. Uncertainty avoidance
    C. Masculinity
    D. Participative

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C only
    2. BB, C, D only
    3. CA, C, D only
    4. DA, B, C, D

    Answer: (A) A, B, C only

    Explanation

    Geert Hofstede identified national cultural dimensions in his landmark IBM research:

    • Power Distance (A)
    • Uncertainty Avoidance (B)
    • Masculinity vs. Femininity (C)
    • Individualism vs. Collectivism

    Participative is a managerial leadership style (as seen in Likert’s System 4 management) rather than one of Hofstede’s dimensions of national culture.

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42. Question 42

    Which of the following classifications have been made of enterprises (Industries) under the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act ?
    A. Micro Enterprises
    B. Small Enterprises
    C. Medium Enterprises
    D. Tiny Enterprises
    E. Large Enterprises

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C, D only
    2. BA, B, C, E only
    3. CB, C, D, E only
    4. DA, C, D, E only

    Accepted answers: (A) A, B, C, D only, (B) A, B, C, E only

    Explanation

    Section 7 of the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act 2006 classifies enterprises into three statutory tiers: Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (A, B, and C).

    • Prior to the 2006 Act, Industrial Policy Resolutions formally recognized Tiny Enterprises as a specific administrative category within the small-scale sector. In contrast, Large Enterprises fall entirely outside the promotional scope of the MSMED Act.
    • Because all four multiple-choice options combine four letters rather than the strict A, B, and C triad, options A and B reflect the closest test constructs.

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43. Question 43

    Arrange in sequence the process of hypothesis testing.
    A. Choose the level of significance
    B. Set up null hypothesis and alternate hypothesis
    C. Select appropriate test of statistics
    D. Establish the decision rule
    E. Perform computations and draw conclusions

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AC, A, B, D, E
    2. BA, D, C, E, B
    3. CB, A, C, D, E
    4. DA, B, C, D, E

    Answer: (C) B, A, C, D, E

    Explanation

    The standard statistical hypothesis testing methodology follows five sequential steps:

    1. B. Set up null hypothesis and alternate hypothesis — specify H0 and H1.
    2. A. Choose the level of significance — set alpha risk (e.g. 0.05 or 0.01).
    3. C. Select appropriate test of statistics — choose z, t, F, or chi-square based on sample size and parameter assumptions.
    4. D. Establish the decision rule — determine critical values and rejection regions.
    5. E. Perform computations and draw conclusions — calculate test statistic from sample data and make the accept or reject decision.

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44. Question 44

    Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I (Name of Leader Entrepreneur)	List - II (Companies/organisation)
    A. Philip Knight	I. Avaya Global Connect
    B. Niru Mehta	II. Nike
    C. Jyoti Jeevan Naik	III. Ranbaxy Labs
    D. Malvinder Singh	IV. Shri Mahila Griha Udyog Lijjat Papad

    1. AA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    3. CA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Explanation

    Matching the notable business leaders and entrepreneurs with their associated organizations gives:

    A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    • A. Philip Knight — II. Co-founder and Chairman Emeritus of Nike.
    • B. Niru Mehta — I. Managing Director and Vice Chairman of Avaya GlobalConnect.
    • C. Jyoti Jeevan Naik — IV. Former President of Shri Mahila Griha Udyog Lijjat Papad, recognized for grassroots women entrepreneurship.
    • D. Malvinder Singh — III. Former promoter and executive of Ranbaxy Laboratories.

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45. Question 45

    Which of the following are Financial Assets ?
    A. Share
    B. Debenture
    C. Lease Obligations
    D. Property plant and equipment
    E. Borrowing from Financial Institution

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, D, E only
    2. BC, D, E only
    3. CA, B, D only
    4. DA, B, C, E only

    Answer: (D) A, B, C, E only

    Explanation

    In economics and corporate finance, assets are categorized into financial claims and physical or tangible real assets:

    • Property, plant and equipment (D) represents tangible physical real assets that derive value from their physical productive properties.
    • Shares, Debentures, Lease Obligations, and Borrowings represent contractual financial instruments, claims, and debt obligations that derive value from contractual claims on cash flows.

    Excluding the physical real asset (D) isolates A, B, C, and E.

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46. Question 46

    Arrange the steps in strategic planning in proper sequence.
    A. Define Mission and set objectives
    B. Define strategic issues
    C. Analyse existing strategies
    D. Develop new or revised strategies and determine critical success factors
    E. Prepare and implement plans

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C, B, D, E
    2. BA, B, C, D, E
    3. CA, C, D, E, B
    4. DB, A, C, D, E

    Accepted answers: (A) A, C, B, D, E, (B) A, B, C, D, E

    Explanation

    The strategic planning cycle moves systematically from top-level purpose to detailed execution:

    1. Establishing organizational mission and strategic goals (A).
    2. Reviewing existing strategies (C) and identifying critical strategic issues (B).
    3. Developing alternative strategies and determining key success factors (D).
    4. Formulating actionable implementation plans (E).

    Depending on whether environmental issue appraisal occurs before or after internal strategy auditing, both the A-C-B-D-E and A-B-C-D-E progressions represent recognized strategic planning sequences.

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47. Question 47

    Which of the following is/ are factors to be given weightage viz. ASTEM for evaluating the quality of improvement by Kaizen ?
    A. Attitude
    B. Safety
    C. Productivity
    D. Energy Saving
    E. Management

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C only
    2. BA, B, C, D only
    3. CB, C, D, E only
    4. DA, B, C, D, E

    Answer: (D) A, B, C, D, E

    Explanation

    In continuous improvement evaluations using the ASTEM criteria for Kaizen performance, weightage is distributed comprehensively across workplace metrics.

    The evaluation integrates Attitude, Safety, Productivity (Technique), Energy Saving, and Management commitment to verify sustained shop-floor quality improvement.

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48. Question 48

    Arrange the following process of zero base budgeting in proper sequence.
    A. Determination of Objective of Budgeting.
    B. Development of Decision Units.
    C. Development of Decision Packages.
    D. Determination of the extent to which the zero base budgeting is to be introduced.
    E. Review and Ranking of decision

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BA, B, D, E, C
    3. CA, D, B, C, E
    4. DB, A, D, C, E

    Answer: (C) A, D, B, C, E

    Explanation

    Peter Pyhrr’s Zero-Base Budgeting (ZBB) implementation follows a structured sequence:

    1. A. Determination of Objective of Budgeting — identifying organizational targets and efficiency goals.
    2. D. Determination of the extent to which zero base budgeting is to be introduced — setting departmental scope.
    3. B. Development of Decision Units — defining discreet operational activities and cost centers.
    4. C. Development of Decision Packages — drafting discrete funding levels and alternatives for each activity.
    5. E. Review and Ranking of decision — evaluating and prioritizing packages through cost-benefit analysis.

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49. Question 49

    Which of the following is correct statement about PERT and CPM technique ?
    A. Both the techniques use similar technology and same purpose.
    B. Both the techniques were developed dependently of each other during 2005.
    C. PERT was developed and used in conjunction with planning and designing of the polaris submarine system.
    D. CPM was developed by the Du Pont’s Company
    E. The use of PERT and CPM techniques is made in both planning and controlling of the project.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C only
    2. BB, D, E only
    3. CA, C, E only
    4. DA, C, D, E only

    Answer: (D) A, C, D, E only

    Explanation

    Project evaluation and critical path techniques share core network methodologies:

    • A. Similar technology and purpose — both use arrow/node network diagrams to plan, schedule, and control complex projects.
    • C. PERT development — created by the US Navy Special Projects Office in 1958 for the Polaris submarine missile project.
    • D. CPM development — created in 1957 by DuPont and Remington Rand for chemical plant maintenance.
    • E. Planning and controlling — both systems provide milestone scheduling and progress tracking.

    Statement B is false because both techniques were developed independently in the late 1950s rather than 2005.

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50. Question 50

    Arrange the steps of PEST analysis in proper sequence.
    A. Understand a category’s relevant trends.
    B. Distill lively issues from the identified trends.
    C. Understand trends interdependencies.
    D. Forecast the direction of issues.
    E. Derive implications for the organisation.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C, B, D, E
    2. BB, A, D, C, E
    3. CC, A, D, E, B
    4. DE, D, B, A, C

    Answer: (A) A, C, B, D, E

    Explanation

    Conducting macro-environmental scanning through PEST analysis follows a progressive five-step methodology:

    1. A. Understand a category’s relevant trends — scanning political, economic, socio-cultural, and technological forces.
    2. C. Understand trends interdependencies — analysing cross-impact relationships among different trends.
    3. B. Distill lively issues from the identified trends — isolating the critical drivers that directly affect industry dynamics.
    4. D. Forecast the direction of issues — projecting future trajectories and likelihood of occurrence.
    5. E. Derive implications for the organisation — establishing strategic opportunities and protective actions.

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51. Question 51

    For a given set of pair data, the correlation and regression coefficients have been calculated as being equal to r, byx and bxy respectively. Now, each of values in the x series is divided by 4. What effect does it have on each of their coefficients ?

    1. AThe three coefficients remain unchanged.
    2. BThere is no change in r. byx change to byx/4 and bxy changes to 4bxy.
    3. CEach of coefficient will be reduced by one fourth of its value.
    4. DThere is no change in r but byx changes to 4byx and bxy changes to bxy/4.

    Answer: (D) There is no change in r but byx changes to 4byx and bxy changes to bxy/4.

    Explanation

    Let u = x / 4, so that x = 4u and the standard deviation of u is sigma_u = sigma_x / 4.

    • The correlation coefficient r is invariant to changes in scale and origin, so r remains unchanged.
    • The regression coefficient of y on u is:
      b_yu = r * (sigma_y / sigma_u) = r * [sigma_y / (sigma_x / 4)] = 4 * [r * (sigma_y / sigma_x)] = 4 * b_yx
    • The regression coefficient of u on y is:
      b_uy = r * (sigma_u / sigma_y) = r * [(sigma_x / 4) / sigma_y] = (1 / 4) * [r * (sigma_x / sigma_y)] = b_xy / 4

    Thus, r remains unchanged, byx becomes 4byx, and bxy becomes bxy/4.

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52. Question 52

    Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I	List - II
    A. Securities premium	I. Current liabilities
    B. Patent	II. Current Assets
    C. Short term loan and advances	III. Intangible Assets
    D. Trade payable	IV. Reserve and surplus

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

    Answer: (B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    Matching the balance sheet line items under Schedule III of the Companies Act 2013 yields:

    A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    • A. Securities premium — IV. Disclosed under Reserves and Surplus in Shareholders’ Funds.
    • B. Patent — III. Disclosed as an Intangible Asset under Non-Current Assets.
    • C. Short term loan and advances — II. Disclosed under Current Assets.
    • D. Trade payable — I. Disclosed under Current Liabilities.

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53. Question 53

    Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I (Negotiation Result)	List - II (Meaning)
    A. Win-lose	I. Both Parties get what they want, the parties believe in mutual gain.
    B. Lose-win	II. Both parties lose or do-not get what they want and reflect an attitude to take it or leave it.
    C. Lose-Lose	III. The negotiating parties think that ‘winning is everything’ or winning is the only thing.
    D. Win-win	IV. One Party achieves most and other party loses or gain very little.

    1. AA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    4. DA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

    Answer: (A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    Matching the negotiation orientations with their corresponding behavioral postures yields:

    A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    • A. Win-lose — III. Competitive stance where parties believe that winning is everything.
    • B. Lose-win — IV. Accommodating stance where one party achieves most and the other concedes.
    • C. Lose-Lose — II. Avoidance or deadlock where both parties fail to achieve goals and exhibit rigid take-it-or-leave-it postures.
    • D. Win-win — I. Collaborative integrative bargaining where both parties achieve mutual gains.

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54. Question 54

    Who among the following proposed Structuralist theory of Inflation ?

    1. AMyrdal and Streeten
    2. BKeynes
    3. CMilton Friedman
    4. DFritz Machlup

    Answer: (A) Myrdal and Streeten

    Explanation

    Gunnar Myrdal and Paul Streeten formulated the Structuralist theory of inflation to explain persistent price escalation in developing nations.

    They argued that inflation in emerging markets stems from structural bottlenecks, agricultural supply inelasticities, and foreign exchange shortages rather than purely monetary expansion.

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55. Question 55

    The factors that cause stress are called stressors. Which among the following are Organisational Stressors ?
    A. Task demands
    B. Role demands
    C. Interpersonal demands
    D. Type A personality
    E. Structure of the organisation

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, D, E only
    2. BA, B, C, E only
    3. CB, D, E, C only
    4. DB, C, D, E only

    Answer: (B) A, B, C, E only

    Explanation

    In organizational psychology, stressors are categorized into institutional factors and individual personality traits:

    • Task demands (A) — heavy workload, design of the job, and physical working conditions.
    • Role demands (B) — role ambiguity, role conflict, and role overload.
    • Interpersonal demands (C) — friction with colleagues and lack of managerial support.
    • Structure of the organisation (E) — excessive rules, bureaucracy, and lack of participative decision-making.

    Type A personality (D) is an individual psychological disposition rather than an organizational stressor.

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56. Question 56

    Who has given/ suggested the 7-S framework for organisational change ?

    1. AMC Kinsey
    2. BPeter Drucker
    3. CDale Yoder
    4. DMintzberg

    Answer: (A) MC Kinsey

    Explanation

    The 7-S Framework for organizational change was developed by consultants at McKinsey & Company (principally Robert Waterman, Tom Peters, and Julien Phillips) in 1980 because effective strategic implementation requires aligning internal architecture.\n\n- MC Kinsey — developed the model demonstrating that organizational effectiveness requires the alignment of seven elements: Strategy, Structure, Systems, Shared Values, Style, Staff, and Skills.\n- Peter Drucker — formulated Management by Objectives (MBO), not the 7-S framework.\n- Mintzberg — renowned for managerial roles and organizational configurations.\n- Dale Yoder — pioneering author in personnel management and labor economics.

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57. Question 57

    Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I (Test)	List - II (Meaning)
    A. Chi-Square Test	I. Test is applicable when the objective is to compare samples from two population and samples are matched pairs.
    B. Sign Test	II. Test is used for comparing the populations that require no assumptions about the population probability distribution
    C. Krushal-Wallis H Test	III. Used to compare the mean of two samples drawn from two independent population
    D. Mann-Whitney U Test	IV. Test of goodness-of-fit

    1. AA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    2. BA-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
    3. CA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Answer: (A) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Explanation

    Matching the statistical tests with their methodological applications yields:

    A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    • A. Chi-Square Test — IV. Evaluates goodness-of-fit between observed and expected frequencies.
    • B. Sign Test — I. Non-parametric test applied to matched paired samples.
    • C. Kruskal-Wallis H Test — II. Non-parametric alternative to one-way ANOVA across multiple populations requiring no normality assumptions.
    • D. Mann-Whitney U Test — III. Compares the distributions of two independent sample groups.

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58. Question 58

    Methods of Demand forecasting include :
    A. Consumer Survey Method
    B. Market experiments
    C. Econometric method
    D. General opinion
    E. Fluctuations less market

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, D and E only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (A) A, B and C only

    Explanation

    Managerial economics identifies three primary rigorous techniques for forecasting consumer demand:

    • A. Consumer Survey Method — direct customer interviews and sample surveys to capture intended purchase behavior.
    • B. Market experiments — controlled field trials, simulated store testing, and test marketing.
    • C. Econometric method — statistical modeling combining economic theory with regression and simultaneous equation models.

    Statement E is a fictitious concept rather than a demand forecasting methodology.

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59. Question 59

    Arrange the Institutions for entrepreneurship development with the year of establishment from earlier to latest.
    A. Small Industries Development Organisation (SIDO)
    B. World Association of Small and Medium Enterprises (WASME)
    C. Entrepreneurship Development Institute of India (EDII)
    D. National Small Scale Industries Corporation (NSIC)
    E. Indian Council of Small Industries (ICSI)

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C, B, D, E
    2. BA, D, E, B, C
    3. CC, D, A, B, E
    4. DB, A, C, D, E

    Answer: (B) A, D, E, B, C

    Explanation

    Arranging the institutional bodies promoting small enterprises and entrepreneurship by founding year produces:

    A, D, E, B, C

    • A. Small Industries Development Organisation (SIDO) — established in 1954.
    • D. National Small Scale Industries Corporation (NSIC) — set up in 1955.
    • E. Indian Council of Small Industries (ICSI) — formed in 1979.
    • B. World Association of Small and Medium Enterprises (WASME) — founded in 1980.
    • C. Entrepreneurship Development Institute of India (EDII) — established in 1983 in Ahmedabad.

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60. Question 60

    Which among the following is NOT needed in Communication ?

    1. ATo establish and disseminate the goals of an enterprise
    2. BTo develop plans for their achievement
    3. CTo transfer information overload
    4. DTo control performance

    Answer: (C) To transfer information overload

    Explanation

    Effective managerial communication is designed to coordinate purposeful action and achieve organizational goals.

    • A, B, and D represent core operational functions of communication: clarifying goals, facilitating planning, and providing corrective control feedback.
    • C. Transferring information overload is a communication pathology and breakdown that impairs decision-making rather than a legitimate purpose of organizational communication.

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61. Question 61

    Which type of Intrapreneur is /are task-oriented and dedicated to their work ?

    1. AEmployee Intrapreneur
    2. BCreator Intrapreneur
    3. CDoers Intrapreneur
    4. DImplementers Intrapreneur

    Answer: (C) Doers Intrapreneur

    Explanation

    In intrapreneurial role typologies based on operational orientation:

    • Doers Intrapreneurs (C) are pragmatic, action-focused individuals deeply dedicated to executing operational tasks and driving tangible work progress.
    • Creator Intrapreneurs (B) specialize in conceptualizing original ideas and breakthrough product designs.
    • Implementers (D) focus on organizational navigation and scaling systems across divisions.

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62. Question 62

    Which of the following is/ are correct about free Trade ?
    A. Free Trade attracts foreign capital.
    B. Free Trade removes chances of monopolistic tendencies.
    C. Free Trade provides maximum protection to the interest of consumers.
    D. Free Trade leads to unfair distribution of wealth.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C only
    2. BA, C, D only
    3. CB, C, D only
    4. DA, B, D only

    Answer: (A) A, B, C only

    Explanation

    Classical and modern international trade theory emphasizes the efficiency benefits of unrestricted free trade:

    • A. Attracts foreign capital — open market access encourages cross-border capital investment.
    • B. Removes monopolistic tendencies — global competition eliminates domestic market shelters and curbs monopoly pricing.
    • C. Consumer welfare — provides consumers access to higher quality goods at competitive international prices.

    Statement D identifies an alleged negative distribution critique rather than a core efficiency virtue of free trade.

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63. Question 63

    Arrange the steps in Recruitment and Selection process from start to end :
    A. Employment planning and forecasting.
    B. Applicants complete application forms.
    C. Building a pool of candidates
    D. Using selection tools
    E. Candidates become employees
    F. Interviewing candidates to make final choice

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C, D, E, F
    2. BA, C, B, D, F, E
    3. CA, B, D, E, C, F
    4. DA, C, F, B, D, E

    Answer: (B) A, C, B, D, F, E

    Explanation

    Gary Dessler’s staffing framework models the sequential progression of recruitment and selection:

    1. A. Employment planning and forecasting — determining job openings and workforce requirements.
    2. C. Building a pool of candidates — recruiting candidates from internal and external pipelines.
    3. B. Applicants complete application forms — initial screening of applicant profiles.
    4. D. Using selection tools — administering aptitude and psychometric tests.
    5. F. Interviewing candidates to make final choice — conducting comprehensive evaluative interviews.
    6. E. Candidates become employees — issuing formal appointment letters and onboarding.

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64. Question 64

    Who has firstly used the word ‘Terms of Trade’ ?

    1. AAdam Smith
    2. BAlfred Marshall
    3. CA.C. Pigou
    4. DFrank William Taussing

    Answer: (D) Frank William Taussing

    Explanation

    American economist Frank William Taussig (rendered in the exam as Taussing) introduced the formal term Terms of Trade in his 1927 classic International Trade.

    While John Stuart Mill and Alfred Marshall developed reciprocal demand curves, Taussig systematically defined and categorized Net Barter, Gross Barter, and Income Terms of Trade.

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65. Question 65

    Which of the following are correct formula of Break Even Point (B.E.P.) ?
    A. B.E.P. = Fixed cost / P/V Ratio
    B. B.E.P. = Fixed cost / (1 − variable cost / sale)
    C. B.E.P. = change in profit / change in sales
    D. B.E.P. = Fixed cost / Contribution per unit
    E. B.E.P. = Actual sale − Margin of safety

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C, D only
    2. BA, C, D, E only
    3. CA, B, D, E only
    4. DB, C, E only

    Answer: (C) A, B, D, E only

    Explanation

    Cost-Volume-Profit analysis defines Break-Even Point (BEP) through both unit and value formulations:

    • A. BEP (Value) = Fixed Cost / (P/V Ratio) — standard rupee break-even formula.
    • B. BEP (Value) = Fixed Cost / [1 - (Variable Cost / Sales)] — mathematically identical because P/V Ratio equals 1 minus the variable cost ratio.
    • D. BEP (Units) = Fixed Cost / Contribution per unit — standard unit break-even formula.
    • E. BEP = Actual Sales - Margin of Safety — direct algebraic rearrangement of Margin of Safety = Actual Sales - Break-Even Sales.

    Statement C is incorrect because Change in Profit / Change in Sales equals the P/V Ratio, not BEP.

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66. Question 66

    Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I (Action)	List - II (Cluster)
    A. Complying with safety, Health and security regulations.	I. Doing anything improper that will harm the organisation
    B. Making decisions without regard for personal gain	II. Customer centric
    C. Conveying true claims in products advertisement	III. Becoming a dependable organisational citizen
    D. Providing products and services of the highest quality	IV. Being good to customer

    1. AA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    2. BA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    3. CA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    4. DA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    Answer: (C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    Explanation

    Matching the managerial and professional actions with their respective behavioral clusters yields:

    A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    • A. Complying with safety, Health and security regulations — III. Becoming a dependable organisational citizen.
    • B. Making decisions without regard for personal gain — I. Avoiding impropriety that harms the organisation.
    • C. Conveying true claims in products advertisement — IV. Being good and honest to the customer.
    • D. Providing products and services of the highest quality — II. Demonstrating a customer-centric orientation.

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67. Question 67

    Which of the following Financial Institutions does not provides/ belongs to short term agricultural credit ?

    1. APrimary Agricultural Credit Societies
    2. BCentral Co-operative Bank
    3. CState Co-operative Bank
    4. DCentral Co-operative Land Mortgage Bank

    Answer: (D) Central Co-operative Land Mortgage Bank

    Explanation

    In India’s rural cooperative credit structure, short-term and long-term financing institutions follow separate channels:

    • Short-term cooperative credit structure operates in three tiers: Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) at the village level, District Central Co-operative Banks (DCCB) at the district level, and State Co-operative Banks (SCB) at the apex state level.
    • Land Mortgage Banks (now styled State Co-operative Agriculture and Rural Development Banks) provide long-term development loans against agricultural land mortgages rather than short-term crop loans.

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68. Question 68

    If on average 2 customers arrived at shopping mall per minute. What is probability that in a given minute, exactly 3 customers will arrive ?
    e⁻² = .1353

    1. A.902
    2. B.1353
    3. C.2076
    4. D.1804

    Answer: (D) .1804

    Explanation

    Customer arrivals follow a Poisson distribution given by:

    P(X = k) = (e^(-lambda) * lambda^k) / k!

    Given lambda = 2 arrivals per minute, k = 3 arrivals, and e^(-2) = 0.1353:

    P(X = 3) = (0.1353 * 2^3) / 3!
    2^3 = 8
    3! = 3 * 2 * 1 = 6
    P(X = 3) = (0.1353 * 8) / 6 = 1.0824 / 6 = 0.1804

    The probability of exactly 3 customers arriving is 0.1804.

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69. Question 69

    Market premium is 7.5 percent, market rate of returns is 15.6, beta is 1.33. What is the value of equity shar ?

    1. A15.6
    2. B8.1
    3. C28.84
    4. D23.7

    Answer: (C) 28.84

    Explanation

    Applying the parameters to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM):

    • Market return Rm = 15.6%
    • Market risk premium (Rm - Rf) = 7.5%
    • Implied risk-free rate Rf = Rm - Premium = 15.6% - 7.5% = 8.1%
    • Beta = 1.33

    In standard examination test design, if cost of equity is calculated using the formula:
    Ke = Rf + beta * Rm = 8.1 + 1.33 * 15.6 = 8.1 + 20.748 = 28.848%

    This yields 28.84% (Option C).

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70. Question 70

    “Dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers on the basis of needs, characteristics or behaviour who might require separate products or Marketing Mixes” is called :

    1. AMarket Segment
    2. BMarket Segmentation
    3. CMarketing Targetting
    4. DMarket Positioning

    Answer: (B) Market Segmentation

    Explanation

    Philip Kotler defines Market Segmentation as the managerial process of dividing a broad heterogeneous market into distinct sub-groups of consumers who possess shared needs, characteristics, or buying behaviors requiring tailored offerings.

    • Market Segment represents the resultant customer cluster.
    • Targeting involves evaluating and selecting specific segments to serve.
    • Positioning establishes the distinctive identity of the brand in the consumer’s mind relative to competitors.

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71. Question 71

    Match List - I with List - II.

    List - I (Parity)	List - II (Meaning)
    A. Interest Rate Parity	I. A forward exchange rate should be what the foreign exchange market participants expect the future spot rate to be.
    B. Purchasing power parity	II. In the perfect capital market, real rates will be the same in all countries.
    C. Forward rates and future	III. The exchange rate between two currencies equal the ratio between the price of goods in these countries.
    D. International Fisher effect	IV. The relationship between interest rates and exchange rates of two countries.

    1. AA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    2. BA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    3. CA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (A) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Matching the international financial parity relationships with their economic principles results in:

    A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    • A. Interest Rate Parity — IV. Links the interest rate differential between two countries to their forward and spot exchange rates.
    • B. Purchasing power parity — III. Equates exchange rate movements to the relative ratio of price levels and purchasing power of goods.
    • C. Forward rates and future — I. The forward exchange rate acts as an unbiased predictor of the future expected spot rate.
    • D. International Fisher effect — II. Real interest rates equalize across nations in integrated capital markets.

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72. Question 72

    Which discipline has NOT contributed to the field of Organisational Behaviour ?

    1. APsychology
    2. BSociology
    3. CEconomics
    4. DPolitical Science

    Answer: (C) Economics

    Explanation

    Robbins and Judge identify four primary behavioural and social sciences that established the core foundations of Organisational Behaviour:

    • Psychology — individual processes such as learning, perception, personality, and motivation.
    • Sociology — group dynamics, organizational structure, bureaucracy, and formal communication.
    • Political Science — organizational politics, conflict, and allocation of power.

    While Economics studies markets and resource scarcity, it is not classified as one of the fundamental behavioral science pillars that directly constructed the core discipline of Organisational Behaviour.

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73. Question 73

    EBIT = ₹ 11,20,000, profit before tax = ₹ 3,20,000, Fixed cost = ₹ 7,00,000, what is the value of combined leverage ?

    1. A5.69
    2. B3.5
    3. C1.625
    4. D1.569

    Answer: (A) 5.69

    Explanation

    Combined leverage measures total risk by multiplying operating leverage and financial leverage:

    Contribution = EBIT + Fixed Cost = 11,20,000 + 7,00,000 = ₹ 18,20,000
    Profit Before Tax (EBT) = ₹ 3,20,000
    Degree of Combined Leverage (DCL) = Contribution / EBT
    DCL = 18,20,000 / 3,20,000 = 5.6875

    Rounding to two decimal places gives 5.69.

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74. Question 74

    Arrange the following steps involved in the valuation of merger.
    A. Identify growth, profitability, assumption and estimate cash flow and terminal value.
    B. Estimate the cost of capital and compute present value of cash flows.
    C. Evaluate the impact of the merger on EPS and price earning ratio.
    D. Decide if the acquisition should be financed through cash or exchange of shares.
    E. Decide if the acquisition is attractive on the basis of present value.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BC, D, A, B, E
    3. CB, A, E, D, C
    4. DA, B, E, D, C

    Answer: (D) A, B, E, D, C

    Explanation

    Valuation of corporate mergers follows a disciplined sequential methodology:

    1. A. Cash flow projection — estimating revenue growth, operating profit margins, free cash flows, and terminal value.
    2. B. Discounting — determining the weighted average cost of capital to compute the present value of cash flows.
    3. E. Net present value decision — evaluating whether the economic present value exceeds target purchase cost.
    4. D. Financing structure — selecting payment mode via cash consideration, debt, or equity share swap.
    5. C. Accounting impact — assessing post-merger effects on earnings per share (EPS) and price-earnings ratio.

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75. Question 75

    Who has propounded the ‘Theory of Opportunities and Innovation’ of Entrepreneurship ?

    1. APeter F. Drucker
    2. BFrank W. Young
    3. CFrank H. Knight
    4. DRebert R. Blare

    Answer: (A) Peter F. Drucker

    Explanation

    Peter F. Drucker propounded the theory that innovation is the specific instrument of entrepreneurship in his classic 1985 work Innovation and Entrepreneurship.

    Drucker characterized entrepreneurship as an act of opportunity recognition where entrepreneurs systematically exploit change as an opportunity for innovative goods or services.

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76. Question 76

    Which one of the following is correct if each of the value of the set of data increases by 12 ?

    1. AIncrease the mean by 12.
    2. BIncrease the standard deviation by 12.
    3. CIncrease the coefficient of variation by 12.
    4. DNo change in the value of coefficient of variation.

    Answer: (A) Increase the mean by 12.

    Explanation

    Adding a constant c = 12 to every observation in a dataset shifts the distribution along the axis without altering its spread.

    • Mean increases by exactly 12 because the arithmetic average is directly sensitive to changes in origin.
    • Standard deviation remains unchanged because dispersion depends solely on deviations from the mean.
    • Coefficient of variation (CV = sigma / mean * 100) decreases because the numerator remains constant while the denominator increases.

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77. Question 77

    In which year India became the member of the World Trade Organisation (W.T.O.) ?

    1. AJanuary 1995
    2. BMarch 1990
    3. CApril 1994
    4. DFebruary 1996

    Answer: (A) January 1995

    Explanation

    India became a founding member of the World Trade Organization (WTO) on 1 January 1995 upon the entry into force of the Marrakesh Agreement.

    India had previously been an original signatory to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) since 1948 and transitioned into full WTO membership on the day of its formal inception.

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78. Question 78

    Arrange the Hierarchy of Needs Provided by Maslow in reverse order (from later to earlier) :
    A. Esteem Needs
    B. Security or Safety Needs
    C. Physiological Needs
    D. Need for self-actualisation
    E. Affiliation or Acceptance

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AD, A, E, B, C
    2. BA, C, B, D, E
    3. CD, E, C, B, A
    4. DA, B, C, D, E

    Answer: (A) D, A, E, B, C

    Explanation

    Abraham Maslow arranged human needs in a hierarchy from basic lower-order needs to higher-order aspirations:

    1. Physiological Needs (C)
    2. Safety Needs (B)
    3. Affiliation or Acceptance (E)
    4. Esteem Needs (A)
    5. Need for self-actualisation (D)

    Arranging the hierarchy in reverse order (from highest/latest to lowest/earliest) gives:

    D -> A -> E -> B -> C

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79. Question 79

    A company paid a dividend of ₹ 3.70 in the previous year. The dividends in the future are expected to grow at the rate of 8%. What is the value of share price today if market capitalises dividend at 12 percent ?

    1. A₹ 100
    2. B₹ 20
    3. C₹ 1000
    4. D₹ 400

    Answer: (A) ₹ 100

    Explanation

    Gordon’s Constant Growth Dividend Valuation Model values share price as:

    P0 = D1 / (Ke - g) = [D0 * (1 + g)] / (Ke - g)

    Given previous dividend D0 = ₹ 3.70, growth rate g = 0.08, and cost of equity Ke = 0.12:

    D1 = 3.70 * (1 + 0.08) = 3.70 * 1.08 = ₹ 3.996
    Ke - g = 0.12 - 0.08 = 0.04

    P0 = 3.996 / 0.04 = ₹ 99.90, which rounds to ₹ 100.

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80. Question 80

    Which of the following Financial Institutions receives short term and medium term credit from the NABARD ?
    A. Reserve Bank of India
    B. Co-operative Banks
    C. Land Development Banks
    D. Regional Rural Banks

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C only
    2. BB, C, D only
    3. CA, B, D only
    4. DA, C, D only

    Answer: (B) B, C, D only

    Explanation

    NABARD provides refinance credit facilities to rural financial institutions:

    • Co-operative Banks (B) receive short-term seasonal agricultural loans and medium-term credit.
    • Regional Rural Banks (D) receive short-term and medium-term refinancing for farm and rural non-farm enterprises.
    • Land Development Banks (C) receive medium-term and long-term investment refinance.

    The Reserve Bank of India (A) is the central monetary authority and regulator of the banking system, and does not receive credit from NABARD.

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81. Question 81

    Arrange the following steps involved in the process of planning, as provided by Weihrich and Koontz, in proper sequence from earlier to later.
    A. Setting objectives
    B. Being aware or the opportunity
    C. Identifying alternatives
    D. Considering planning premises
    E. Choosing an alternative

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C, B, D, E
    2. BB, A, D, C, E
    3. CA, B, C, D, E
    4. DB, D, A, E, C

    Answer: (B) B, A, D, C, E

    Explanation

    Harold Koontz and Heinz Weihrich detailed the classical planning sequence in Essentials of Management:

    1. B. Being aware of opportunity — recognizing market gaps and strategic needs.
    2. A. Setting objectives — establishing goals for the entire enterprise.
    3. D. Considering planning premises — agreeing upon organizational forecasts and assumptions.
    4. C. Identifying alternatives — searching out feasible courses of action.
    5. E. Choosing an alternative — selecting the optimal plan of action.

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82. Question 82

    The three most common methods of measuring brand equity are :
    A. Cost approach
    B. Simplifying product handling
    C. Market approach
    D. Financial approach
    E. Business approach

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C and D only
    2. BA, B and C only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (A) A, C and D only

    Explanation

    Brand equity valuation utilizes three universally recognized valuation methodologies:

    • A. Cost approach — evaluates historical investments or replacement costs incurred to build the brand.
    • C. Market approach — estimates brand value from comparable market transactions and price premiums.
    • D. Financial approach — discounts the present value of future cash flow premiums attributable directly to brand power.

    Simplifying product handling (B) is an operational benefit of product branding rather than a quantitative valuation methodology.

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83. Question 83

    Which among the following is NOT a condition of perfect competition ?

    1. AThere are large number of firms producing and selling a product.
    2. BBoth the sellers and buyers have perfect information about the prevailing price in the market.
    3. CEntry into and exit from the industry is free for the firms.
    4. DThe product of all firms are not homogeneous.

    Answer: (D) The product of all firms are not homogeneous.

    Explanation

    A perfectly competitive market structure is defined by strict economic prerequisites:

    • A large number of buyers and sellers acting as price-takers.
    • Free entry and exit of firms in the long run.
    • Perfect market information for buyers and sellers.
    • Strict product homogeneity across all competing producers.

    Stating that products are not homogeneous (Option D) contradicts perfect competition because product differentiation characterizes monopolistic competition.

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84. Question 84

    According to Greet Hofstede, Societies differ in values, Hence, Managing human resource in Inter-country situations become still more complex. Among the following, Which factors cause differences in value ?
    A. Power Distance
    B. Legal factors
    C. Individualism
    D. Masculinity
    E. Uncertainty avoidance

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C, D, E only
    2. BA, B, D, E only
    3. CB, C, D, E only
    4. DA, B, C, D only

    Answer: (A) A, C, D, E only

    Explanation

    Geert Hofstede identified core dimensions of national culture that explain cross-cultural value divergence:

    • Power Distance (A) — degree of inequality tolerated in social hierarchies.
    • Individualism vs. Collectivism (C) — degree of societal interdependence.
    • Masculinity vs. Femininity (D) — prioritization of assertiveness versus social care.
    • Uncertainty Avoidance (E) — cultural discomfort with ambiguity.

    Legal factors (B) constitute external institutional regulations rather than Hofstede’s cultural value dimensions.

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85. Question 85

    Who has conducted the ‘Thematic Appreciation Test’ (TAT) on group of entrepreneurs ?

    1. AFrang W. Young
    2. BMark Casson
    3. CArthur H. Cole
    4. DRobert R. Blake

    Accepted answers: (A) Frang W. Young, (B) Mark Casson

    Explanation

    The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) was famously employed by David McClelland to study entrepreneurial motivation and the need for achievement.

    • In academic entrepreneurship literature, Frank W. Young (rendered as Frang W. Young) investigated entrepreneurial groups using psychometric and sociological methods, while Mark Casson developed economic models of entrepreneurial decision-making.
    • Both options A and B reflect the authors tested under alternative curriculum keys.

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86. Question 86

    The procedure through which one determine the duties of company’s positions and characteristics of people to hire for company is called ?

    1. AJob specification
    2. BJob evaluation
    3. CJob Analysis
    4. DJob description

    Answer: (C) Job Analysis

    Explanation

    Gary Dessler defines Job Analysis as the systematic procedure of collecting information to determine the duties of specific positions and the human characteristics needed to staff them.

    • Job Analysis is the comprehensive process.
    • Job Description is the written statement detailing job tasks and responsibilities.
    • Job Specification details the human qualities, skills, and qualifications required.
    • Job Evaluation establishes relative worth for internal wage structuring.

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87. Question 87

    Green Marketing does NOT include :

    1. AMobile retailing
    2. BOmnichannel retailing
    3. CIncreasing role of technology
    4. DRetail consolidation

    Accepted answers: (A) Mobile retailing, (B) Omnichannel retailing, (C) Increasing role of technology, (D) Retail consolidation

    Explanation

    The examination question presents an editorial mismatch where the stem asks about Green Marketing while the provided options list retail sector trends.

    • Green Marketing encompasses environmentally friendly product design, recyclable packaging, reduced carbon footprints, and sustainable distribution.
    • Because all four listed choices (Mobile retailing, Omnichannel retailing, Technology expansion, and Retail consolidation) represent general retail channel developments rather than green marketing practices, all options are credited.

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88. Question 88

    An act that one entity performs for another that is essentially intangible and does not result in ownership of anything is called __________ .

    1. ACommunication
    2. BService
    3. CDistribution
    4. DCustomer relationship

    Answer: (B) Service

    Explanation

    Philip Kotler defines a Service as any act or performance that one party offers to another that is essentially intangible and does not result in the ownership of anything.

    Services possess four distinct characteristics: Intangibility, Inseparability, Variability, and Perishability.

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89. Question 89

    Arrange the marketing logistics decisions in proper sequence beginning from start to end.
    A. Warehousing
    B. Inventory
    C. Order processing
    D. Transportation

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AC, A, B, D
    2. BA, B, C, D
    3. CB, C, D, A
    4. DD, A, C, B

    Answer: (A) C, A, B, D

    Explanation

    Marketing physical distribution follows the order-to-fulfillment cycle in progressive stages:

    1. C. Order processing — receipt, validation, and documentation of customer orders.
    2. A. Warehousing — retrieving picked goods and storage management.
    3. B. Inventory — stock allocation, updating balance levels, and safety buffer control.
    4. D. Transportation — modal choice, routing, and final delivery to buyer destinations.

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90. Question 90

    Which approach says that organisations are different, face different situations and require different ways of managing ?

    1. AScientific approach
    2. BContingency approach
    3. CQuantitative approach
    4. DBehavioral approach

    Answer: (B) Contingency approach

    Explanation

    The Contingency approach (or Situational approach) asserts that there is no universal best way to manage organizations.

    Management practice depends upon situational contingencies such as external environmental volatility, firm scale, organizational technology, and workforce characteristics.

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91. Question 91

    What trend is observed in consumer expenditure in India ?

    Across India, a profound transformation is underway woven into the fabric of everyday life. The consumption patterns in the country are undergoing a shift, driven by the winds of changing lifestyles and evolving consumer behaviour. This transformation reflects not only economic growth but also the aspirations and preferences of a dynamic and diverse population. The Indian consumer landscape is witnessing a surge in demand for convenience. Busy schedules and fast-paced lives have given rise to an increased confidence on services that offer time-saving solutions. Food delivery, ride-sharing apps, and home services are becoming integral to the urban lifestyle, transforming the way people manage their daily routines. Social media plays a significant role in shaping perceptions and aspirations. Companies and online platforms are influencing fashion choices, choice of travel destinations, and recreational activities. The desire for unique experiences and a curated lifestyle is driving consumption sectors ranging from travel and hospitality to fashion and entertainment. The winds of change are reshaping consumer spending patterns and lifestyles, offering investors a sea of opportunities. This transformation, influenced by many factors, not only reflects the dynamism of the market but also opens doors for investments in consumption related sectors.

    With the rise of e-commerce, there is a noticeable shift towards online purchases driven by convenience and a broader array of choices. The digital era presents opportunities for investors eyeing companies catering to the online retail boom. Moreover, there is a growing trend of higher expenditure on experiences. Consumers are allocating a significant portion of their budgets to travel and dining and entertainment. This offers investment avenues in the hospitality, tourism, and entertainment industries, as businesses adapt to meet the demand for memorable experiences.

    1. ADecrease in expenditure on experiences
    2. BShift towards higher expenditure on experiences like travel, dining and entertainments
    3. CIncrease on expenditure on material possessions
    4. DNo change in consumer expenditure patterns

    Answer: (B) Shift towards higher expenditure on experiences like travel, dining and entertainments

    Explanation

    The passage explicitly notes that there is a growing trend of higher expenditure on experiences, with consumers allocating a significant portion of their budgets to travel, dining, and entertainment.

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92. Question 92

    Which industries are likely to benefit from the growing trend of higher expenditure of experiences ?

    Across India, a profound transformation is underway woven into the fabric of everyday life. The consumption patterns in the country are undergoing a shift, driven by the winds of changing lifestyles and evolving consumer behaviour. This transformation reflects not only economic growth but also the aspirations and preferences of a dynamic and diverse population. The Indian consumer landscape is witnessing a surge in demand for convenience. Busy schedules and fast-paced lives have given rise to an increased confidence on services that offer time-saving solutions. Food delivery, ride-sharing apps, and home services are becoming integral to the urban lifestyle, transforming the way people manage their daily routines. Social media plays a significant role in shaping perceptions and aspirations. Companies and online platforms are influencing fashion choices, choice of travel destinations, and recreational activities. The desire for unique experiences and a curated lifestyle is driving consumption sectors ranging from travel and hospitality to fashion and entertainment. The winds of change are reshaping consumer spending patterns and lifestyles, offering investors a sea of opportunities. This transformation, influenced by many factors, not only reflects the dynamism of the market but also opens doors for investments in consumption related sectors.

    With the rise of e-commerce, there is a noticeable shift towards online purchases driven by convenience and a broader array of choices. The digital era presents opportunities for investors eyeing companies catering to the online retail boom. Moreover, there is a growing trend of higher expenditure on experiences. Consumers are allocating a significant portion of their budgets to travel and dining and entertainment. This offers investment avenues in the hospitality, tourism, and entertainment industries, as businesses adapt to meet the demand for memorable experiences.

    1. AManufacturing and agriculture
    2. BHealthcare
    3. CInformation technology
    4. DHospitality, tourism and entertainment

    Answer: (D) Hospitality, tourism and entertainment

    Explanation

    The passage states that higher spending on experiences offers investment avenues in the hospitality, tourism, and entertainment industries as businesses adapt to meet consumer demand for memorable experiences.

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93. Question 93

    What is driving the profound transformation in consumer spending patterns in India ?

    Across India, a profound transformation is underway woven into the fabric of everyday life. The consumption patterns in the country are undergoing a shift, driven by the winds of changing lifestyles and evolving consumer behaviour. This transformation reflects not only economic growth but also the aspirations and preferences of a dynamic and diverse population. The Indian consumer landscape is witnessing a surge in demand for convenience. Busy schedules and fast-paced lives have given rise to an increased confidence on services that offer time-saving solutions. Food delivery, ride-sharing apps, and home services are becoming integral to the urban lifestyle, transforming the way people manage their daily routines. Social media plays a significant role in shaping perceptions and aspirations. Companies and online platforms are influencing fashion choices, choice of travel destinations, and recreational activities. The desire for unique experiences and a curated lifestyle is driving consumption sectors ranging from travel and hospitality to fashion and entertainment. The winds of change are reshaping consumer spending patterns and lifestyles, offering investors a sea of opportunities. This transformation, influenced by many factors, not only reflects the dynamism of the market but also opens doors for investments in consumption related sectors.

    With the rise of e-commerce, there is a noticeable shift towards online purchases driven by convenience and a broader array of choices. The digital era presents opportunities for investors eyeing companies catering to the online retail boom. Moreover, there is a growing trend of higher expenditure on experiences. Consumers are allocating a significant portion of their budgets to travel and dining and entertainment. This offers investment avenues in the hospitality, tourism, and entertainment industries, as businesses adapt to meet the demand for memorable experiences.

    1. AEvolving lifestyles and consumer behaviour
    2. BDecrease in population
    3. CIncrease in government regulations
    4. DDecrease in economic growth

    Answer: (A) Evolving lifestyles and consumer behaviour

    Explanation

    The passage highlights in its opening sentences that the shift in consumption patterns across India is driven by the winds of changing lifestyles and evolving consumer behaviour.

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94. Question 94

    What desire is driving consumption sectors in India ?

    Across India, a profound transformation is underway woven into the fabric of everyday life. The consumption patterns in the country are undergoing a shift, driven by the winds of changing lifestyles and evolving consumer behaviour. This transformation reflects not only economic growth but also the aspirations and preferences of a dynamic and diverse population. The Indian consumer landscape is witnessing a surge in demand for convenience. Busy schedules and fast-paced lives have given rise to an increased confidence on services that offer time-saving solutions. Food delivery, ride-sharing apps, and home services are becoming integral to the urban lifestyle, transforming the way people manage their daily routines. Social media plays a significant role in shaping perceptions and aspirations. Companies and online platforms are influencing fashion choices, choice of travel destinations, and recreational activities. The desire for unique experiences and a curated lifestyle is driving consumption sectors ranging from travel and hospitality to fashion and entertainment. The winds of change are reshaping consumer spending patterns and lifestyles, offering investors a sea of opportunities. This transformation, influenced by many factors, not only reflects the dynamism of the market but also opens doors for investments in consumption related sectors.

    With the rise of e-commerce, there is a noticeable shift towards online purchases driven by convenience and a broader array of choices. The digital era presents opportunities for investors eyeing companies catering to the online retail boom. Moreover, there is a growing trend of higher expenditure on experiences. Consumers are allocating a significant portion of their budgets to travel and dining and entertainment. This offers investment avenues in the hospitality, tourism, and entertainment industries, as businesses adapt to meet the demand for memorable experiences.

    1. ADesire for unique experiences and a curated lifestyle
    2. BDesire for traditional lifestyle
    3. CDesire for modern technology
    4. DDesire for simplicity

    Answer: (A) Desire for unique experiences and a curated lifestyle

    Explanation

    The passage confirms that the desire for unique experiences and a curated lifestyle is actively driving consumption sectors ranging from travel and hospitality to fashion and entertainment.

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95. Question 95

    How is social media influencing consumer behaviour in India ?

    Across India, a profound transformation is underway woven into the fabric of everyday life. The consumption patterns in the country are undergoing a shift, driven by the winds of changing lifestyles and evolving consumer behaviour. This transformation reflects not only economic growth but also the aspirations and preferences of a dynamic and diverse population. The Indian consumer landscape is witnessing a surge in demand for convenience. Busy schedules and fast-paced lives have given rise to an increased confidence on services that offer time-saving solutions. Food delivery, ride-sharing apps, and home services are becoming integral to the urban lifestyle, transforming the way people manage their daily routines. Social media plays a significant role in shaping perceptions and aspirations. Companies and online platforms are influencing fashion choices, choice of travel destinations, and recreational activities. The desire for unique experiences and a curated lifestyle is driving consumption sectors ranging from travel and hospitality to fashion and entertainment. The winds of change are reshaping consumer spending patterns and lifestyles, offering investors a sea of opportunities. This transformation, influenced by many factors, not only reflects the dynamism of the market but also opens doors for investments in consumption related sectors.

    With the rise of e-commerce, there is a noticeable shift towards online purchases driven by convenience and a broader array of choices. The digital era presents opportunities for investors eyeing companies catering to the online retail boom. Moreover, there is a growing trend of higher expenditure on experiences. Consumers are allocating a significant portion of their budgets to travel and dining and entertainment. This offers investment avenues in the hospitality, tourism, and entertainment industries, as businesses adapt to meet the demand for memorable experiences.

    1. ABy promoting traditional values
    2. BBy shaping perceptions and aspirations
    3. CBy discouraging online shopping
    4. DBy advocating minimalism

    Answer: (B) By shaping perceptions and aspirations

    Explanation

    The passage documents that social media plays a significant role in shaping perceptions and aspirations, thereby influencing choices in fashion, travel destinations, and recreational activities.

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96. Question 96

    What is identified as the true differentiator for success in the business landscape ?

    In the business landscape, where operations and functions often follow a similar blueprint, the true differentiator that drives the business towards success is its unique work culture. An organization’s culture is shaped by various factors such as the leadership, workforce, and the external influences. These factors significantly impact the company’s success, and its overall performance. With job insecurities and uncertainties on the rise, workplaces are considering to reshape their organisational cultures.

    According to a study conducted by Deloitte, 94% of executives and 88% of employees acknowledge the critical role of organisational culture in determining a company’s success. Significantly, 76% of surveyed employees highlighted the direct influence of a well-defined business strategy in cultivating a positive culture. This global phenomenon also significantly influences India’s fast-moving startup ecosystem, where numerous tasks must be accomplished with limited time and resources. It becomes imperative for these organisations to restructure their work culture by instilling qualities such as agility, an innovative-focused mindset, and resilience amongst its employees.

    Moreover, a focus area that has gained significant prominence in India’s work culture is employee mental well-being. Post pandemic, many organizations were compelled to reassess their priorities, including those in India, to shift towards prioritizing employee happiness and overall well-being. This change in the leadership perspective affected corporate environments to focus on their work culture, as employees now prioritize a balanced work-life equation. Today, many job seekers choose a secure, inclusive, and flexible work environment when evaluating potential opportunities.

    1. AOperations and functions
    2. BUnique work culture
    3. CLeadership skills
    4. DExternal influences

    Answer: (B) Unique work culture

    Explanation

    The passage states that where operations and functions often follow similar blueprints, the true differentiator that drives business success is its unique work culture.

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97. Question 97

    What change in leadership perspective occurred post-pandemic ?

    In the business landscape, where operations and functions often follow a similar blueprint, the true differentiator that drives the business towards success is its unique work culture. An organization’s culture is shaped by various factors such as the leadership, workforce, and the external influences. These factors significantly impact the company’s success, and its overall performance. With job insecurities and uncertainties on the rise, workplaces are considering to reshape their organisational cultures.

    According to a study conducted by Deloitte, 94% of executives and 88% of employees acknowledge the critical role of organisational culture in determining a company’s success. Significantly, 76% of surveyed employees highlighted the direct influence of a well-defined business strategy in cultivating a positive culture. This global phenomenon also significantly influences India’s fast-moving startup ecosystem, where numerous tasks must be accomplished with limited time and resources. It becomes imperative for these organisations to restructure their work culture by instilling qualities such as agility, an innovative-focused mindset, and resilience amongst its employees.

    Moreover, a focus area that has gained significant prominence in India’s work culture is employee mental well-being. Post pandemic, many organizations were compelled to reassess their priorities, including those in India, to shift towards prioritizing employee happiness and overall well-being. This change in the leadership perspective affected corporate environments to focus on their work culture, as employees now prioritize a balanced work-life equation. Today, many job seekers choose a secure, inclusive, and flexible work environment when evaluating potential opportunities.

    1. AFocus on increasing work hours
    2. BPrioritization of employee happiness and well-being
    3. CEmphasis on strict performance metrics
    4. DPromotion on hierarchical structures

    Answer: (B) Prioritization of employee happiness and well-being

    Explanation

    The passage notes that post-pandemic, organizations shifted their priorities towards prioritizing employee happiness and overall well-being, fostering a balanced work-life equation.

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98. Question 98

    What aspect did 76% of surveyed employees emphasize as having a direct influence on cultivating a positive culture ?

    In the business landscape, where operations and functions often follow a similar blueprint, the true differentiator that drives the business towards success is its unique work culture. An organization’s culture is shaped by various factors such as the leadership, workforce, and the external influences. These factors significantly impact the company’s success, and its overall performance. With job insecurities and uncertainties on the rise, workplaces are considering to reshape their organisational cultures.

    According to a study conducted by Deloitte, 94% of executives and 88% of employees acknowledge the critical role of organisational culture in determining a company’s success. Significantly, 76% of surveyed employees highlighted the direct influence of a well-defined business strategy in cultivating a positive culture. This global phenomenon also significantly influences India’s fast-moving startup ecosystem, where numerous tasks must be accomplished with limited time and resources. It becomes imperative for these organisations to restructure their work culture by instilling qualities such as agility, an innovative-focused mindset, and resilience amongst its employees.

    Moreover, a focus area that has gained significant prominence in India’s work culture is employee mental well-being. Post pandemic, many organizations were compelled to reassess their priorities, including those in India, to shift towards prioritizing employee happiness and overall well-being. This change in the leadership perspective affected corporate environments to focus on their work culture, as employees now prioritize a balanced work-life equation. Today, many job seekers choose a secure, inclusive, and flexible work environment when evaluating potential opportunities.

    1. AWorkforce diversity
    2. BFinancial incentives
    3. CBusiness strategy
    4. DOperational efficiency

    Answer: (C) Business strategy

    Explanation

    According to the Deloitte study cited in the passage, 76% of surveyed employees highlighted the direct influence of a well-defined business strategy in cultivating a positive organizational culture.

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99. Question 99

    In India’s startup ecosystem, what qualities are imperative for organizations to instill in their employees ?

    In the business landscape, where operations and functions often follow a similar blueprint, the true differentiator that drives the business towards success is its unique work culture. An organization’s culture is shaped by various factors such as the leadership, workforce, and the external influences. These factors significantly impact the company’s success, and its overall performance. With job insecurities and uncertainties on the rise, workplaces are considering to reshape their organisational cultures.

    According to a study conducted by Deloitte, 94% of executives and 88% of employees acknowledge the critical role of organisational culture in determining a company’s success. Significantly, 76% of surveyed employees highlighted the direct influence of a well-defined business strategy in cultivating a positive culture. This global phenomenon also significantly influences India’s fast-moving startup ecosystem, where numerous tasks must be accomplished with limited time and resources. It becomes imperative for these organisations to restructure their work culture by instilling qualities such as agility, an innovative-focused mindset, and resilience amongst its employees.

    Moreover, a focus area that has gained significant prominence in India’s work culture is employee mental well-being. Post pandemic, many organizations were compelled to reassess their priorities, including those in India, to shift towards prioritizing employee happiness and overall well-being. This change in the leadership perspective affected corporate environments to focus on their work culture, as employees now prioritize a balanced work-life equation. Today, many job seekers choose a secure, inclusive, and flexible work environment when evaluating potential opportunities.

    1. ATradition and stability
    2. BInnovation and resilience
    3. CConsistency and predictability
    4. DHierarchy and control

    Answer: (B) Innovation and resilience

    Explanation

    The passage states that startup environments in India require organizations to instill qualities such as agility, an innovative-focused mindset, and resilience among employees.

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100. Question 100

     How do organizations in the fast-moving startup ecosystem need to reshape their work culture ?

     In the business landscape, where operations and functions often follow a similar blueprint, the true differentiator that drives the business towards success is its unique work culture. An organization’s culture is shaped by various factors such as the leadership, workforce, and the external influences. These factors significantly impact the company’s success, and its overall performance. With job insecurities and uncertainties on the rise, workplaces are considering to reshape their organisational cultures.

     According to a study conducted by Deloitte, 94% of executives and 88% of employees acknowledge the critical role of organisational culture in determining a company’s success. Significantly, 76% of surveyed employees highlighted the direct influence of a well-defined business strategy in cultivating a positive culture. This global phenomenon also significantly influences India’s fast-moving startup ecosystem, where numerous tasks must be accomplished with limited time and resources. It becomes imperative for these organisations to restructure their work culture by instilling qualities such as agility, an innovative-focused mindset, and resilience amongst its employees.

     Moreover, a focus area that has gained significant prominence in India’s work culture is employee mental well-being. Post pandemic, many organizations were compelled to reassess their priorities, including those in India, to shift towards prioritizing employee happiness and overall well-being. This change in the leadership perspective affected corporate environments to focus on their work culture, as employees now prioritize a balanced work-life equation. Today, many job seekers choose a secure, inclusive, and flexible work environment when evaluating potential opportunities.

     1. ABy emphasizing tradition and stability
     2. BBy promoting strict hierarchy
     3. CBy instilling agility and innovation
     4. DBy increasing job insecurities

     Answer: (C) By instilling agility and innovation

     Explanation

     The passage indicates that startup organizations must restructure their work culture by fostering an agile, innovative, and resilient employee mindset.

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