UGC NET Management September 2024 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   If the total numbers of items sold by A and B on all five days are 4000 and 4400 respectively, then the number of items sold by B on Tuesday is ________% more than the number of items sold by A on Friday.

   Day	A	B	C	D	E
   Monday	840	880	480	-	560
   Tuesday	720	-	1040	420	820
   Wednesday	560	480	820	850	-
   Thursday	1080	1020	-	1260	320
   Friday	-	920	700	1020	800

   1. A37.5
   2. B23.5
   3. C32.25
   4. D42.5

   Answer: (A) 37.5

   Explanation

   B sold 1,100 on Tuesday and A sold 800 on Friday. The increase is 300/800 × 100 = 37.5%. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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2. Question 2

   If the ratio of the number of items sold by B and C together on Thursday to the number of items sold by C and E together on the same day is 2 : 1, then the number of items sold by C on Thursday is:

   Day	A	B	C	D	E
   Monday	840	880	480	-	560
   Tuesday	720	-	1040	420	820
   Wednesday	560	480	820	850	-
   Thursday	1080	1020	-	1260	320
   Friday	-	920	700	1020	800

   1. A300
   2. B420
   3. C380
   4. D340

   Answer: (C) 380

   Explanation

   Let Thursday's C value be x. (1020 + x)/(x + 320) = 2, so x = 380. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives. Because this calculation directly applies the given numerical relationship, it eliminates every incompatible option.

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3. Question 3

   If the total number of items sold by A on all five days is 3600, then the difference between the number of items sold by A on Monday and Friday is:

   Day	A	B	C	D	E
   Monday	840	880	480	-	560
   Tuesday	720	-	1040	420	820
   Wednesday	560	480	820	850	-
   Thursday	1080	1020	-	1260	320
   Friday	-	920	700	1020	800

   1. A640
   2. B450
   3. C420
   4. D440

   Answer: (D) 440

   Explanation

   A's known four-day total is 3,200, so Friday is 400. The difference from Monday's 840 is 440. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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4. Question 4

   If the average number of items sold by D on Monday and Tuesday is 490, then the number of items sold by E on Friday is ________% more than the number of items sold by D on Monday.

   Day	A	B	C	D	E
   Monday	840	880	480	-	560
   Tuesday	720	-	1040	420	820
   Wednesday	560	480	820	850	-
   Thursday	1080	1020	-	1260	320
   Friday	-	920	700	1020	800

   1. A39.76
   2. B42.86
   3. C48.23
   4. D45

   Answer: (B) 42.86

   Explanation

   D's Monday value is 560 because (560 + 420)/2 = 490. E's Friday value is 800, so the increase is 240/560 × 100 = 42.86%. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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5. Question 5

   If the number of items sold by C on Thursday is the average of the number of items sold by C on Wednesday and Friday, then the total number of items sold by C on all five days is:

   Day	A	B	C	D	E
   Monday	840	880	480	-	560
   Tuesday	720	-	1040	420	820
   Wednesday	560	480	820	850	-
   Thursday	1080	1020	-	1260	320
   Friday	-	920	700	1020	800

   1. A3500
   2. B3800
   3. C3400
   4. D3700

   Answer: (B) 3800

   Explanation

   Thursday's C value is (820 + 700)/2 = 760. Adding 480, 1040, 820, 760 and 700 gives 3,800. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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6. Question 6

   Match List I with List II.

   List I (ICT/Tools)	List II (Functions)
   A. Padlet	I. Criteria-based assessment and feedback
   B. Rubrics	II. Collaborative digital bulletin board
   C. Quizlet	III. Real-time audience response and polling
   D. Mentimeter	IV. Interactive flashcards and study sets

   1. AA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
   2. BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
   3. CA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
   4. DA-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

   Answer: (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

   Explanation

   Padlet is a collaborative bulletin board, rubrics support criteria-based assessment, Quizlet provides flashcards, and Mentimeter supports live polling. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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7. Question 7

   A teacher assigns a video lecture for students to watch at home before coming to class. The next day, in class, she engages students in hands-on experimental activities. Which approach has she used?

   1. AProblem solving
   2. BCollaborative learning
   3. CFlipped classroom
   4. DPersonalized learning

   Answer: (C) Flipped classroom

   Explanation

   A flipped classroom moves initial content delivery outside class and uses class time for active application. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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8. Question 8

   A way of dealing with conflict in which people express their feelings, ask for what they want, say 'no' to things they do not want, and act in their own best interests is known as:

   1. AAggressive style
   2. BPassive style
   3. CAssertive style
   4. DManipulative style

   Answer: (C) Assertive style

   Explanation

   Assertiveness communicates one's needs and boundaries directly while respecting the other person. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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9. Question 9

   The transfer of learning from one situation to another situation that is conscious and effortful is known as:

   1. ANear transfer
   2. BHigh-road transfer
   3. CLow-road transfer
   4. DFar transfer

   Answer: (B) High-road transfer

   Explanation

   High-road transfer is deliberate abstraction and application of learning to a new context. Low-road transfer is automatic through extensive practice. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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10. Question 10

    The belief that one can master a situation and produce positive outcomes is known as:

    1. ASelf-efficacy
    2. BSelf-esteem
    3. CSelf-actualization
    4. DSelf-regulation

    Answer: (A) Self-efficacy

    Explanation

    Self-efficacy is a person's belief in their capability to organize and carry out actions needed to succeed. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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11. Question 11

    'Code numbers given to the religion of persons' is an example of data on which of the following scales of measurement?

    1. ANominal
    2. BOrdinal
    3. CInterval
    4. DRatio

    Answer: (A) Nominal

    Explanation

    The numbers are labels for categories, not quantities or ranks. That is a nominal scale. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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12. Question 12

    The criterion of 'dependability' in qualitative research parallels which of the following criteria in quantitative research?

    1. AObjectivity
    2. BInternal validity
    3. CExternal validity
    4. DReliability

    Answer: (D) Reliability

    Explanation

    Dependability concerns the consistency and traceability of a qualitative inquiry, corresponding to reliability in quantitative research. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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13. Question 13

    Identify the correct statement about quantitative content analysis:

    1. AIt can allow a certain amount of longitudinal analysis
    2. BIt is an obtrusive method
    3. CIt is a very rigid method
    4. DIt is a reactive method

    Answer: (A) It can allow a certain amount of longitudinal analysis

    Explanation

    Coding content across time periods can reveal longitudinal change. Content analysis is generally unobtrusive and non-reactive. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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14. Question 14

    The geometric mean of the numbers 9, 12 and 16 is:

    1. A12.33
    2. B11.66
    3. C12
    4. D12.66

    Answer: (C) 12

    Explanation

    The geometric mean is ∛(9 × 12 × 16) = ∛1728 = 12. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives. Because this calculation directly applies the given numerical relationship, it eliminates every incompatible option.

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15. Question 15

    Suppose H0 = Null Hypothesis, Ha = Alternate Hypothesis, μ = population mean, and μH0 = hypothesized mean. A researcher sets up H0: μ = μH0 and Ha: μ < μH0. In this situation, the researcher would apply:

    1. ARight-tailed test
    2. BLeft-tailed test
    3. CTwo-tailed test
    4. DHalf-tailed test

    Answer: (B) Left-tailed test

    Explanation

    The alternative specifies values below the hypothesized mean, so the rejection region lies in the left tail. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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16. Question 16

    Western society considers communication as an instrument of:

    1. AAggression
    2. BSeparation
    3. CCovert operations
    4. DHuman relationship

    Answer: (D) Human relationship

    Explanation

    Communication is conventionally understood as a means of building and maintaining human relationships. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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17. Question 17

    The context in which communication takes place is termed as:

    1. AHistorical background
    2. BObjectification
    3. CEnvironment
    4. DMediasphere

    Answer: (C) Environment

    Explanation

    The setting and surrounding conditions in which a message is exchanged form its communication environment. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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18. Question 18

    In non-verbal communication, a symbol representing an object is known as:

    1. AIdentify symbol
    2. BExplanatory symbol
    3. CAnimated symbol
    4. DConcrete symbol

    Answer: (D) Concrete symbol

    Explanation

    A concrete symbol directly represents an object or idea through a recognizable form. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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19. Question 19

    Communication is continuously:

    1. AEvolving
    2. BNegative
    3. CStagnant
    4. DSubliminal

    Answer: (A) Evolving

    Explanation

    Communication is a dynamic process that changes as people, messages, contexts and feedback change. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives. Because this calculation directly applies the given numerical relationship, it eliminates every incompatible option.

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20. Question 20

    Match List I with List II.

    List I (Communication noise)	List II (Description)
    A. Semantic	I. Exists outside of the receiver
    B. Physical	II. Communicator's prejudices and biases towards another person
    C. Psychological	III. The biological influence on the communication process
    D. Physiological	IV. Linguistic influence on message reception

    1. AA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    2. BA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    3. CA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    4. DA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

    Answer: (C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Explanation

    Semantic noise concerns language, physical noise is external, psychological noise arises from biases, and physiological noise is biological. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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21. Question 21

    A school boy, travelling at 3 km/hr, reaches his school 28 minutes late, but when he travels at 5 km/hr, he reaches his school 28 minutes early. What distance does he travel every day to reach the school?

    1. A6 km
    2. B8 km
    3. C7 km
    4. D9 km

    Answer: (C) 7 km

    Explanation

    The travel-time difference is 56 minutes = 14/15 hour. d/3 − d/5 = 2d/15 = 14/15, hence d = 7 km. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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22. Question 22

    Three positive numbers are such that one-third of their average is 8 less than the highest number. If the average of the lowest and the second-lowest numbers is 8, what is the value of the highest number?

    1. A9
    2. B10
    3. C11
    4. D12

    Answer: (C) 11

    Explanation

    The two lower numbers total 16. If the highest is h, (16 + h)/9 = h − 8, giving h = 11. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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23. Question 23

    In a school, there were 1582 students and the ratio of the number of boys and girls was 4 : 3. After a few days, 30 girls joined the school but a few boys left the school and, as a result, the ratio of boys and girls became 7 : 6. The number of boys who left the school is:

    1. A84
    2. B74
    3. C86
    4. D78

    Answer: (D) 78

    Explanation

    Initially there were 904 boys and 678 girls. With 708 girls, the 7:6 ratio requires 826 boys, so 78 boys left. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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24. Question 24

    What will be the value of P in the following number series? 0, 3, 26, 255, P, ...

    1. A624
    2. B511
    3. C1023
    4. D3124

    Answer: (D) 3124

    Explanation

    The terms are 1^1−1, 2^2−1, 3^3−1 and 4^4−1. Therefore P = 5^5−1 = 3124. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives. Because this calculation directly applies the given numerical relationship, it eliminates every incompatible option.

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25. Question 25

    A certain sum of money becomes ₹28,800 in 2 years at 20% per annum compound interest (compounded annually). The sum of money is:

    1. A₹24,000
    2. B₹22,000
    3. C₹21,000
    4. D₹20,000

    Answer: (D) ₹20,000

    Explanation

    A = P(1.2)^2 = 1.44P. Thus P = 28,800/1.44 = ₹20,000. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives. Because this calculation directly applies the given numerical relationship, it eliminates every incompatible option.

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26. Question 26

    Arrange the following terms in order of increasing abstractness.

    A. Alloy
    B. Metal
    C. Steel
    D. Mineral

    1. AC, B, D, A
    2. BC, A, B, D
    3. CC, A, D, B
    4. DD, B, A, C

    Answer: (B) C, A, B, D

    Explanation

    Steel is a specific material, alloy is a material class, metal is broader, and mineral is the most abstract category here. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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27. Question 27

    Which of the following statements are true regarding the word 'God'?

    A. It is meaningless.
    B. It is meaningful.
    C. The word 'God' has no intension that could be its meaning.
    D. In the case of the word 'God', there is an intension that is its meaning.

    1. AB and D only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CA only
    4. DB only

    Answer: (A) B and D only

    Explanation

    A meaningful general term has an intension, or a set of defining attributes. On that analysis, B and D go together. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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28. Question 28

    "A line is composed of points. Points have no length. Therefore a line has no length." Which informal fallacy is committed in this statement?

    1. AFallacy of composition
    2. BEquivocation
    3. CHasty generalisation
    4. DSlippery slope

    Answer: (A) Fallacy of composition

    Explanation

    The argument wrongly transfers a property of each part to the whole, which is the fallacy of composition. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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29. Question 29

    Which of the following statements is logically equivalent to the statement: "No liquids are beverages"?

    1. AAll non-beverages are non-liquids
    2. BAll liquids are beverages
    3. CSome beverages are not liquids
    4. DNo beverages are liquids

    Answer: (D) No beverages are liquids

    Explanation

    A universal negative, "No S are P," converts validly to "No P are S." Therefore no beverages are liquids. The corrected option B is false because it asserts the opposite relation. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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30. Question 30

    According to the Classical Indian School of Logic (Nyaya), the argument "Sound is eternal because it is produced" is fallacious because:

    1. AThe middle term, instead of being pervaded by the presence of the major term, is pervaded by its absence.
    2. BThe locus of the middle term is impossible.
    3. CThe middle term, instead of being pervaded by the absence of the major term, is pervaded by its presence.
    4. DIt lacks any major term.

    Answer: (A) The middle term, instead of being pervaded by the presence of the major term, is pervaded by its absence.

    Explanation

    Produced things are non-eternal. Thus the stated reason establishes the absence, rather than the presence, of eternality. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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31. Question 31

    A security system uses a camera to capture images of each person entering a gift shop. Each image requires 1 MB of storage. If the camera captures an image every 5 seconds over a 24-hour period, how much storage is required?

    1. A16.875 GB
    2. B15.250 GB
    3. C12.525 GB
    4. D19.625 GB

    Answer: (A) 16.875 GB

    Explanation

    There are 86,400/5 = 17,280 images, requiring 17,280 MB = 16.875 GB using 1 GB = 1024 MB. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives. Because this calculation directly applies the given numerical relationship, it eliminates every incompatible option.

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32. Question 32

    With reference to different number systems, which of the following statements is true?

    1. A(109)₁₀ = (1101001)₂
    2. B(123)₅ = (212)₄
    3. C(101)₁₆ + (110)₈ = (429)₁₀
    4. D(241)₆ = (131)₈

    Answer: (B) (123)₅ = (212)₄

    Explanation

    (123)₅ = 25 + 10 + 3 = 38 and (212)₄ = 32 + 4 + 2 = 38. The other conversions are unequal. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives. Because this calculation directly applies the given numerical relationship, it eliminates every incompatible option.

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33. Question 33

    In the context of Bluetooth and Wi-Fi as wireless communication technologies, which of the following statements are true?

    A. Bluetooth allows short-range data transfer between electronic devices, whereas Wi-Fi allows electronic devices to connect to the Internet.
    B. Bluetooth needs a direct line of sight for data transmission, whereas Wi-Fi does not need it.
    C. Bluetooth limits the number of devices that can connect at any one time, whereas Wi-Fi is open to more devices and more users.
    D. Bluetooth does not need a direct line of sight for data transmission, whereas Wi-Fi does need it.

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (D) A and C only

    Explanation

    Bluetooth is short-range and Wi-Fi supports broader network access and more users. Neither technology requires direct line of sight, so A and C are true. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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34. Question 34

    In computers, which of the following statements is true?

    1. AData matrix printer is a type of non-impact printer.
    2. BLaser printer is a type of impact printer.
    3. CThe resolution of a laser printer is measured in Megabits per second (Mbps).
    4. DData matrix printers are noisy, low quality and slow in comparison to laser printers.

    Answer: (D) Data matrix printers are noisy, low quality and slow in comparison to laser printers.

    Explanation

    Dot-matrix printers are impact printers and are typically noisy and slower than laser printers. Laser resolution is measured in dpi, not Mbps. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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35. Question 35

    Which of the following statements about spreadsheet software (MS Excel) are true?

    A. Data in spreadsheets are always correct.
    B. Spreadsheet software cannot draw bar graphs.
    C. Spreadsheet software automatically recalculates.
    D. Some cells in a spreadsheet can be locked to prevent a user changing their contents.

    1. AA and B only
    2. BC and D only
    3. CA and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (B) C and D only

    Explanation

    Excel recalculates formulas and can protect selected cells. It can create bar charts, and its data are not automatically error-free. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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36. Question 36

    Which of the following is the correct chronological order, from earliest to latest, of the following Acts according to their year of enactment in India?

    1. AEnvironment (Protection) Act; Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act; Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
    2. BAir (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act; Environment (Protection) Act; Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
    3. CWater (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act; Environment (Protection) Act; Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
    4. DWater (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act; Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act; Environment (Protection) Act

    Answer: (D) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act; Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act; Environment (Protection) Act

    Explanation

    The Water Act is from 1974, the Air Act from 1981, and the Environment (Protection) Act from 1986. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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37. Question 37

    Benefits of biodiesel over petrodiesel are:

    A. Biodiesel contains virtually no sulfur.
    B. Biodiesel emits substantially lower carbon monoxide (CO).
    C. Biodiesel is a better lubricant than petrodiesel.
    D. Biodiesel emits significantly lower oxides of nitrogen (NOx) than petrodiesel.
    E. Particulate emission by biodiesel is much lower than that of petrodiesel.

    1. AA, B, C, D only
    2. BB, C, D, E only
    3. CA, B, C, E only
    4. DA, B, D, E only

    Answer: (C) A, B, C, E only

    Explanation

    Biodiesel is low in sulfur, improves lubricity, and generally lowers CO and particulate emissions. It does not reliably lower NOx. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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38. Question 38

    Which of the following came as alternatives to chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) as refrigerants?

    A. Hydrofluorocarbons
    B. Perfluorocarbons
    C. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons
    D. Halons

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (D) A and C only

    Explanation

    Hydrochlorofluorocarbons and hydrofluorocarbons were adopted as CFC alternatives. Halons are fire suppressants, not standard refrigerant replacements. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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39. Question 39

    Which of the following is true about an over-fertile lake?

    1. ANitrate level decreases
    2. BDepletion in algal productivity
    3. COxygen level increases
    4. DQuality of fishes produced is impaired

    Answer: (D) Quality of fishes produced is impaired

    Explanation

    Eutrophication promotes algal blooms and subsequent oxygen depletion, which impairs fish quality and survival. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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40. Question 40

    Temporary hardness in water is also known as:

    1. ASulphate hardness
    2. BNitrate hardness
    3. CChloride hardness
    4. DCarbonate hardness

    Answer: (D) Carbonate hardness

    Explanation

    Temporary hardness is caused mainly by calcium and magnesium bicarbonates, so it is called carbonate hardness. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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41. Question 41

    Under the Universities Act of 1904, universities were given the authority to recognise:

    1. ASchool boards
    2. BLiteracy missions
    3. CElementary schools
    4. DSecondary schools

    Answer: (D) Secondary schools

    Explanation

    The Indian Universities Act, 1904 strengthened university control, including recognition of secondary schools. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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42. Question 42

    One of the subjects taught at ancient Nalanda University was:

    1. AAstronomy
    2. BChemistry
    3. CMetaphysics
    4. DMathematics

    Answer: (A) Astronomy

    Explanation

    Nalanda's broad curriculum included astronomy alongside Buddhist studies, logic, grammar and medicine. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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43. Question 43

    What was the National Knowledge Commission's recommendation for the minimum Gross Enrolment Ratio to be achieved in higher education by 2015?

    1. A5 percent
    2. B10 percent
    3. C15 percent
    4. D20 percent

    Answer: (C) 15 percent

    Explanation

    The National Knowledge Commission recommended raising higher-education GER to at least 15 percent by 2015. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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44. Question 44

    Which of the following are functions of the Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR)?

    A. Encourage delinking of social sciences from natural sciences.
    B. Provide scholarship for research in social sciences.
    C. Give financial support to institutional journals of research.
    D. Promote social science research.
    E. Blacklist non-performing social science institutions from time to time.

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DA, D and E only

    Answer: (B) B, C and D only

    Explanation

    ICSSR promotes social-science research, awards research support, and supports scholarly journals. Delinking disciplines and blacklisting institutions are not its stated functions. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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45. Question 45

    The period between 1200 and 1764 AD was remarkable in India for the highest distinction attained by:

    1. APopular literature
    2. BVernacular literature
    3. CEnglish literature
    4. DFrench literature

    Answer: (B) Vernacular literature

    Explanation

    This period saw major development of regional-language, or vernacular, literary traditions in India. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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46. Question 46

    The number and size of the brain's nerve endings continue to grow till:

    Until recently, little was known for certain about how the brain changes as children age and grow. The number and size of the brain's nerve endings continue to grow at least until adolescence. Some increase in brain size is due to myelination, in which cells are covered with an insulating layer of fat cells that increases the speed of information through the nervous system. Myelination for hand-eye coordination is not complete until about age four.

    Myelination in areas important for focusing attention is not complete until the end of the elementary school years. Children therefore improve their ability to focus as they move through those years. Synapses are tiny gaps between neurons where connections are made. Nearly twice as many connections are made as will be used; used connections strengthen and survive, while unused ones are replaced or disappear.

    1. AElementary school years
    2. BEarly childhood
    3. CAdulthood
    4. DAdolescence

    Answer: (D) Adolescence

    Explanation

    The passage states that the number and size of nerve endings continue to grow at least until adolescence. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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47. Question 47

    Which of the following facts about myelination are correct?

    A. It increases the speed at which information travels through the nervous system.
    B. It is responsible for an increase in the size of the brain.
    C. It is completed in all areas of the brain by age four.
    D. Knowledge about it does not benefit us in any way.

    Until recently, little was known for certain about how the brain changes as children age and grow. The number and size of the brain's nerve endings continue to grow at least until adolescence. Some increase in brain size is due to myelination, in which cells are covered with an insulating layer of fat cells that increases the speed of information through the nervous system. Myelination for hand-eye coordination is not complete until about age four.

    Myelination in areas important for focusing attention is not complete until the end of the elementary school years. Children therefore improve their ability to focus as they move through those years. Synapses are tiny gaps between neurons where connections are made. Nearly twice as many connections are made as will be used; used connections strengthen and survive, while unused ones are replaced or disappear.

    1. AC and D only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CA and B only
    4. DA, C and D only

    Answer: (C) A and B only

    Explanation

    The passage says myelination speeds information and contributes to brain size. It is not complete in all areas by age four. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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48. Question 48

    Which of the following facts regarding synaptic connections are correct?

    A. Connections that are used are weakened.
    B. Twice as many connections are made than ever will be used.
    C. Unused connections either disappear or are replaced by other pathways.
    D. Connections that are used perish.

    Until recently, little was known for certain about how the brain changes as children age and grow. The number and size of the brain's nerve endings continue to grow at least until adolescence. Some increase in brain size is due to myelination, in which cells are covered with an insulating layer of fat cells that increases the speed of information through the nervous system. Myelination for hand-eye coordination is not complete until about age four.

    Myelination in areas important for focusing attention is not complete until the end of the elementary school years. Children therefore improve their ability to focus as they move through those years. Synapses are tiny gaps between neurons where connections are made. Nearly twice as many connections are made as will be used; used connections strengthen and survive, while unused ones are replaced or disappear.

    1. AA, B and D only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA and D only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (B) B and C only

    Explanation

    The passage says unused connections disappear or are replaced, while used connections become strengthened and survive. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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49. Question 49

    As children grow, their attention span/focus:

    Until recently, little was known for certain about how the brain changes as children age and grow. The number and size of the brain's nerve endings continue to grow at least until adolescence. Some increase in brain size is due to myelination, in which cells are covered with an insulating layer of fat cells that increases the speed of information through the nervous system. Myelination for hand-eye coordination is not complete until about age four.

    Myelination in areas important for focusing attention is not complete until the end of the elementary school years. Children therefore improve their ability to focus as they move through those years. Synapses are tiny gaps between neurons where connections are made. Nearly twice as many connections are made as will be used; used connections strengthen and survive, while unused ones are replaced or disappear.

    1. ARemains static
    2. BImproves
    3. CDeclines insignificantly
    4. DDeclines significantly

    Answer: (B) Improves

    Explanation

    The passage explicitly says attention improves as children move through the elementary school years. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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50. Question 50

    Synapses are considered as:

    Until recently, little was known for certain about how the brain changes as children age and grow. The number and size of the brain's nerve endings continue to grow at least until adolescence. Some increase in brain size is due to myelination, in which cells are covered with an insulating layer of fat cells that increases the speed of information through the nervous system. Myelination for hand-eye coordination is not complete until about age four.

    Myelination in areas important for focusing attention is not complete until the end of the elementary school years. Children therefore improve their ability to focus as they move through those years. Synapses are tiny gaps between neurons where connections are made. Nearly twice as many connections are made as will be used; used connections strengthen and survive, while unused ones are replaced or disappear.

    1. ATiny gaps between neurons where connections between neurons are made.
    2. BAn element responsible for blood circulation in the brain.
    3. CLarge gaps between neurons where connections between neurons are made.
    4. DThe one and only particle of the brain related to hand-eye coordination.

    Answer: (A) Tiny gaps between neurons where connections between neurons are made.

    Explanation

    The passage defines synapses as tiny gaps between neurons where their connections are made. The reasoning follows the stated definition or calculation and distinguishes the alternatives.

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100 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   Which among the following characteristics influence consumer buying behaviour strongly?
   A. Cultural
   B. Social
   C. Personal
   D. Psychological
   E. Technological

   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. AA, B, C and D Only
   2. BA, B, D, and E only
   3. CB, C, D and E only
   4. DA, C, D and E only

   Answer: (A) A, B, C and D Only

   Explanation

   ✅ Correct answer: A, B, C and D Only ✅ Explanation: The four major factors that influence consumer buying behaviour are: 🔹 A. Cultural Factors – ✅ Culture, subculture, and social class shape preferences and behaviors. 🔹 B. Social Factors – ✅ Reference groups, family, roles, and status affect consumer decisions. 🔹 C. Personal Factors – ✅ Age, lifestyle, occupation, economic status, personality, and self-concept. 🔹 D. Psychological Factors – ✅ Motivation, perception, learning, beliefs, and attitudes. ❌ E. Technological – While technology affects marketing and product development, it is not classified as a primary psychological or sociological influence on individual consumer behavior in classical consumer behavior theory. It is considered more of an external environmental force, not a core influence category. ✅ Final Answer: A, B, C and D Only.

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2. Question 2

   Find the initial feasible solution of the following transportation problem by Vogel's Approximation Method (VAM).

   From / To	W1	W2	W3	Supply
   F1	16	20	12	200
   F2	14	8	18	160
   F3	26	24	16	100
   Demand	180	130	150	460

   1. A₹6060
   2. B₹6660
   3. C₹6000
   4. D₹6600

   Answer: (A) ₹6060

   Explanation

   VAM first uses the row and column penalties to allocate to the lowest-cost available cells, updating supply and demand after every allocation. Completing those allocations for this balanced table gives an initial transportation cost of ₹6060, so option A is correct.

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3. Question 3

   Arrange the following components of a cost sheet in proper sequence starting from first to last.
   A. Cost of sale
   B. Cost of production
   C. Raw material consumed
   D. Factory cost
   E. Prime cost

   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. AC, D, E, B, A
   2. BA, B, C, D, E
   3. CC, E, D, B, A
   4. DC, D, E, A, B

   Answer: (D) C, D, E, A, B

   Explanation

   ✅ Correct Answer: C, E, D, B, A ✅ Explanation: The correct sequence of components in a cost sheet from first to last is: C. Raw Material Consumed This is the starting point for calculating direct costs. E. Prime Cost Prime Cost = Direct Materials (Raw Material Consumed) + Direct Labour + Direct Expenses. D. Factory Cost Also called Works Cost = Prime Cost + Factory/Manufacturing Overheads. B. Cost of Production Factory Cost + Administrative Overheads related to production. A. Cost of Sale Cost of Production + Selling & Distribution Overheads (after adjusting for opening/closing stock of finished goods). ✅ Final Answer: C, E, D, B, A

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4. Question 4

   Arrange the following Buyer-Readiness stages in correct sequence from starting to end.
   A. Knowledge
   B. Awareness
   C. Preference
   D. Conviction
   E. Liking

   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. AB, E, A, C, D
   2. BB, A, E, C, D
   3. CA, B, C, D, E
   4. DE, A, B, D, C

   Answer: (A) B, E, A, C, D

   Explanation

   ✅ Correct answer: B, A, E, C, D ✅ Explanation: The Buyer-Readiness Stages refer to the mental stages a prospective customer goes through before making a purchase decision. The typical sequence is: B. Awareness – The buyer becomes aware of the product or brand. A. Knowledge – The buyer learns more about the product features and benefits. E. Liking – The buyer develops a favorable attitude or interest toward the product. C. Preference – The buyer prefers the product over competing offerings. D. Conviction – The buyer decides firmly that they want the product and is ready to act. This is a psychological funnel that helps marketers design communication strategies based on where the customer stands in their readiness to purchase. ✅ Final Answer: B, A, E, C, D.

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5. Question 5

   Which of the following are settlement machineries of industrial disputes under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
   A. Works Committee
   B. Collective Bargaining
   C. Conciliation
   D. Adjudication
   E. Voluntary Arbitration

   Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

   1. AB, C, D, and E Only
   2. BA, C, D, and E Only
   3. CA, B, C, and D Only
   4. DC, A, and D Only

   Answer: (B) A, C, D, and E Only

   Explanation

   ✅Correct answer: A, C, D, and E Only ✅ Explanation:The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 provides various machineries for the settlement of industrial disputes. These mechanisms aim to promote industrial peace and resolve conflicts between employers and employees. The official settlement machineries under the Act include: A. Works Committee:Formed in establishments with 100 or more workers to promote harmony and resolve day-to-day issues.✅ Yes, it is a statutory settlement machinery. C. Conciliation:A formal process conducted by Conciliation Officers or Boards to mediate between parties.✅ Included under the Act. D. Adjudication:Refers to dispute resolution by Labour Courts, Industrial Tribunals, or National Tribunals.✅ A major legal machinery under the Act. E. Voluntary Arbitration:Allows parties to refer disputes to an arbitrator by mutual consent, with legal backing under Section 10A.✅ Recognized under the Act. ❌ Why the other option is incorrect: B. Collective Bargaining:This is a negotiation process between employer and employees (usually via unions), not a formal statutory machinery under the Industrial Disputes Act.❌ Not considered a statutory dispute settlement machinery, though it’s a means of preventing disputes. ✅ Final Answer: A, C, D, and E Only.

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6. Question 6

   “The right that is delegated to an individual or department to control specified processes, practices, policies, or other matters relating to activities undertaken by persons in other departments” is called:

   1. AService authority
   2. BProduct authority
   3. CTemporary authority
   4. DFunctional authority

   Answer: (B) Product authority

   Explanation

   ✅Correct answer: Functional authority Unit I: Business Management and Managerial Economics Topic: Organization Structure and Design: Authority 📖 Explanation: This question tests your knowledge of types of authority in organizations. The key phrase is: “The right that is delegated to an individual or department to control specified processes, practices, policies, or other matters relating to activities undertaken by persons in other departments.” This is the standard definition of Functional Authority Example: An HR Manager may have authority over recruitment policies across all departments, or a Safety Officer may enforce safety procedures throughout the organization. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Product authority Reason: Refers to authority over a specific product or product line, not over functions or activities across departments. Temporary authority Reason: Refers to authority granted for a limited period and is not the concept described in the question. Service authority Reason: Refers to advisory or support services and does not involve controlling activities in other departments. ✅ Final Answer: Functional authority.

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7. Question 7

   Which of the following helps in Business decision making in an ill-structured decision situation, often using a complex spreadsheet by creating “what if” models for the manager?

   1. ADecision Support System (DSS)
   2. BManagement Information System (MIS)
   3. CExecutive Support System (ESS)
   4. DKnowledge Work System (KWS)

   Answer: (B) Management Information System (MIS)

   Explanation

   ✅ Correct Answer: Decision Support System (DSS) 📘 Explanation: A Decision Support System (DSS) is designed to help managers make decisions in ill-structured or semi-structured situations, where problems are complex and not routine. DSS often uses tools like complex spreadsheets and “what-if” models to simulate different scenarios and analyze potential outcomes, supporting better decision-making. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Management Information System (MIS): Primarily focuses on providing routine, structured information and reports to manage operations efficiently but does not handle complex or unstructured decision scenarios. Knowledge Work System (KWS): Supports knowledge workers in creating and integrating new knowledge but is not primarily focused on decision-making with what-if analysis. Executive Support System (ESS): Provides senior executives with summarized information and easy access to external and internal data, usually for strategic decisions, but less focused on interactive “what-if” modeling. ✅ Final Answer: Decision Support System (DSS)

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8. Question 8

   When we measure, what type of demand we assume that effects of other variables are constant?

   1. AAll the options are correct
   2. BGross elasticity of demand
   3. CRevenue and price elasticity of demand
   4. DPromotional elasticity of demand

   Answer: (C) Revenue and price elasticity of demand

   Explanation

   ✅ Correct answer: All the options are correct. Unit I: Business Management and Managerial Economics Topic: Demand analysis: Elasticity 📖 Explanation: The ceteris paribus assumption — “all other things remaining constant” — is not exclusive to any one type of elasticity. It is a universal assumption applied across all types of elasticity measurement. Whenever we measure how demand responds to a change in any one variable, we must hold all other influencing variables constant to isolate the effect of that single variable. Price elasticity of demand — measures demand response to price change, holding income, tastes, and other prices constant. Income elasticity of demand — measures demand response to income change, holding price, tastes, and promotions constant. Gross (Cross) elasticity of demand — measures demand response to price change of a related good, holding all other variables constant. Promotional elasticity of demand — measures demand response to advertising spend change, holding price, income, and other variables constant. Every elasticity measure is built on this ceteris paribus foundation — it is the bedrock assumption of demand analysis. ✅ Final Answer: All the options are correct.

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9. Question 9

   Match List-I with List-II.

   List-I: Macro-level organisational stressors	List-II: Causative factor in organisation
   A. Rotating work shifts	I. Organisational structure and design
   B. Line-staff conflicts	II. Administrative policies and strategies
   C. Appraisal system	III. Working conditions
   D. Polluted air	IV. Organisational process

   1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
   2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
   3. CA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
   4. DA-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

   Answer: (C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

   Explanation

   Rotating shifts arise from administrative policies and strategies (A-II), while line-staff conflict reflects organisational structure and design (B-I). The appraisal system is an organisational process (C-IV), and polluted air is a working-condition stressor (D-III); hence option C is correct.

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10. Question 10

    Which one of the following is NOT a component of Balance of Payments?

    1. ADeficit Account
    2. BOfficial Reserves Account
    3. CCurrent Account
    4. DCapital Account

    Answer: (C) Current Account

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: Deficit Account 📘 Explanation: The Balance of Payments (BOP) is a systematic record of all economic transactions between residents of a country and the rest of the world. It consists mainly of: Current Account: Records trade in goods and services, income, and current transfers. Capital Account: Records capital transfers and acquisition/disposal of non-produced, non-financial assets. Financial Account: Tracks investment flows (not listed here but part of BOP). Official Reserves Account: Shows changes in a country’s reserves of foreign currency and gold held by the central bank. There is no specific “Deficit Account” in the Balance of Payments. The term “deficit” refers to when the BOP or one of its components is negative, but it is not an account itself. ✅ Final Answer: Deficit Account

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11. Question 11

    Which among the following are true about World Trade Organisation (WTO)?
    A. The WTO is a simple extension of General Agreement of Tariffs and Trade (GATT)
    B. The WTO is a permanent institution with its own secretariat
    C. The agreements which constitute the WTO are almost all plurilateral and thus involve commitments for the entire members
    D. The WTO includes Trade in Services and trade-related aspects of intellectual property rights
    E. The WTO dispute settlement system is faster, more automatic and thus much less susceptible to blockages, than old GATT system

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AB, C, and D Only
    2. BA, B, and C Only
    3. CC, D, and E Only
    4. DB, D, and E Only

    Answer: (A) B, C, and D Only

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: B, D, and E Only 📘 Explanation: B. True: The WTO is a permanent institution with its own secretariat based in Geneva. This is a key difference from GATT, which was a provisional agreement without a permanent organization. D. True: The WTO covers not only trade in goods but also trade in services (GATS) and trade-related intellectual property rights (TRIPS), expanding its scope beyond GATT. E. True: The WTO dispute settlement system is known to be faster, more automatic, and less vulnerable to blockages compared to the GATT system, improving enforcement of trade rules. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: A. False: The WTO is not just a simple extension of GATT. It replaced GATT with a broader and more robust organization. C. False: The agreements constituting the WTO are mostly multilateral, not plurilateral (which involve only some members). Multilateral agreements require commitments from all members. ✅ Final Answer: B, D, and E Only

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12. Question 12

    “Dividing a market into smaller segments of buyers with distinct needs, characteristics, or behaviours that might require separate marketing strategies or mixes” is termed as?

    1. AMarket Segmentation
    2. BMarket Positioning
    3. CMarket Differentiation
    4. DMarket Targeting

    Answer: (A) Market Segmentation

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct answer: Market Segmentation

    Explanation: The definition provided in the question is a textbook definition of Market Segmentation: "Dividing a market into smaller segments of buyers with distinct needs, characteristics, or behaviours that might require separate marketing strategies or mixes."

    Market segmentation helps marketers:

    • Identify specific groups of customers
    • Tailor marketing strategies to fit each group
    • Increase marketing efficiency and effectiveness

    ❌ Why the other options are incorrect:

    • Market Positioning – This is about how the product is perceived in the minds of target consumers.
    • Market Differentiation – This refers to differentiating a product to make it stand out from competitors.
    • Market Targeting – This is the next step after segmentation, where the firm selects which segment(s) to serve.

    ✅ Final Answer: Market Segmentation

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13. Question 13

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: Derivative type	List-II: Their explanation
    A. Call option	I. Agreement to buy or sell an asset on a specific date at a specified price; settlement occurs at the end of the period.
    B. Put option	II. Agreement to buy or sell an asset at a future time at a stated price through standardised contracts traded on a stock exchange.
    C. Futures contract	III. Contract giving the holder the right, but not the obligation, to buy specified securities at an exercise date.
    D. Forward contract	IV. Contract giving the holder the right, but not the obligation, to sell securities on or by a stated date at a fixed exercise price.

    1. AA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    2. BA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    A call option is the right to buy (A-III), and a put option is the right to sell (B-IV). A futures contract is a standardised exchange-traded agreement (C-II), whereas a forward is a private agreement to trade on a stated future date (D-I). Thus option D is correct.

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14. Question 14

    Which of the following are correct with respect to foreign exchange market?
    A. Short position = Supply of a currency < demand for currency
    B. Short position = Supply of a currency > demand for currency.
    C. Long position = Supply of a currency > demand for currency.
    D. Long position = Supply of a currency < demand for currency.
    E. Square position = Supply of a currency = demand for currency.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, D and E Only
    2. BB, C and E Only
    3. CB, D and E Only
    4. DA, C and E Only

    Answer: (A) A, D and E Only

    Explanation

    ✅Correct answer: B, D and E Only ✅ Explanation: Golden Rule: Going long means you profit when the price/demand goes up in the future, while going short means you profit when the price/demand goes down in the future. Let us understand this in the context of foreign exchange market, In Foreign exchange market, positions are determined based on the relationship between the demand and supply of a currency held by a dealer or bank. A short position would mean that the price/demand of the item should go down in the future. So, if the demand goes down in the future, the supply would be high compared to demand. A. Short position = Supply of a currency < demand for currency → ❌Wrong. B. Short position = Supply of a currency > demand for currency →✅ Correct. A Long position would mean that the price/demand of the item should go up in the future. So, if the demand goes down in the up, the supply would be lower compared to demand. C. Long position = Supply of a currency > demand for currency. → ❌Wrong D. Long position = Supply of a currency < demand for currency → ✅Correct. In a square position, purchases and sales of currency are equal, so there is no net exposure. E. Square position = Supply of a currency = demand for currency →✅ Correct. ✅ Final Answer: B, D and E Only

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15. Question 15

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: Pricing situation	List-II: Description
    A. Product-line pricing	I. Pricing optional or accessory products sold with the main product
    B. Optional-product pricing	II. Setting prices across an entire product line
    C. Captive-product pricing	III. Pricing low-value by-products to get rid of them or make money from them
    D. By-product pricing	IV. Pricing products that must be used with the main product

    1. AA-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Answer: (C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Explanation

    Product-line pricing sets prices across an entire product line (A-II). Optional-product pricing concerns accessories sold with the main product (B-I); captive-product pricing concerns products required with the main product (C-IV); and by-product pricing recovers value from by-products (D-III). Therefore option C is correct.

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16. Question 16

    Prepaid salary is which type of account?

    1. ANominal Account
    2. BPersonal Account
    3. CBoth Personal and Real Account
    4. DReal Account

    Answer: (A) Nominal Account

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: Personal Account ✅ Explanation: Prepaid salary is classified as a personal account because it represents an amount owed to the employee, and personal accounts typically deal with entities like individuals, organizations, or creditors. In accounting, prepaid salary is considered an asset, as it represents an advance payment for salary that will be expensed over time. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Real Account: Real accounts typically relate to assets, liabilities, or property (e.g., cash, buildings, machinery). While prepaid salary is an asset, it is not classified under real accounts because it involves a specific individual or entity, making it a personal account. Nominal Account: Nominal accounts deal with income, expenses, gains, and losses. Prepaid salary is not related to an income or expense but represents a prepaid amount related to future salary payments. ✅ Final Answer: Personal Account.

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17. Question 17

    The mean of a binomial distribution is 40 and its standard deviation is 6. What is the value of n?

    1. A36
    2. B360
    3. C400
    4. D40

    Answer: (C) 400

    Explanation

    For a binomial distribution, np = 40 and npq = 6² = 36. Hence q = 36/40 = 0.9, p = 0.1, and n = 40/0.1 = 400. The variance relation identifies the complementary probability before n is obtained. Therefore option C is correct.

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18. Question 18

    Arrange the Repatriation process in proper order as given by Peter J Dowling.
    A. Preparation
    B. Transition
    C. Physical relocation
    D. Re-adjustment

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C, B, D
    2. BA, B, C, D
    3. CA, D, B, C
    4. DB, A, C, D

    Answer: (B) A, B, C, D

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: A, C, B, D ✅ Explanation: According to Peter J. Dowling, the Repatriation Process (bringing an expatriate employee back home after an international assignment) involves four key stages in the following order: A. Preparation – Planning for return before the assignment ends (includes career planning, cultural training, communication). C. Physical Relocation – Actual movement of the employee and family back to the home country. B. Transition – Psychological and professional adjustment to the home country environment. D. Re-adjustment – Long-term adaptation to personal life, work, and organizational role in the home country. ✅ Final Answer: A, C, B, D ✅

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19. Question 19

    “The process for enabling employees to better understand and develop their career and interests more effectively” is termed as?

    1. ACareer Management
    2. BCareer Planning
    3. CCareer Counselling
    4. DCareer Development

    Answer: (B) Career Planning

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct answer: Career Management ✅ Explanation:The phrase — “The process for enabling employees to better understand and develop their career and interests more effectively” — most accurately refers to Career Management. Career Management is a structured, organizational process that helps employees: Understand their career goals and aspirations, Align their individual objectives with organizational needs, Get support through development programs, mentoring, training, and feedback. It is a collaborative effort between the employee and the organization, ensuring that the employee’s career growth aligns with the company’s long-term talent strategy. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Career Planning:Refers more to the individual’s effort to identify career goals and the path to achieve them.❌ Focuses on personal goal-setting, not organizational support mechanisms. Career Development:Is part of career management and focuses on skill-building and personal growth.❌ It’s a subset, not the full management process. Career Counselling:Involves personal guidance to make career decisions, often by a professional counsellor.❌ It is more one-on-one support, not a strategic or continuous process. ✅ Final Answer: Career Management.

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20. Question 20

    Arrange the Model of Organisation Development Process of H.M.F Rush in proper sequence from beginning to end.
    A. Problem Recognition
    B. Organization Diagnosis
    C. Feedback for Change Strategy
    D. Interventions
    E. Measurement and Evaluation

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AC, A, D, B, E
    2. BA, B, C, D, E
    3. CA, B, C, E, D
    4. DB, A, C, D, E

    Answer: (B) A, B, C, D, E

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E ✅ Explanation: The Organisation Development (OD) Process Model by H.M.F. Rush follows a systematic five-step sequence to improve organizational effectiveness. Here’s the correct order: Step Stage Description A Problem Recognition Identify organizational issues or areas needing change. B Organization Diagnosis Analyze root causes through data collection and assessment. C Feedback for Change Strategy Share findings and develop appropriate change strategies. D Interventions Implement specific actions to bring about the desired change. E Measurement and Evaluation Assess the effectiveness and impact of the interventions. ✅ Final Answer: A, B, C, D, E ✅

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21. Question 21

    Arrange the career management process in proper sequence from beginning to end.
    A. Assessment
    B. Strategy
    C. Career Planning
    D. Career Evaluation
    E. Career Development

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, D, C, E
    2. BB, A, D, C, E
    3. CA, B, C, D, E
    4. DB, A, C, E, D

    Answer: (B) B, A, D, C, E

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: B, A, C, E, D ✅ Explanation: The correct sequence of the Career Management Process is as follows: B. Strategy – Define the organizational career management strategy or goals. A. Assessment – Assess employee skills, interests, values, and personality. C. Career Planning – Based on assessment, create a career plan with goals. E. Career Development – Provide training, mentoring, and experiences for growth. D. Career Evaluation – Review and evaluate progress and effectiveness. This sequence ensures alignment from strategy to assessment, planning, development, and evaluation. ✅ Final Answer: B, A, C, E, D ✅

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22. Question 22

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: Nature of study	List-II: Choice of sampling method
    A. Size of all strata is equal	I. Quota sampling
    B. Information can be provided by few respondents	II. Convenience sampling
    C. Information is required from a particular stratum of population	III. Judgement sampling
    D. To obtain quick information	IV. Stratified random sampling

    1. AA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    2. BA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

    Answer: (A) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Equal-sized strata call for stratified random sampling (A-IV). When a few suitable respondents can provide the information, judgement sampling fits (B-III); a particular stratum is reached through quota sampling (C-I); and convenience sampling is used for quick information (D-II). Hence option A is correct.

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23. Question 23

    Whistle blowing is:

    1. AA discrepancy between some current state of affairs and some desired state
    2. BRefers to choices that are consistent and value maximising
    3. CThe choices made from among two or more alternatives
    4. DReporting unethical practices by their employer to outsiders

    Answer: (D) Reporting unethical practices by their employer to outsiders

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct answer: Reporting unethical practices by their employer to outsiders Unit II: Organizational Behaviour Topic: Whistle Blowing 📘 Explanation: Whistle Blowing is the act of disclosing unethical, illegal, fraudulent, or harmful activities occurring within an organization to individuals or authorities who can take corrective action. The primary objective of whistle blowing is to protect public interest, uphold ethical standards, and prevent harm to stakeholders. Effective whistle blowing is generally expected to be carried out in good faith and supported by credible evidence. Whistle blowing is refers to reporting unethical practices by their employer to outsiders. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: The choices made from among two or more alternatives Reason: This defines decision making, which is the process of selecting the best course of action from available alternatives. It has no relation to reporting unethical practices. A discrepancy between some current state of affairs and some desired state Reason: This defines a problem, which represents the gap between the existing situation and the desired situation. It is a concept associated with problem-solving rather than whistle blowing. Refers to choices that are consistent and value maximising Reason: This describes rational decision making, where decisions are made to maximize value while remaining consistent with objectives. It does not involve reporting unethical behaviour. ✅ Final Answer: Reporting unethical practices by their employer to outsiders.

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24. Question 24

    Which of the following Institutions are providing micro finance services to the poor?
    A. Conventional weaker section lending banks.
    B. Microfinance Institution.
    C. Self Help Group-bank linkage programme
    D. EXIM banks

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C Only
    2. BC and D Only
    3. CB and C Only
    4. DA and B Only

    Answer: (D) A and B Only

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: A, B and C Only ✅ Explanation:Microfinance services are aimed at providing financial access—particularly small loans, savings, and insurance—to low-income and underserved populations. Among the options: A. Conventional weaker section lending banks: ✅ YesThese include public sector banks, regional rural banks (RRBs), and cooperative banks that offer targeted loans to the weaker sections under government-mandated priority sector lending. B. Microfinance Institutions (MFIs): ✅ YesMFIs are specialized entities that provide micro-loans and related financial services to the poor, particularly in rural and semi-urban areas. C. Self Help Group (SHG)-Bank Linkage Programme: ✅ YesThis is a flagship initiative by NABARD that connects SHGs of the poor with formal banking institutions, allowing them to access credit and savings facilities collectively. D. EXIM Bank (Export-Import Bank of India): ❌ NoEXIM Bank is a specialized financial institution that supports export and import businesses, not microfinance for the poor. ✅ Final Answer: A, B and C Only

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25. Question 25

    From the following information, what is the value of the P/V ratio?

    Year	2021	2022
    Sales	₹32,00,000	₹57,00,000
    Profit/Loss	₹3,00,000	₹7,00,000

    1. A16%
    2. B40%
    3. C12.5%
    4. D25%

    Answer: (A) 16%

    Explanation

    The P/V ratio is the change in profit divided by the change in sales. Here, profit rises by ₹4,00,000 and sales rise by ₹25,00,000, so P/V ratio = 4,00,000 ÷ 25,00,000 = 16%; option A is correct.

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26. Question 26

    Which one of the following is NOT a technique of foreign trade financing?

    1. AForfeiting
    2. BDiscounting
    3. CFactoring
    4. DBanker's Acceptance

    Answer: (A) Forfeiting

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: Discounting 📘 Explanation: Discounting refers to the process of selling a bill of exchange or promissory note to a bank or financial institution before its maturity at a discount to receive immediate funds. While discounting is a financing tool, it is not considered a core technique of foreign trade financing on its own. It is more of a general financial practice that can be applied in various contexts, including but not limited to international trade. In foreign trade, more specialized instruments and techniques are used to handle the complexities and risks involved in cross-border transactions. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Banker’s Acceptance: A widely used foreign trade financing tool where the bank guarantees a time draft, making it easier for the exporter to get payment and for the importer to delay it. Factoring: Although more common in domestic trade, international factoring is a recognized method of foreign trade financing, especially for small exporters. It involves selling receivables to a factor to receive early payment. Forfeiting: Specifically designed for foreign trade, forfeiting involves selling receivables from international transactions (typically medium to long-term export receivables) to a forfeiter, often a bank, on a non-recourse basis. ✅ Final Answer: Discounting

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27. Question 27

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: Type of variance	List-II: Formula
    A. Material cost variance	I. (Standard quantity − actual quantity) × standard price
    B. Material price variance	II. (Standard price − actual price) × actual quantity
    C. Material usage variance	III. Standard cost of actual quantity of actual mixture − standard cost of actual quantity of standard mixture
    D. Material mix variance	IV. (Standard price × standard quantity) − (actual price × actual quantity)

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    3. CA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    4. DA-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

    Answer: (D) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

    Explanation

    Material cost variance compares standard cost with actual cost (A-IV). Price variance uses the standard-price minus actual-price difference multiplied by actual quantity (B-II); usage variance uses the quantity difference times standard price (C-I); and mix variance compares the standard cost of the actual mix with that of the standard mix for the actual total quantity (D-III). Therefore option D is correct.

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28. Question 28

    Arrange the steps in demand forecasting from beginning to end.
    A. Specifying objectives
    B. Making choice of methods
    C. Determining the perspective
    D. Estimation and interpretation of results
    E. Collection of data and data adjustment

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, D, C, E
    2. BC, B, A, D, E
    3. CA, C, B, E, D
    4. DC, A, E, D, B

    Answer: (D) C, A, E, D, B

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct answer: A, C, B, E, D Unit I: Business Management and Managerial Economics Topic: Demand analysis: Forecasting 📖 Explanation: A. Specifying objectives The forecasting process begins by clearly defining why the forecast is needed — whether for production planning, inventory management, pricing decisions, etc. Without a clear objective, the entire exercise lacks direction. C. Determining the perspective Once objectives are set, the firm determines the time horizon and scope of the forecast — short-term, medium-term, or long-term — and whether it is for a product, market segment, or the whole industry. B. Making choice of methods Based on the objectives and perspective, the appropriate forecasting method is selected — survey methods, statistical methods, trend analysis, Delphi method, etc. The choice depends on data availability, time frame, and purpose. E. Collection of data and data adjustment After the method is chosen, relevant data is collected from primary or secondary sources and adjusted for any inconsistencies, seasonal variations, or anomalies to make it suitable for analysis. D. Estimation and interpretation of results Finally, the chosen method is applied to the collected data to estimate future demand, and the results are interpreted in the context of business decisions. ✅ Final Answer: A, C, B, E, D.

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29. Question 29

    Which of the following are positional averages?
    A. Geometric mean
    B. Harmonic mean
    C. Mode
    D. Median
    E. Percentiles

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AD and E Only
    2. BC, D, and E Only
    3. CC and D Only
    4. DA, B, and E Only

    Answer: (D) A, B, and E Only

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: D. Median, and E. Percentiles 📘 Explanation: Positional Averages are measures of central tendency that depend on the position of values in an ordered dataset. These include: Median (D) → The middle value when data is arranged in order. Percentiles (E) → Values that divide data into 100 equal parts, based on position. Why Not A, B, and C? Geometric Mean (A) → A mathematical average, calculated using multiplication and roots. Harmonic Mean (B) → Another mathematical average, based on reciprocals. Mode (C) → A frequency-based measure, not based on position in an ordered dataset. ✅ Final Answer: D. Median, and E. Percentiles

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30. Question 30

    In which of the following Association/organisation Ela Bhatt is associated?

    1. ASelf Employed Women's Association
    2. BMukta Services
    3. CLijjat Papad
    4. DAvya Global Connect

    Answer: (C) Lijjat Papad

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: Self Employed Women’s Association (SEWA) ✅ Explanation: Ela Bhatt is the founder of the Self Employed Women’s Association (SEWA), a trade union established in 1972 in Ahmedabad, India. SEWA advocates for the rights of low-income, self-employed women workers, aiming to secure full employment, which encompasses work security, income security, food security, and social security like health care, child care, insurance, pension, and shelter. Under her leadership, SEWA grew rapidly, with nearly 2 million members across India by 2023. The organization operates on Gandhian principles of truth, non-violence, and integration of all people. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Mukta Services: There is no widely recognized association or organization by this name linked to Ela Bhatt. Lijjat Papad: This is a cooperative of women in India, known for producing papad. While similar in empowering women, it is not associated with Ela Bhatt. Avya Global Connect: This organization does not have any known association with Ela Bhatt. ✅ Final Answer: Self Employed Women’s Association (SEWA)

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31. Question 31

    Which one of the following is Walter's formula to determine market price per share?

    1. A$p = -D/K + (r/K)(EPS - D)$
    2. B$p = D + r(EPS - D)/K²$
    3. C$p = D/K + r(EPS - D)/K²$
    4. D$p = D/K + r(EPS - D)/K$

    Answer: (C) $p = D/K + r(EPS - D)/K²$

    Explanation

    Walter's dividend model adds the capitalised dividend, D/K, to the return earned on retained earnings, r(EPS − D)/K². This gives $p = D/K + r(EPS − D)/K²$, so option C is correct.

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32. Question 32

    Which of the following is a type of off-price retailer?

    1. ASuperstore
    2. BCategory killer
    3. CFactory outlet
    4. DDiscount store

    Answer: (C) Factory outlet

    Explanation

    Factory outlets sell manufacturers’ merchandise directly, often at reduced prices, making them an off-price retail format. Superstores and category killers are broad format descriptions; option C is correct.

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33. Question 33

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: Types of buying decision behaviour	List-II: Their explanation
    A. Complex buying behaviour	I. Highly involved in a purchase and perceive significant difference among brands
    B. Dissonance-reducing buying behaviour	II. Low consumer involvement and little significant brand difference
    C. Habitual buying behaviour	III. Low consumer involvement but significant perceived brand differences
    D. Variety-seeking buying behaviour	IV. Highly involved with an expensive, infrequent, or risky purchase but see little difference among brands

    1. AA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    2. BA-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
    3. CA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    4. DA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (B) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

    Explanation

    Complex buying behaviour is high involvement with significant perceived brand differences (A-I), and dissonance-reducing behaviour is high involvement with little difference among brands (B-IV). Habitual buying should be low involvement with little brand difference (C-II), while variety-seeking buying should be low involvement with significant differences (D-III). That exact mapping is missing from the printed choices: option B is the closest available choice because A-I and B-IV are correct, but its C-III and D-II pairs are reversed in the source paper.

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34. Question 34

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: Societal classification of products	List-II: Degree of long-run consumer benefit and immediate consumer satisfaction
    A. Deficient products	I. Low long-run consumer benefit and high immediate satisfaction
    B. Pleasing products	II. High long-run consumer benefit and high immediate satisfaction
    C. Salutary products	III. High long-run consumer benefit and low immediate satisfaction
    D. Desirable products	IV. Low long-run consumer benefit and low immediate satisfaction

    1. AA-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
    2. BA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    3. CA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Answer: (A) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

    Explanation

    Deficient products give neither immediate satisfaction nor long-run benefit (A-IV). Pleasing products give immediate satisfaction but limited long-run benefit (B-I), salutary products favour long-run benefit despite low immediate satisfaction (C-III), and desirable products provide both (D-II). Thus option A is correct.

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35. Question 35

    Who has developed the HRD scorecard?

    1. AJ. Bright
    2. BPeter F. Drucker
    3. CT.V Rao
    4. DJ. Friedman

    Answer: (A) J. Bright

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: T.V Rao ✅ Explanation: T.V. Rao, a prominent Indian scholar and HRD expert, is credited with developing the HRD Scorecard. He is widely recognized as the Father of Human Resource Development in India and has made significant contributions to the professionalization and systematization of HR practices in Indian organizations. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Peter F. Drucker – Known as the father of modern management but not specifically related to the HRD Scorecard. J. Friedman – Not associated with the HRD Scorecard. J. Bright – Not linked to the development of the HRD Scorecard either. ✅ Final Answer: T.V Rao.

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36. Question 36

    In Flow Model, associated with forecasting personnel needs, the forecaster will-
    A. Determine the time that should be covered.
    B. Establish categories to which employees can be assigned.
    C. Will not estimate the probability of transition.
    D. Will solicit estimate of personnel needed from group of exports.
    E. Count annual movements among states for several time period.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C Only
    2. BA, B and D Only
    3. CA, B and E Only
    4. DB, C and D Only

    Answer: (C) A, B and E Only

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct answer: A, B and E Only ✅ Explanation:The Flow Model (also known as the Markov Analysis in HR forecasting) is a quantitative technique used to estimate future personnel needs by analyzing employee movements (flows) through different job states (e.g., promotion, transfer, exit). Here’s how the steps relate: A. Determine the time that should be covered:✅ Yes. Time frame selection (e.g., 1 year, 5 years) is essential to track and predict personnel movement. B. Establish categories to which employees can be assigned:✅ Yes. Employees are classified into job states or categories (like junior, senior, resigned, promoted, etc.) to analyze movement. E. Count annual movements among states for several time periods:✅ Yes. The core of the flow model involves tracking historical employee transitions between states over multiple time periods to forecast future movement. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: C. Will not estimate the probability of transition:❌ Incorrect. The flow model specifically involves estimating transition probabilities—how likely an employee is to move from one category/state to another. D. Will solicit estimate of personnel needed from group of experts:❌ This refers to the Delphi Technique, which is qualitative and expert-based—not part of the flow model. ✅ Final Answer: A, B and E Only.

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37. Question 37

    Arrange the Project Life Cycle phase in proper sequence from starting to end.
    A. Definition phase
    B. Conception phase
    C. Implementation phase
    D. Planning and organising phase
    E. Project clean-up phase

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, D, E, C
    2. BE, A, C, D, B
    3. CB, A, C, D, E
    4. DB, A, D, C, E

    Answer: (B) E, A, C, D, B

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: B, A, D, C, E ✅ Explanation: The Project Life Cycle consists of sequential phases that guide a project from initiation to completion. The correct sequence is: B. Conception phase🔹 This is where the idea is born. Feasibility is explored and broad objectives are framed. A. Definition phase🔹 Project goals, scope, deliverables, and constraints are clearly defined. D. Planning and organising phase🔹 Resources, budgets, timelines, and risk management plans are laid out. Teams are organized. C. Implementation phase🔹 Actual execution of the work takes place here. Tasks are performed as per the plan. E. Project clean-up phase🔹 Final deliverables are handed over, documentation is completed, and post-project reviews are conducted. ✅ Final Answer: B, A, D, C, E ✅

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38. Question 38

    The major strategies and policies that give a business enterprise its overall direction are likely to be in which areas?

    A. Growth
    B. Finance
    C. Needs
    D. Personnel
    E. Marketing

    1. AA, C, D and E only
    2. BB, C, D and E only
    3. CA, B, D and E only
    4. DA, B, C and D only

    Answer: (C) A, B, D and E only

    Explanation

    Overall business policies normally address growth, finance, personnel, and marketing. “Needs” is not one of these functional policy areas, so the correct combination is A, B, D and E: option C.

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39. Question 39

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: Name of theory	List-II: Propounder
    A. Theory of opportunities and innovation	I. Frank H. Knight
    B. Theory of profit	II. Peter F. Drucker
    C. Theory of entrepreneurial supply	III. Sigmund Freud
    D. Psychoanalytic theory	IV. Thomas Cochran

    1. AA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    2. BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    3. CA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    4. DA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

    Answer: (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Explanation

    Opportunity and innovation theory is associated with Peter Drucker (A-II), profit theory with Frank H. Knight (B-I), entrepreneurial-supply theory with Thomas Cochran (C-IV), and psychoanalytic theory with Sigmund Freud (D-III). Hence option B is correct.

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40. Question 40

    Arrange the financial institutions according to their formation from latest to earliest.
    A. Industrial Finance Corporation of India
    B. Regional Rural Bank
    C. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
    D. National Industrial Development Corporation
    E. The Reserve Bank of India.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BC, B, D, A, E
    3. CB, D, E, C, A
    4. DB, C, A, D, E

    Answer: (B) C, B, D, A, E

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: C,B, D, A, E. ✅ Explanation:The question asks to arrange the financial institutions according to their formation from latest to earliest. Here’s the correct order based on their establishment years: C. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) – 1982Established to support rural development and manage rural credit. B. Regional Rural Bank (RRB) – 1975Created to provide credit facilities in rural areas and promote financial inclusion. D. National Industrial Development Corporation (NIDC) – 1954Formed to promote industrial growth by providing financial assistance and guidance. A. Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) – 1948Set up to provide medium and long-term finance to industrial sectors. E. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) – 1935India’s central bank, established to regulate monetary policy and manage the country’s financial system. ✅ Final Answer: C,B, D, A, E.

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41. Question 41

    Which of the following are correct formulas of combined leverage?

    A. DCF = % Change in EPS / % Change in Sales
    B. DCF = Contribution / Profit before Tax
    C. DCF = Contribution / Profit after Tax
    D. DCF = (EBIT + Fixed Cost) / PBT
    E. DCF = Change in EBIT / Change in Sales

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DA, B and D only

    Answer: (D) A, B and D only

    Explanation

    Degree of combined leverage measures the sensitivity of EPS to sales, so A is valid. It can also be expressed as contribution divided by PBT, or equivalently (EBIT + fixed cost) divided by PBT; therefore B and D are valid. Profit after tax and change in EBIT divided by change in sales are not combined-leverage formulas, making option D correct.

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42. Question 42

    Which of the following are properties of regression coefficients?
    A. r = (byx X bxy)^0.5
    B. Change in origin are not affected
    C. Change in scale are not affected
    D. If both the regression coefficient have negative sign, the correlation coefficient will have negative sign
    E. If one regression coefficient is greater than one then other regression coefficient must be less than one.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, D and E Only
    2. BB, C, D and E Only
    3. CA, B, D and E Only
    4. DA, B and E only

    Answer: (C) A, B, D and E Only

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: A, B and E only 📘 Explanation: Properties of Regression Coefficients: ✅ (A) r = (byx ​× bxy) ^ 0.5​​ (Correct) This is a correct mathematical relationship between the correlation coefficient r and the regression coefficients byx​ and bxy​. This property states that correlation (r) is the square root of the product of regression coefficients. ✅ (B) “Change in origin is not affected” (Correct) Regression coefficients are NOT affected by a change in origin (adding or subtracting a constant to X or Y). If we shift both x and y by adding/subtracting a constant (e.g., shifting data by a mean value), the regression coefficient remains unchanged. Thus, this statement is correct. ❌ (C) “Change in scale is not affected” (Incorrect) Regression coefficients ARE affected by a change in scale (multiplying or dividing all values by a constant). If we multiply or divide x or y by a constant, the regression coefficients change. Thus, this statement is incorrect. ❌ (D) “If both regression coefficients have a negative sign, the correlation coefficient will also be negative” (Incorrect) This statement seems correct at first, but let’s analyze it carefully: The correlation coefficient r depends on the square root of the product of regression coefficients: r=(byx×bxy)^0.5​​ The product of two negative numbers is positive. ✅ (E) “If one regression coefficient is greater than one, the other must be less than one” (Correct) There is a key mathematical property: byx × bxy ≤ 1 This means that if one regression coefficient is greater than 1, the other must be less than 1 to satisfy this inequality. Thus, this statement is correct. ✅ Final Answer: A, B and E only

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43. Question 43

    Which of the following movement of products clearly defines the term “Inbound Logistics”?

    1. AReseller to Customer
    2. BCustomers to Suppliers
    3. CSuppliers to company
    4. DCompany to Reseller

    Answer: (A) Reseller to Customer

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: Suppliers to company ✅ Explanation: Inbound logistics refers to the movement of raw materials, components, and goods from suppliers to the company for production or assembly. It includes processes like receiving, warehousing, and inventory management of incoming goods. It is the first phase of the logistics process and is crucial for ensuring that the materials required for manufacturing or assembling products are available on time and in the right quantity. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Company to Reseller:❌ This represents outbound logistics, where finished goods are transported from the company to distributors, wholesalers, or retailers. Reseller to Customer:❌ This also falls under outbound logistics or distribution, not inbound logistics. Customers to Suppliers:❌ This could be considered reverse logistics (e.g., returns or recycling), but not inbound logistics. ✅ Final Answer: Suppliers to company ✅

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44. Question 44

    Which one of the following is a non-parametric test?

    1. Aχ2-test
    2. Bz-test
    3. Ct-test
    4. DF-test

    Answer: (A) χ2-test

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: χ2-test 📘 Explanation: Parametric Tests (Assume Normal Distribution) Z-Test – Compares means for large samples (n ≥ 30). T-Test – Compares means for small samples (n<30): Independent T-test – Two unrelated groups. Paired T-test – Same group before/after. F-Test – Compares variances of two groups. ANOVA (Analysis of Variance) – Compares means of three or more groups. Pearson Correlation – Measures linear relationship between two variables. Linear Regression – Predicts dependent variable using independent variable(s). ✅ Final Answer: χ2-test

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45. Question 45

    Arrange the following developments in International monetary system in the order of sequence starting from oldest to newest:
    A. Gold standard
    B. Smithsonian arrangement
    C. Specie commodity standard
    D. Floating Rate Regime
    E. Fixed Party System

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AE, C, A, D, B
    2. BA, C, B, E, D
    3. CB, A, C, E, D
    4. DC, A, E, B, D

    Answer: (D) C, A, E, B, D

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: C, A, E, B, D 📘 Explanation: Here’s the correct chronological sequence of the major developments in the international monetary system: C. Specie Commodity Standard (Pre-19th century):The earliest form, where money was backed by a physical commodity such as gold or silver, often in coin form. A. Gold Standard (19th century – early 20th century):Countries fixed their currencies to a specific amount of gold. It was formalized in the 1870s and collapsed in the 1930s during the Great Depression. E. Fixed Parity System (Bretton Woods System, post-WWII – 1971):Currencies were pegged to the US dollar, which was convertible to gold. This created fixed exchange rates. B. Smithsonian Arrangement (1971):An attempt to preserve fixed exchange rates after the collapse of the Bretton Woods system. It was a temporary measure and soon failed. D. Floating Rate Regime (Post-1973 – Present):After the failure of fixed exchange systems, countries allowed their currencies to float freely in the market, determined by supply and demand. ✅ Final Answer: C, A, E, B, D

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46. Question 46

    Who has propounded the ‘Diamond of National Competitive Advantages’ model of corporate level strategies?

    1. AM. E Porter
    2. BH. I Ansoff
    3. CPeter F. Drucker
    4. DJ.B Barney

    Answer: (A) M. E Porter

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: M. E. Porter ✅ Explanation:The “Diamond of National Competitive Advantage” model was propounded by Michael E. Porter. This model explains why certain nations become globally competitive in specific industries. Porter introduced it in his book The Competitive Advantage of Nations (1990). The model identifies four major determinants of national competitive advantage: Factor Conditions Demand Conditions Related and Supporting Industries Firm Strategy, Structure, and Rivalry It is widely used in strategic management and international business. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: H. I. Ansoff → Known for the Ansoff Matrix and strategic planning concepts. J.B. Barney → Known for the VRIO Framework and Resource-Based View (RBV). Peter F. Drucker → Known as the father of modern management and for Management by Objectives (MBO). ✅ Final Answer: M. E. Porter

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47. Question 47

    Which one of the following cost arises due to the failure of the customers to meet their obligations when payment on credit sales become due after the expiry of the credit period?

    1. ACollection costs
    2. BCapital costs
    3. CDefault costs
    4. DDelinquency costs

    Answer: (C) Default costs

    Explanation

    ✅Correct answer: Delinquency costs ✅ Explanation: Delinquency costs arise when customers delay payment beyond the allowed credit period. These costs occur due to follow-up actions, reminders, legal notices, and additional administrative efforts required to recover overdue receivables after the due date. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Collection costs → These are general expenses incurred in collecting receivables, not specifically due to delayed payment after the credit period. Capital costs → These represent the financing cost of funds tied up in receivables. Default costs → These arise when customers completely fail to pay, leading to bad debts. ✅ Final Answer: Delinquency costs

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48. Question 48

    What can lead to the withdrawal of status respect according to Hagen’s theory of Entrepreneurship?

    1. APerception that efforts and purposes are not valued by others
    2. BPerception that efforts and purposes are highly valued
    3. CIncreased recognition from the group
    4. DBelief in the stability of status symbols

    Answer: (A) Perception that efforts and purposes are not valued by others

    Explanation

    According to Everett E. Hagen’s Theory of Entrepreneurship (On the Theory of Social Change, 1962), withdrawal of status respect occurs when members of a social group perceive that their purposes, efforts, and values in life are not respected or valued by dominant groups in society whose esteem they seek.

    This loss of social prestige generates status frustration. Over generations, this displacement fosters creative, autonomous personality traits that drive individuals to pursue entrepreneurship and economic innovation to regain their lost status and respect.

    Why the other options are incorrect:

    • Perception that efforts and purposes are highly valued: Affirms that status respect is recognized and secure, reinforcing the status quo rather than triggering status withdrawal.
    • Increased recognition from the group: Directly elevates and validates social standing rather than diminishing or withdrawing it.
    • Belief in the stability of status symbols: Reflects satisfaction with existing traditional hierarchy and security, not the disorientation or status loss that triggers change.

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49. Question 49

    Arrange the Hambrick and Fredrickson model of strategic management in proper sequence from beginning to end.
    A. Vision and mission
    B. Goals and objectives
    C. Internal and external strategic analysis
    D. Implementation Levers and strategic leadership
    E. Strategy arenas vehicles differentiators staging economic logic

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BA, B, C, E, D
    3. CB, A, C, D, E
    4. DA, C, B, D, E

    Answer: (B) A, B, C, E, D

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: A, B, C, E, D 📘 Explanation: The Donald C. Hambrick and James W. Fredrickson model follows a logical strategic management sequence from defining organizational purpose to implementation. A. Vision and Mission defines organizational purpose, direction, and philosophy. B. Goals and Objectives establish measurable targets and strategic priorities. C. Internal and External Strategic Analysis examines strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats through environmental and organizational analysis. E. Strategy Arenas, Vehicles, Differentiators, Staging, and Economic Logic focuses on where the firm will compete, how it will compete, sequence of actions, differentiation, and profitability logic. D. Implementation Levers and Strategic Leadership involves execution through leadership, structure, controls, and resource allocation. ✅ Final Answer: A, B, C, E, D

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50. Question 50

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: Ind AS	List-II: Related to
    A. Ind AS 12	I. Earnings per share
    B. Ind AS 16	II. Intangible assets
    C. Ind AS 33	III. Property, plant and equipment
    D. Ind AS 38	IV. Income taxes

    1. AA-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
    2. BA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    3. CA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Ind AS 12 governs income taxes (A-IV); Ind AS 16 covers property, plant and equipment (B-III); Ind AS 33 deals with earnings per share (C-I); and Ind AS 38 addresses intangible assets (D-II). Thus option B is correct.

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51. Question 51

    Which of the followings are Career Development Initiatives?
    A. Career Planning workshops.
    B. Mentoring
    C. Career Counselling
    D. Coaching
    E. Personal Development Plans

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C and E Only
    2. BB, C, D and E Only
    3. CA, B, C and D Only
    4. DA, C, D and E Only

    Answer: (B) B, C, D and E Only

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: A, B, C and E Only ✅ Explanation: Career Development Initiatives are structured efforts by organizations to help employees grow professionally and prepare for future roles. The following are considered core career development initiatives: A. Career Planning Workshops – These are sessions designed to help employees assess their skills, set goals, and align their personal aspirations with organizational opportunities. B. Mentoring – Involves guidance and advice from experienced employees to support mentees’ career progression. C. Career Counselling – Offers professional support in making informed career decisions and navigating career paths. E. Personal Development Plans (PDPs) – Structured plans created by individuals (often in consultation with supervisors) to map out learning and career objectives. ❌ Why D. Coaching is not included: While coaching is a valuable tool for performance improvement and leadership development, it’s more performance or role-specific and not always considered a formal part of career development initiatives (which are more strategic and long-term in orientation). However, it can support career development indirectly. ✅ Final Answer: A, B, C and E Only.

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52. Question 52

    John Challenger suggested that we should consider certain things in acting more ethically in downsizing. What things he suggested?
    A. Planning
    B. Pessimism about the future of the company
    C. Emotions
    D. Timing
    E. Stakeholder perception

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C and D Only
    2. BA, B, D and E Only
    3. CA, C, D and E Only
    4. DB, C, D and E Only

    Answer: (A) A, B, C and D Only

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct answer: A, C, D and E Only ✅ Explanation: John Challenger, a prominent voice in human resource strategy, emphasized ethical considerations during downsizing — a process that can be emotionally and socially disruptive. He suggested that companies must pay attention to the following four key factors to ensure downsizing is handled ethically and responsibly: Planning – Proper planning ensures downsizing is done strategically, avoiding unnecessary harm to employees and preserving company morale. Emotions – Acknowledging and managing the emotional impact on employees and managers is crucial during lay-offs. Timing – Downsizing should be timed carefully to minimize disruption and confusion. Stakeholder perception – Companies must consider how downsizing actions are perceived by internal and external stakeholders (employees, customers, investors, etc.) to maintain trust and reputation. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Option B: “Pessimism about the future of the company” is not part of Challenger’s ethical downsizing framework. In fact, pessimism is something companies aim to avoid, as it can create panic and demoralization. ✅ Final Answer: A, C, D and E Only

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53. Question 53

    Which one of the following is a type of Foreign Direct Investment?

    1. ACommercial loans
    2. BForeign Portfolio Investment
    3. CGreenfield Investment
    4. DQualified Foreign Investment

    Answer: (A) Commercial loans

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: Greenfield Investment 📘 Explanation: Greenfield Investment is a type of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) where a parent company builds its operations in a foreign country from the ground up. This includes constructing new production facilities, offices, or other infrastructure, and it often involves hiring local employees and actively managing the business. FDI, particularly Greenfield Investment, indicates a long-term interest and significant control over the foreign enterprise, distinguishing it from other forms of international capital flow. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Foreign Portfolio Investment: This involves purchasing financial assets like stocks and bonds in a foreign country and does not give the investor control over business operations. It is a short-term investment and not a type of FDI. Qualified Foreign Investment: This refers to regulated investments by foreigners in certain markets (like India’s Qualified Foreign Investors scheme) and generally applies to portfolio investments, not FDI. Commercial Loans: These are debt-based financial instruments and do not involve ownership or control over foreign business operations. They are not classified as FDI. ✅ Final Answer: Greenfield Investment

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54. Question 54

    A phenomenon in which the norm for consensus overrides that realistic appraisal of alternative course of action is:

    1. AGroupthink
    2. BGroupshift
    3. CBrainstorming
    4. DNominal group technique

    Answer: (B) Groupshift

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct answer: Groupthink Unit II: Organizational Behaviour Topic: Group Behaviour: Group Dynamics (Group Decision Making) 📘 Explanation: “A phenomenon in which the norm for consensus overrides that realistic appraisal of alternative course of action.” describes Groupthink. Groupthink is a situation where group members focus so much on reaching agreement that they fail to evaluate all possible alternatives properly. The concept was introduced by Irving Janis, who explained that highly cohesive groups may make poor decisions because members avoid disagreement and critical thinking. Groupthink usually occurs when members give more importance to maintaining harmony than to making the best decision. As a result, they may ignore risks, overlook better alternatives, and hesitate to express opposing views. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Groupshift Reason: Groupshift refers to the tendency of group members to take more extreme positions after group discussion. It explains changes in the level of risk-taking or conservatism, not the pressure to reach consensus. Brainstorming Reason: Brainstorming is a creative technique developed by Alex F. Osborn to generate a large number of ideas. It encourages free thinking and postpones criticism, making it the opposite of Groupthink. Nominal Group Technique Reason: Nominal Group Technique (NGT) is a structured decision-making method where members first generate ideas individually and then discuss and rank them. It is designed to reduce conformity and prevent problems like Groupthink. ✅ Final Answer: Groupthink.

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55. Question 55

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: Conflict	List-II: Appropriate view
    A. Traditional view	I. Conflict is a natural and inevitable outcome in any group
    B. Human relations view	II. All conflict is harmful and must be avoided
    C. Interactionist view	III. Conflict supports group goals and improves performance
    D. Functional conflict	IV. Conflict is not positive in itself but is necessary for effective performance

    1. AA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    3. CA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
    4. DA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

    Answer: (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Explanation

    The traditional view treats all conflict as harmful (A-II), while the human-relations view treats it as natural and inevitable (B-I). The interactionist view sees some conflict as necessary for effective performance (C-IV), and functional conflict supports group goals and performance (D-III). Therefore option B is correct.

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56. Question 56

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: International business orientation	List-II: Explanation
    A. Ethnocentric orientation	I. Global marketing strategy across countries, treating the world as one market
    B. Polycentric orientation	II. Common strategy in a group of foreign countries with similar consumers and business environments
    C. Regiocentric orientation	III. Marketing strategies modified for local consumers in a foreign market
    D. Geocentric orientation	IV. Domestic-market strategy applied in a foreign country

    1. AA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    2. BA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    3. CA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    4. DA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    Answer: (B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    Ethnocentrism applies the domestic-market strategy abroad (A-IV). Polycentrism adapts to local consumers (B-III), regiocentrism uses a common strategy within a regional group (C-II), and geocentrism follows a global strategy across countries (D-I). Hence option B is correct.

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57. Question 57

    Arrange the following Trade Negotiation Rounds of World Trade Organisation in the order of their occurrence from oldest to latest:
    A. Bali Conference
    B. Geneva Conference
    C. Hong Kong Conference
    D. Cancun Conference
    E. Doha Conference

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AB, C, D, E, A
    2. BA, B, C, D, E
    3. CE, D, C, B, A
    4. DA, B, C, E, D

    Answer: (D) A, B, C, E, D

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: E, D, C, B, A 📘 Explanation: The World Trade Organization (WTO) has held a series of ministerial conferences and trade negotiation rounds. The correct chronological order among the given options is: E. Doha Conference (2001): Marked the launch of the Doha Development Agenda, focusing on trade and development. D. Cancun Conference (2003): A continuation of the Doha Round but failed due to disagreements between developed and developing nations. C. Hong Kong Conference (2005): Some progress was made, particularly in phasing out agricultural export subsidies. B. Geneva Conference (2009): Continued negotiations but with little substantive progress. A. Bali Conference (2013): Notable for the successful conclusion of the Trade Facilitation Agreement. ✅ Final Answer: E, D, C, B, A

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58. Question 58

    Who has suggested the 7-S framework for organisational change?

    1. AMintzberg
    2. BMcKinsey
    3. CPeter Drucker
    4. DDale Yoder

    Answer: (A) Mintzberg

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: McKinsey 📘 Explanation: The 7-S Framework for organizational change was developed by McKinsey & Company, a global management consulting firm. It was introduced by consultants Robert Waterman, Tom Peters, and Julian Phillips in the early 1980s. The framework identifies seven internal elements of an organization that must be aligned for it to be successful. Strategy – The plan or direction the organization is taking to achieve its goals. Structure – The way the organization is arranged, including reporting lines and hierarchical setup. Systems – The processes and procedures that support the organization’s operations. Shared Values – The core beliefs and culture that guide the behavior and decisions of the organization. Skills – The capabilities and competencies of the employees. Style – The leadership approach and how leaders interact with their teams. Staff – The human resources or people who make up the organization. This framework helps organizations to analyze and understand how these elements interrelate and how changes in one area might affect others, making it a powerful tool for managing organizational change. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Peter Drucker: While Peter Drucker made significant contributions to management theory, he did not create the 7-S Framework. Dale Yoder: Known for his work in human resource management, Yoder did not develop the 7-S Framework. Mintzberg: Henry Mintzberg is well-known for his work on organizational structures and strategy, but he did not propose the 7-S Framework. ✅ Final Answer: McKinsey

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59. Question 59

    The structuralist theory of inflation was proposed by:

    1. AV.N Pandit
    2. BFritz Machlup
    3. CKeynes
    4. DG. Myrdal and P. Streeten

    Answer: (A) V.N Pandit

    Explanation

    ✅Correct answer: G. Myrdal and P. Streeten Unit I: Business Management and Managerial Economics Topic: Inflation 📖 Explanation: This question tests your knowledge of the Structuralist Theory of Inflation. G. Myrdal and P. Streeten Reason: The Structuralist Theory of Inflation was developed by structural economists such as Gunnar Myrdal and Paul Streeten. The theory argues that inflation in developing countries arises due to structural rigidities and bottlenecks in sectors such as agriculture, infrastructure, foreign exchange, and public finance. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: V.N. Pandit Reason: Not the proposer of the Structuralist Theory of Inflation. Milton Friedman Reason: Associated with Monetarism, not Structuralism. Fritz Machlup Reason: Not linked to the Structuralist Theory of Inflation. Keynes Reason: Associated with demand-side explanations of inflation. ✅ Final Answer: G. Myrdal and P. Streeten.

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60. Question 60

    “Formulating and executing human resource policies and practices that produce the employee competencies and behaviours the company needs to achieve its strategic aims” is called?

    1. AStrategic human resource Auditing
    2. BStrategic human resource Planning
    3. CStrategic human resource Evaluation
    4. DStrategic human resource Management

    Answer: (A) Strategic human resource Auditing

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: Strategic Human Resource Management ✅ Explanation: The statement describes the integration of HRM practices with the strategic goals of an organization to improve business performance and develop an organizational culture that fosters innovation, flexibility, and competitive advantage. Strategic Human Resource Management (SHRM) refers to: Aligning HR policies and practices with the strategic objectives of the organization. Ensuring that employee competencies and behaviors are developed and directed toward achieving business goals. Making HR a strategic partner in the overall planning process. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Strategic Human Resource Planning:Focuses more on forecasting future HR needs and planning to meet those needs—not necessarily the execution of policies and behaviors. Strategic Human Resource Auditing:Involves evaluating the effectiveness and compliance of HR systems—not about formulating or executing strategies. Strategic Human Resource Evaluation:Focuses on measuring outcomes of HR strategies—such as performance metrics—not the strategic formulation itself. ✅ Final Answer: Strategic Human Resource Management

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61. Question 61

    Arrange the Five Stages of Conflict Process in proper sequence from beginning to end
    A. Potential opposition or incompatibility
    B. Intentions
    C. Cognition and personalization
    D. Outcomes
    E. Behavior

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BA, D, E, C, B
    3. CA, C, E, B, D
    4. DA, C, B, E, D

    Answer: (D) A, C, B, E, D

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct answer: A, C, B, E, D Unit II: Organizational Behaviour Topic: Group Behaviour: Group Dynamics (Conflict Management) 📘 Explanation: The Five Stages of Conflict Process was proposed by Stephen P. Robbins to explain how conflict develops and progresses within an organization. The model describes conflict as a dynamic process that begins with the existence of conditions for conflict and ends with outcomes that may be either functional or dysfunctional. Understanding these stages helps managers identify conflict early and apply appropriate conflict management strategies before it adversely affects organizational performance. A. Potential Opposition or Incompatibility Reason: This is the first stage where conditions such as poor communication, organizational structure, or personal differences create the possibility of conflict. At this stage, conflict has not yet occurred but the potential for it exists. C. Cognition and Personalization Reason: In this stage, the parties become aware of the conflict and begin to experience emotional involvement. Conflict is perceived and may develop into feelings such as frustration, anger, or anxiety. B. Intentions Reason: After recognizing the conflict, individuals decide how they intend to respond. Their intentions may involve competing, collaborating, compromising, avoiding, or accommodating. E. Behavior Reason: This is the stage where intentions are translated into actual actions and interactions. The conflict becomes visible through discussions, disagreements, negotiations, or other forms of behaviour. D. Outcomes Reason: This is the final stage where conflict produces results that may be functional (improving decision-making, creativity, or performance) or dysfunctional (reducing cooperation, morale, or productivity). ✅ Final Answer: A, C, B, E, D.

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62. Question 62

    Which of the following are merits of Internal Rate of Return Method of Capital Budgeting?
    A. Consider all cash flows
    B. Satisfies the value additivity principle
    C. Generally consistent with wealth maximization principle
    D. It considers the time value of money
    E. It never fails to indicate correct choice between mutually exclusive projects.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C, and D only
    2. BA, C and E Only
    3. CB, C and D Only
    4. DA, B and E Only

    Answer: (D) A, B and E Only

    Explanation

    ✅Correct answer: A, C, and D only 📘 Explanation: The Internal Rate of Return (IRR) method is a widely used technique in capital budgeting. It calculates the rate of return at which the net present value (NPV) of a project is zero. Its major merits include: A. Consider all cash flows → IRR takes into account all cash inflows and outflows during the life of the project. C. Generally consistent with wealth maximization principle → IRR usually aligns with shareholder wealth maximization for independent projects. D. It considers the time value of money → IRR discounts future cash flows, so time value is recognized. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: B. Satisfies the value additivity principle → This is a feature of the NPV method, not IRR. E. It never fails to indicate correct choice between mutually exclusive projects → IRR can give misleading rankings in mutually exclusive projects due to scale and timing differences. ✅ Final Answer: A, C, and D only

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63. Question 63

    Which one of the following is true about service marketing?

    1. AServices can be separated from the service providers
    2. BServices can be seen, tasted, felt, heard, or smelled before purchase
    3. CServices can be stored for later sale or use
    4. DQuality of services depends on who provides them and when, where, and how

    Answer: (D) Quality of services depends on who provides them and when, where, and how

    Explanation

    Correct answer: D. Quality of services depends on who provides them and when, where, and how.

    This is the variability (or heterogeneity) characteristic of services. Service quality can differ with the provider, timing, location, and manner of delivery.

    • A is incorrect: Services are generally inseparable from their providers because production and consumption occur together.
    • B is incorrect: Services are intangible and cannot usually be seen, tasted, felt, heard, or smelled before purchase.
    • C is incorrect: Services are perishable and cannot be stored for later sale or use.

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64. Question 64

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: Approach of management	List-II: Explanation
    A. Decision theory approach	I. Managing is seen as a mathematical process
    B. Management science approach	II. Managerial practice depends on circumstances
    C. Operational approach	III. Focus is on making decisions
    D. Contingency approach	IV. Draws together concepts, principles, techniques and knowledge from other managerial fields

    1. AA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    2. BA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (A) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    Explanation

    Decision theory focuses on making decisions (A-III), management science treats managing as a mathematical process (B-I), the operational approach draws together knowledge from other managerial fields (C-IV), and contingency management depends on circumstances (D-II). Therefore option A is correct.

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65. Question 65

    The procedure for determining the duties and skill requirements of a job and the kind of person who should be hired for it is:

    1. AJob description
    2. BJob evaluation
    3. CJob specification
    4. DJob analysis

    Answer: (B) Job evaluation

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct answer: Job Analysis ✅ Explanation:Job Analysis is the systematic process of determining and documenting: The duties and responsibilities of a job The skills, knowledge, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs) required to perform the job The type of person best suited for the job It serves as the foundation for many HR functions, including recruitment, selection, training, performance appraisal, and compensation. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Job Description:❌ It is an output of job analysis that provides a written summary of the duties and responsibilities of a job. Job Specification:❌ Also an output of job analysis that outlines the qualifications, skills, and experience needed to perform the job. Job Evaluation:❌ This is a separate HR process used to determine the relative worth or value of a job for compensation purposes—not about duties or skill requirements. ✅ Final Answer: Job Analysis.

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66. Question 66

    A sum total of ways in which an individual reacts and interacts with others is called:

    1. APersonality
    2. BAttitude
    3. CPerception
    4. DValues

    Answer: (C) Perception

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct answer: Personality Unit II: Organizational Behaviour Topic: Individual Behaviour: Personality 📘 Explanation: Personality refers to the unique and relatively stable pattern of thoughts, emotions, and behaviours that distinguishes one individual from another. It influences how a person reacts to people, situations, and the surrounding environment. According to Stephen P. Robbins, personality is: “The sum total of ways in which an individual reacts and interacts with others.” This definition highlights that personality is reflected in a person’s overall pattern of behaviour and interaction. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Perception Reason: Perception is the process through which individuals select, organize, and interpret information to make sense of their environment. It explains how people understand situations, not their overall pattern of behaviour. Attitude Reason: Attitude is a learned tendency to respond positively or negatively towards a person, object, or situation. It reflects a person’s evaluation or feelings rather than their complete behavioural pattern. Values Reason: Values are deeply held beliefs about what is right, desirable, or important. They guide an individual’s decisions and behaviour but do not describe the person’s overall personality. ✅ Final Answer: Personality.

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67. Question 67

    Which of the following is true about the term “KAIZEN”?

    1. AKAIZEN is subtle and its results are seldom immediately visible. It is an ongoing process and involves the entire organisation.
    2. BKAIZEN is dramatic, a real attention-getter. It is like magma that appears in abrupt eruptions from time to time.
    3. CKAIZEN involves all the activities directed towards maintaining current technological, managerial and operating standards and improving current standards.
    4. DKAIZEN is seen as major changes in the wake of technological breakthroughs or the introduction of latest management concepts or production techniques.

    Answer: (C) KAIZEN involves all the activities directed towards maintaining current technological, managerial and operating standards and improving current standards.

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: KAIZEN is subtle and its results are seldom immediately visible. It is an ongoing process and involves the entire organisation. 📘 Explanation: Kaizen is not dramatic or abrupt like an eruption; instead, it focuses on small, continuous improvements over time. It does not rely on sudden technological breakthroughs or major changes but rather on gradual refinements in processes, efficiency, and quality. Kaizen involves all employees, from management to frontline workers, in making small, incremental improvements that accumulate into significant long-term benefits. ✅ Final Answer: KAIZEN is subtle and its results are seldom immediately visible. It is an ongoing process and involves the entire organisation.

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68. Question 68

    In which of the following cases will there be a Flow of Funds?
    A. Purchase of Building for cash
    B. Cash collection from debtors
    C. Cash payment to creditors
    D. Issue of share for cash
    E. Payment of creditors by issue of shares

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, and C Only
    2. BA, D, and E Only
    3. CA, C, and D Only
    4. DB and C Only

    Answer: (D) B and C Only

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: A, D, and E Only ✅ Explanation: Flow of Funds occurs when there is a change between current and non-current accounts, i.e., movement of funds between different categories (working capital vs. non-working capital items). Let’s analyze each case: Transaction Type Flow of Funds? Explanation A. Purchase of Building for cash Non-current asset ↔ Current asset ✅ Yes Cash (current asset) decreases, building (non-current asset) increases — a fund flow. B. Cash collection from debtors Current asset ↔ Current asset ❌ No Cash increases, debtors decrease — both are current assets, no flow of funds. C. Cash payment to creditors Current asset ↔ Current liability ❌ No Cash and creditors both are current items — it affects working capital but not a fund flow. D. Issue of shares for cash Non-current liability ↔ Current asset ✅ Yes Share capital increases (non-current), cash increases (current) — fund flow. E. Payment of creditors by issue of shares Non-current ↔ Current liability ✅ Yes Share capital increases, creditors decrease — movement between different categories. ✅ Final Answer: A, D, and E Only

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69. Question 69

    Arrange the following procedures of hypothesis testing in proper sequence.

    A. Making decisions
    B. Setting a test criterion
    C. Set up hypothesis
    D. Set up a suitable significance level
    E. Doing computations

    1. AC, D, B, E, A
    2. BB, C, D, A, E
    3. CC, D, A, B, E
    4. DD, C, B, E, A

    Answer: (A) C, D, B, E, A

    Explanation

    Hypothesis testing begins by stating the hypothesis and choosing the significance level. The test criterion is then fixed, the calculations are performed, and a decision is made. The sequence C-D-B-E-A is therefore correct, so option A is correct.

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70. Question 70

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: Form of strike	List-II: Appropriate meaning
    A. Economic strike	I. Strike protesting illegal employer conduct
    B. Unfair-labour-practice strike	II. Strike resulting from failure to agree on contract terms
    C. Wildcat strike	III. Strike by one union in support of another union’s strike
    D. Sympathy strike	IV. Unauthorised strike occurring during a contract term

    1. AA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    3. CA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
    4. DA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

    Answer: (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Explanation

    An economic strike results from an impasse over contract terms (A-II); an unfair-labour-practice strike protests illegal employer conduct (B-I); a wildcat strike is unauthorised during a contract term (C-IV); and a sympathy strike supports another union’s strike (D-III). Thus option B is correct.

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71. Question 71

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: Corporate restructuring	List-II: Meaning
    A. Leveraged buyout	I. Company sells a part of its business to a third party
    B. Divestment	II. Company creates a new company from an existing single entity
    C. Sell-off	III. Sale of company assets or a division to outsiders
    D. Spin-off	IV. Acquisition substantially financed through debt

    1. AA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    2. BA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    3. CA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    4. DA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    Answer: (A) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    A leveraged buyout is substantially debt-financed (A-IV). Divestment is the sale of a company asset or division to outsiders (B-III), a sell-off is a sale of part of the business to a third party (C-I), and a spin-off creates a new company from an existing entity (D-II). Therefore option A is correct.

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72. Question 72

    Robert L. Katz identified three kinds of skills for administrators. Which was NOT identified by Katz?

    1. ATechnical skill
    2. BHuman skill
    3. CDesign skill
    4. DConceptual skill

    Answer: (C) Design skill

    Explanation

    Katz’s classic three-skill model contains technical, human, and conceptual skills. Design skill is not part of that three-part classification, so option C is correct.

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73. Question 73

    Arrange the following stages/elements of technology management in proper sequence starting from first to last:
    A. Technology Adaptation
    B. Technology Abandonment
    C. Technology Advancement
    D. Technology Acquisition
    E. Technology Awareness

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AB, C, D, A, E
    2. BD, C, A, B, E
    3. CE, D, A, C, B
    4. DA, C, D, B, E

    Answer: (C) E, D, A, C, B

    Explanation

    ✅Correct answer: E, D, A, C, B ✅ Explanation: The correct sequence of technology management stages reflects the life cycle of technology in an organization, from awareness to eventual abandonment: E. Technology Awareness– First, organizations must become aware of emerging technologies and their potential. D. Technology Acquisition– After identifying relevant technologies, the next step is to acquire them through purchase, licensing, or partnership. A. Technology Adaptation– Once acquired, the technology must be adapted to the specific needs and processes of the organization. C. Technology Advancement– As the organization uses the technology, it may upgrade or improve it for better performance and innovation. B. Technology Abandonment– Eventually, when the technology becomes obsolete or less efficient, it is phased out or replaced. ✅ Final Answer: E, D, A, C, B

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74. Question 74

    A company paid a dividend of ₹3.70 in the previous year. Dividends are expected to grow perpetually at 8%. What is the share price today if the market capitalisation rate is 12%?

    1. A₹40
    2. B₹33.33
    3. C₹100
    4. D₹200

    Answer: (C) ₹100

    Explanation

    Using the Gordon growth model, P₀ = D₁/(k − g). D₁ = 3.70 × 1.08 = 3.996 and k − g = 0.12 − 0.08 = 0.04, so P₀ = 3.996/0.04 = ₹99.90, approximately ₹100. This model capitalises next year’s dividend, not the previous dividend. Option C is correct.

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75. Question 75

    Arrange the following Historical Events in operations management in the order of sequence starting from oldest to newest:
    A. Quality Revolution
    B. Scientific Management
    C. Industrial Revolution
    D. Operations Research
    E. Human Relations

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AC, B, E, D, A
    2. BE, C, B, A, D
    3. CA, B, D, C, E
    4. DB, C, D, E, A

    Answer: (A) C, B, E, D, A

    Explanation

    ✅Correct answer: C, B, E, D, A Unit I: Business Management and Managerial Economics Topic: Management: Theories and Approaches 📖 Explanation: To arrange the historical developments in Operations Management from oldest to newest: C. Industrial Revolution Reason: The Industrial Revolution (1760–1840) marked the beginning of modern manufacturing through mechanization and factory systems. B. Scientific Management Reason: Developed by F.W. Taylor in the early 1900s, it emphasized scientific methods to improve efficiency and productivity. E. Human Relations Reason: Emerged during the 1920s–1930s through the Hawthorne Studies led by Elton Mayo, focusing on human and social aspects of work. D. Operations Research Reason: Developed during World War II (1940s) to solve complex military and resource allocation problems using mathematical techniques. A. Quality Revolution Reason: Became prominent from the 1980s onwards, emphasizing continuous quality improvement through the work of Deming, Juran, Crosby, and others. ✅ Final Answer: C, B, E, D, A.

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76. Question 76

    Which of the following terms are associated with the VRIO framework of Internal Analysis?
    A. Valuable
    B. Rare
    C. Intimitable
    D. Organised for usage
    E. Innovative

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B Only
    2. BA, B and C Only
    3. CA, B and E Only
    4. DA, B, C and D Only

    Answer: (D) A, B, C and D Only

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: A, B, C and D Only 📘 Explanation: The VRIO framework is a tool used for analyzing an organization’s internal resources and capabilities to determine if they can lead to a sustained competitive advantage. VRIO stands for: Valuable (A): A resource is valuable if it helps the company exploit opportunities or neutralize threats in the market. It can create value by improving efficiency or effectiveness. Rare (B): A resource is rare if it is not widely possessed by competitors. If many firms have access to a particular resource, it loses its competitive value. Costly to Imitate (C): This refers to the difficulty or expense involved for competitors to replicate or imitate a resource. If a resource is costly to imitate, it can provide a sustained competitive advantage. Organized for Usage (D): Even if a resource is valuable, rare, and costly to imitate, it is only useful if the company is organized to fully utilize it. This involves having the appropriate structure, processes, and systems in place to leverage the resource. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: The term Innovative (E) is not part of the VRIO framework. While innovation can be valuable and contribute to competitive advantage, it’s not one of the core components of the VRIO framework. ✅ Final Answer: A, B, C and D Only

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77. Question 77

    Which of the following are operational methodology of Self Help Group?
    A. Village meeting of women in villages by MFI
    B. Group formation
    C. Group Training for 5-7 days on procedures and business development skills
    D. Group meeting once in a week for mobilizing saving, disbursing and repaying loans
    E. Lending money for long term loans

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AB, C and D Only
    2. BB, C, D and E Only
    3. CA, B, C and D Only
    4. DA, B and C Only

    Answer: (C) A, B, C and D Only

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: A, B, C and D Only ✅ Explanation:The operational methodology of a Self Help Group (SHG) involves several structured steps designed to empower members, build financial discipline, and foster sustainable livelihoods. These typically include: A. Village meeting of women in villages by MFI (Microfinance Institution): This is often the initial step where awareness is created and women are mobilized to form groups. B. Group formation: Core to SHG methodology, members are typically homogeneous and voluntarily come together to form a group. C. Group Training for 5-7 days on procedures and business development skills: This ensures that members understand how the SHG functions, including savings, lending, bookkeeping, and income-generating activities. D. Group meeting once in a week for mobilizing saving, disbursing and repaying loans: Regular meetings are essential for maintaining financial discipline and group cohesion. ❌ Why the other option is incorrect: E. Lending money for long term loans: SHGs primarily focus on short-term and small-ticket loans aimed at meeting immediate consumption or working capital needs. Long-term lending is generally not part of their standard operational methodology, especially in early stages. ✅ Final Answer: A, B, C and D Only

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78. Question 78

    If profit before interest and tax is Rs. 10000, provision for Tax = Rs. 5000, No. of Equity Share = 3000, Preference dividend = 2000, Dividend per equity share = 0.40, what is the value of payout ratio?

    1. A50%
    2. B40%
    3. C10%
    4. D20%

    Answer: (D) 20%

    Explanation

    ✅Correct answer: 40% 📘 Explanation: Given: Profit before Interest and Tax (EBIT) = ₹10,000 Provision for Tax = ₹5,000 Preference Dividend = ₹2,000 Number of Equity Shares = 3,000 Dividend per Equity Share (DPS) = ₹0.40 ✅ Final Answer: 40%

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79. Question 79

    Under brand sponsorship, store brands are also known as which of the following?

    A. National brands
    B. Generic brands
    C. Private brands
    D. Distributor brands
    E. Manufacturer brands

    1. AB, C and D only
    2. BA, B and C only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DA, D and E only

    Answer: (A) B, C and D only

    Explanation

    Store brands are owned or controlled by retailers and are commonly called private brands or distributor brands; generic brands are also a store-brand form. National and manufacturer brands are producer-owned, so B, C and D only is correct: option A.

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80. Question 80

    What is the value of cost of capital after tax in a perpetual bond sold at par, coupon rate of interest being 7 per cent. Assuming that firm pay tax at a 50 per cent rate?

    1. A3.50%
    2. B5%
    3. C35%
    4. D7%

    Answer: (D) 7%

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: 3.50% 📘 Explanation: For a perpetual bond sold at par, the before-tax cost of debt is equal to the coupon rate. Given: Coupon Rate = 7% Tax Rate = 50% The formula for after-tax cost of debt (cost of capital) is: Kd = r(1-t) Where: (Kd) = After-tax cost of debt (r) = Interest rate on debt (t) = Tax rate Substituting the values: Kd = 7*(1 – 0.50) Kd = 7*0.50 Kd = 3.5% Therefore, the after-tax cost of capital is: ✅ 3.50% ✅ Final Answer: 3.50%

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81. Question 81

    Which of the following are the modes of strategic decision making according to Mintzberg?
    A. Entrepreneurial Mode
    B. Adaptive Mode
    C. Planning Mode
    D. Logical Incrementalisation Mode

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B Only
    2. BA, B, C and D Only
    3. CA, B and C Only
    4. DC and D Only

    Answer: (C) A, B and C Only

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: A, B and C Only 📘 Explanation: Henry Mintzberg identified three major modes of strategic decision making in organizations. A. Entrepreneurial Mode involves strategy making driven by a strong leader focusing on opportunities, growth, and bold decisions. B. Adaptive Mode is characterized by reactive and incremental decision making where organizations adjust gradually to environmental changes. C. Planning Mode involves systematic analysis, formal planning, and structured strategic decision processes. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: D. Logical Incrementalisation Mode is not one of Mintzberg’s modes. It was proposed by James Brian Quinn as a separate strategic management concept emphasizing gradual and flexible strategic change. ✅ Final Answer: A, B and C Only

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82. Question 82

    Which of the following are the main objectives of establishment of International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
    A. To provide long-term funds at concession rates to the poorest member countries.
    B. To promote the development of Private enterprises in member countries.
    C. To regulate the exchange rates and enforce the rules.
    D. To promote exchange stability, maintaining orderly exchange arrangements and avoiding competitive exchange devaluation.
    E. To assist in establishment of a multilateral system of payments in respect of current transaction between members.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AC, D and E Only
    2. BA, C and E Only
    3. CA, B and C Only
    4. DB, C and D Only

    Answer: (D) B, C and D Only

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: C, D and E Only 🧾 Explanation: The International Monetary Fund (IMF) was established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference with the primary aim of ensuring the stability of the international monetary system. Its key objectives include: C. To regulate the exchange rates and enforce the rules:The IMF oversees the international monetary system and monitors the economic and financial policies of its member countries to ensure exchange rate stability. D. To promote exchange stability, maintaining orderly exchange arrangements and avoiding competitive exchange devaluation:A core mission of the IMF is to support stable exchange rates and discourage practices that could lead to instability in international trade. E. To assist in establishment of a multilateral system of payments in respect of current transaction between members:The IMF promotes the elimination of foreign exchange restrictions and helps establish a system where current transactions between countries can proceed freely and predictably. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: A. To provide long-term funds at concession rates to the poorest member countries:This is primarily the role of the World Bank and its affiliates like the International Development Association (IDA), not the IMF. B. To promote the development of Private enterprises in member countries:This is mainly the function of the International Finance Corporation (IFC), part of the World Bank Group, not the IMF. ✅ Final Answer: C, D and E Only

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83. Question 83

    What is the primary objective of a feasibility study?

    1. ATo assess the historical background of a business
    2. BTo persuade investors to fund a project
    3. CTo uncover strength and weakness of a business idea
    4. DTo outline the technical development process

    Answer: (C) To uncover strength and weakness of a business idea

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: To uncover strength and weakness of a business idea ✅ Explanation:The primary objective of a feasibility study is to analyze the strengths and weaknesses of a proposed business idea or project to determine whether it is viable and worth pursuing. This includes evaluating aspects such as: Market feasibility (demand, competition) Technical feasibility (resources, capabilities) Financial feasibility (costs, returns, funding) Legal and regulatory feasibility Operational feasibility This thorough assessment helps in making informed decisions before committing significant time and resources. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: To persuade investors to fund a project: This may be a secondary outcome, but the feasibility study is meant for internal decision-making, not sales or promotion. To assess the historical background of a business: This is part of a business analysis, not the primary focus of a feasibility study. To outline the technical development process: That is a part of a technical plan or project plan, not the main goal of a feasibility study. ✅ Final Answer: To uncover strength and weakness of a business idea

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84. Question 84

    What is the belief among pluralists regarding conflict in an organization?

    1. AConflict is necessary but it can be managed and resolved
    2. BConflict should be eliminated through strict rules
    3. CConflict is necessary and should be ignored
    4. DConflict is unnecessary and should be avoided at all cost

    Answer: (C) Conflict is necessary and should be ignored

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct answer: Conflict is necessary but it can be managed and resolved Unit II: Organizational Behaviour Topic: Group Behaviour: Group Dynamics (Conflict Management) 📘 Explanation: Conflict is a process in which one party perceives that another party has negatively affected, or is likely to negatively affect, something that the first party values. Management thinkers have explained organizational conflict through three major views (theories), each having a different perspective on the role of conflict in organizations. Traditional View of Conflict:Conflict is unnecessary and should be avoided at all cost Reason: This view considers conflict harmful and believes it should be avoided or eliminated. It assumes that conflict arises due to poor communication, lack of trust, or ineffective management. Human Relations (Pluralist) View of Conflict: Conflict is necessary but it can be managed and resolved Reason: This view considers conflict as a natural and unavoidable part of organizational life because people have different goals, opinions, and interests. It believes that conflict can be managed and resolved in a constructive way to improve organizational effectiveness. Interactionist View of Conflict: Conflict is necessary and should be encouraged to some extent. Reason: This view argues that some level of conflict is desirable because it promotes creativity, innovation, and better decision-making. Too little conflict may lead to complacency and poor organizational performance. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Conflict is unnecessary and should be avoided at all cost Reason: This represents the Traditional View of Conflict, which considers conflict harmful and believes it should be prevented or eliminated. Conflict is necessary and should be ignored Reason: Although the pluralist view accepts conflict as natural, it does not support ignoring it. Unresolved conflict can negatively affect teamwork, employee morale, and organizational performance. Conflict should be eliminated through strict rules Reason: This reflects the traditional approach of suppressing conflict through rigid rules and controls. The pluralist view focuses on managing conflict through communication, negotiation, and conflict resolution techniques. ✅ Final Answer: Conflict is necessary but it can be managed and resolved.

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85. Question 85

    Arrange the major steps of Luthan’s O.B. Mod approach to behavioral performance management from earlier to later
    A. Measure
    B. Identify
    C. Intervene
    D. Analyze
    E. Evaluate

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C, B, E, D
    2. BA, B, C, D, E
    3. CB, A, D, C, E
    4. DB, C, D, E, A

    Answer: (D) B, C, D, E, A

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct answer: B, A, D, C, E Unit II: Organizational Behaviour Topic: Individual Behaviour: Learning (OB Mod) 📘 Explanation: Organizational Behaviour Modification (OB Mod) is a behaviour management technique developed by Fred Luthans based on B.F. Skinner’s Operant Conditioning Theory. It applies reinforcement principles to encourage desirable workplace behaviours and improve employee performance. Luthans proposed a five-step OB Mod process for managing behaviour systematically: B. Identify Reason: The first step is to identify the critical behaviours that significantly affect employee or organizational performance. A. Measure Reason: After identifying the behaviour, its current frequency or performance level is measured to establish a baseline. D. Analyze Reason: The causes and consequences of the behaviour are analyzed to understand why it occurs and what reinforces it. C. Intervene Reason: Appropriate interventions such as positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, punishment, or extinction are applied to modify behaviour. E. Evaluate Reason: The final step is to assess whether the intervention has successfully changed behaviour and improved performance. ✅ Final Answer: B, A, D, C, E

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86. Question 86

    Which type of Intrapreneur is known for generating innovative ideas and seeking ways to improve process?

    1. AImplementers Intrapreneur
    2. BCreator Intrapreneur
    3. CEmployee Intrapreneur
    4. DDoers Intrapreneur

    Answer: (C) Employee Intrapreneur

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: Creator Intrapreneur ✅ Explanation:Creator Intrapreneurs are known for their ability to generate innovative ideas and proactively seek ways to improve processes, products, or services within an organization. They are the visionaries who thrive on creativity and original thinking, often identifying opportunities for innovation that others may overlook. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Employee Intrapreneur: This is a general term that refers to any employee exhibiting entrepreneurial behavior within an organization. It’s not a specific type. Doers Intrapreneur: These are action-oriented individuals who execute ideas effectively but may not necessarily be the originators of those ideas. Implementers Intrapreneur: Focused on putting plans into action; they excel at operationalizing strategies rather than originating them. ✅ Final Answer: Creator Intrapreneur

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87. Question 87

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: Model/framework	List-II: Developed by
    A. VRIO framework	I. J. B. Barney
    B. Value-chain analysis	II. M. E. Porter
    C. Product-market matrix	III. H. I. Ansoff
    D. PEST analysis	IV. Johnson and Scholes

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    3. CA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
    4. DA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Answer: (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

    Explanation

    The VRIO framework was developed by J. B. Barney (A-I), value-chain analysis by Michael Porter (B-II), the product-market matrix by H. I. Ansoff (C-III), and PEST analysis is associated here with Johnson and Scholes (D-IV). Hence option A is correct.

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88. Question 88

    “Consumer buying behaviour in situations characterised by high consumer involvement in a purchase and significant perceived differences among brands” is termed as:

    1. AHabitual bying behaviour
    2. BVariety-seeking buying behaviour
    3. CComplex buying behaviour
    4. DDissonance-reducing buying behaviour

    Answer: (A) Habitual bying behaviour

    Explanation

    ✅ Correct Answer: Complex buying behaviour ✅ Explanation: Complex buying behaviour occurs when the consumer is highly involved in the purchase decision and perceives significant differences among brands. This type of behaviour is usually observed in the purchase of expensive, infrequent, and high-risk products, such as buying a house, car, or laptop. Consumers spend a lot of time researching and comparing alternatives before making a decision. ❌ Why the other options are incorrect: Dissonance-reducing buying behaviour:❌ Involves high involvement but little perceived brand difference. The consumer is worried about post-purchase dissonance and chooses quickly, e.g., buying carpet flooring. Habitual buying behaviour:❌ Characterized by low involvement and little brand difference, such as buying salt or toothpaste regularly without much thought. Variety-seeking buying behaviour:❌ Involves low involvement but significant brand differences, such as choosing snacks or cookies — consumers may switch brands for the sake of variety. ✅ Final Answer: Complex buying behaviour ✅

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89. Question 89

    If Rf = 10%, Rm = 18%, and B = 1.35, what is the expected rate of return for security?

    1. A18.80%
    2. B28.80%
    3. C8.80%
    4. D20.80%

    Answer: (D) 20.80%

    Explanation

    ✅Correct answer: 20.80% 📘 Explanation: This question is based on the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) used to calculate the required rate of return on equity. The formula is: Ke = Rf + beta(Rm – Rf) Risk-free Rate = Rf​ = 10% Market Rate of Return = Rm = 18% Beta = beta = 1.35 Return on Equity = Ke = ? Return on Equity: Ke = Rf + beta(Rm – Rf) Ke = 10 + 1.35(18-10) Ke = 10 + 1.35*8 Ke = 10 + 10.8 Ke = 20.8 ✅ Final Answer: 20.80%

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90. Question 90

    Which one of the following is true about the role of sales force/personal selling?

    1. APersonal selling consists largely of non-personal communication with large groups of customers
    2. BPersonal selling is the interpersonal arm of the promotion mix
    3. CPersonal selling is less effective than advertising in complex selling situations
    4. DA sales force cannot adjust an offer and presentation to individual customer needs

    Answer: (B) Personal selling is the interpersonal arm of the promotion mix

    Explanation

    Personal selling is direct, interpersonal communication and can adapt an offer and presentation to a customer’s needs. This makes it particularly useful in complex selling situations, so option B is correct.

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91. Question 91

    What might employees in a competitive organisational culture display?

    Organizational culture refers to workplace qualities that influence employees, while organizational behavior is the resulting behavior of people within the organization. Culture includes core values, a mission statement, and expectations of employees. A customer-service culture can encourage communication, professionalism, customer satisfaction, friendliness, and helpfulness. A competitive culture can instead prompt aggressiveness and competitiveness. Culture provides the foundation for employee behavior, so a healthy culture is essential for a positive working environment.

    1. ACooperation and teamwork
    2. BFriendliness and helpfulness
    3. CIndifference and passiveness
    4. DAggressiveness and competitiveness

    Answer: (D) Aggressiveness and competitiveness

    Explanation

    The passage contrasts a customer-service culture with a competitive culture. It says that employees in the latter may behave aggressively and competitively to achieve the highest results, making option D correct.

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92. Question 92

    Which of the following is NOT a factor included in organisational culture?

    Organizational culture refers to workplace qualities that influence employees, while organizational behavior is the resulting behavior of people within the organization. Culture includes core values, a mission statement, and expectations of employees. A customer-service culture can encourage communication, professionalism, customer satisfaction, friendliness, and helpfulness. A competitive culture can instead prompt aggressiveness and competitiveness. Culture provides the foundation for employee behavior, so a healthy culture is essential for a positive working environment.

    1. ACore values
    2. BCompany's mission
    3. CEmployee's salary
    4. DExpectations of employees

    Answer: (C) Employee's salary

    Explanation

    The passage names core values, a mission statement, and employee expectations as culture factors. Salary is not listed as a constituent of organisational culture, so option C is correct.

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93. Question 93

    In a company with a culture focused on customer service, employees are expected to demonstrate behaviours such as:

    Organizational culture refers to workplace qualities that influence employees, while organizational behavior is the resulting behavior of people within the organization. Culture includes core values, a mission statement, and expectations of employees. A customer-service culture can encourage communication, professionalism, customer satisfaction, friendliness, and helpfulness. A competitive culture can instead prompt aggressiveness and competitiveness. Culture provides the foundation for employee behavior, so a healthy culture is essential for a positive working environment.

    1. ACompetitiveness and aggression
    2. BFriendliness and helpfulness
    3. CIndependence and autonomy
    4. DInnovation and creativity

    Answer: (B) Friendliness and helpfulness

    Explanation

    A customer-service culture shapes employees toward courteous service-oriented conduct. The passage expressly gives friendliness and helpfulness as the resulting behaviour, so option B is correct.

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94. Question 94

    What role does organisational behavior play in the workplace?

    Organizational culture refers to workplace qualities that influence employees, while organizational behavior is the resulting behavior of people within the organization. Culture includes core values, a mission statement, and expectations of employees. A customer-service culture can encourage communication, professionalism, customer satisfaction, friendliness, and helpfulness. A competitive culture can instead prompt aggressiveness and competitiveness. Culture provides the foundation for employee behavior, so a healthy culture is essential for a positive working environment.

    1. AIt defines organisational goals
    2. BIt represents resultant employee actions
    3. CIt determines managerial decisions
    4. DIt outlines employee training programmes

    Answer: (B) It represents resultant employee actions

    Explanation

    Organisational behaviour is the behaviour people display as a consequence of the culture in which they work. It therefore represents resultant employee actions, which is option B.

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95. Question 95

    Which statement best describes the relationship between organisational culture and organisational behavior?

    Organizational culture refers to workplace qualities that influence employees, while organizational behavior is the resulting behavior of people within the organization. Culture includes core values, a mission statement, and expectations of employees. A customer-service culture can encourage communication, professionalism, customer satisfaction, friendliness, and helpfulness. A competitive culture can instead prompt aggressiveness and competitiveness. Culture provides the foundation for employee behavior, so a healthy culture is essential for a positive working environment.

    1. AOrganisational culture influences the resulting behavior of employees
    2. BOrganisational culture is the result of organisational behavior
    3. COrganisational behavior is solely determined by external factors
    4. DOrganisational behavior is independent of organisational culture

    Answer: (A) Organisational culture influences the resulting behavior of employees

    Explanation

    The passage calls culture the foundation for employees’ behavioural expression. Culture therefore influences the behaviour employees display, making option A correct.

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96. Question 96

    Which statement summarises a potential outcome of AI advancement in the workforce according to the passage?

    AI affects the workforce through automation of repetitive tasks, changing skill requirements, and possible job displacement. It can free employees for complex and creative work and create jobs in data analytics, machine learning, and AI development, but also creates a need for reskilling and upskilling. Risks include algorithmic bias and discrimination, privacy concerns, and cybersecurity threats. AI can nevertheless improve efficiency and productivity and create opportunities for workers with appropriate skills and knowledge.

    1. AAI will eliminate all job roles that require creativity
    2. BAI will benefit workers in specialised technical fields
    3. CAI advancement may create new job opportunities
    4. DAI will lead to a decrease in overall workforce productivity

    Answer: (C) AI advancement may create new job opportunities

    Explanation

    The passage says that AI is creating opportunities in data analytics, machine learning, and AI development. It does not eliminate creative work or reduce productivity, so option C is correct.

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97. Question 97

    What is one potential benefit of AI in the workforce mentioned in the passage?

    AI affects the workforce through automation of repetitive tasks, changing skill requirements, and possible job displacement. It can free employees for complex and creative work and create jobs in data analytics, machine learning, and AI development, but also creates a need for reskilling and upskilling. Risks include algorithmic bias and discrimination, privacy concerns, and cybersecurity threats. AI can nevertheless improve efficiency and productivity and create opportunities for workers with appropriate skills and knowledge.

    1. AIncreased job displacement
    2. BAutomation of repetitive tasks
    3. CReduced need for creativity
    4. DDecreased demand for data analysis

    Answer: (B) Automation of repetitive tasks

    Explanation

    Automating repetitive and routine tasks can free employees to focus on more complex and creative work. Job displacement is presented as a concern rather than a benefit, so option B is correct.

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98. Question 98

    According to the passage, what must be ensured as AI becomes more advanced in the workforce?

    AI affects the workforce through automation of repetitive tasks, changing skill requirements, and possible job displacement. It can free employees for complex and creative work and create jobs in data analytics, machine learning, and AI development, but also creates a need for reskilling and upskilling. Risks include algorithmic bias and discrimination, privacy concerns, and cybersecurity threats. AI can nevertheless improve efficiency and productivity and create opportunities for workers with appropriate skills and knowledge.

    1. AProtection of personal data and cybersecurity
    2. BImproved job security for all workers
    3. CIncreased bias in decision making
    4. DDecreased efficiency in operations

    Answer: (A) Protection of personal data and cybersecurity

    Explanation

    The passage stresses privacy and security: personal data must be protected and AI systems secured against cyberattacks. This is option A; the other choices conflict with the stated risks and benefits.

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99. Question 99

    Which potential drawback of AI in the workforce is associated with algorithmic decision-making?

    AI affects the workforce through automation of repetitive tasks, changing skill requirements, and possible job displacement. It can free employees for complex and creative work and create jobs in data analytics, machine learning, and AI development, but also creates a need for reskilling and upskilling. Risks include algorithmic bias and discrimination, privacy concerns, and cybersecurity threats. AI can nevertheless improve efficiency and productivity and create opportunities for workers with appropriate skills and knowledge.

    1. AReduced efficiency
    2. BIncreased job satisfaction
    3. CBias and discrimination
    4. DEnhanced security measures

    Answer: (C) Bias and discrimination

    Explanation

    Algorithms can encode or amplify unfair patterns, with negative consequences for marginalised individuals and communities. The passage identifies bias and discrimination as this risk, so option C is correct.

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100. Question 100

     Which skill is likely to become increasingly important in light of AI's impact on the workforce?

     AI affects the workforce through automation of repetitive tasks, changing skill requirements, and possible job displacement. It can free employees for complex and creative work and create jobs in data analytics, machine learning, and AI development, but also creates a need for reskilling and upskilling. Risks include algorithmic bias and discrimination, privacy concerns, and cybersecurity threats. AI can nevertheless improve efficiency and productivity and create opportunities for workers with appropriate skills and knowledge.

     1. AManual labour
     2. BRoutine administrative tasks
     3. CFollowing predefined procedures
     4. DCreative thinking and problem-solving

     Answer: (D) Creative thinking and problem-solving

     Explanation

     Because AI automates routine tasks, workers gain value by focusing on complex and creative work. Creative thinking and problem-solving therefore become more important, making option D correct.

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