UGC NET Computer Science & Applications March 2023 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   What is the total amount (in ₹) spent by all the six friends together on Travelling?

   The following table shows the monthly income and various expenditures of six friends A–F in absolute value or in percentage (in terms of monthly income) form. Some values (marked as "–") are missing in the table which you are expected to calculate if required. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions.

   Income and Expenditure Details

   Friend	Salary (₹)	Incentive (₹)	Travel	Food	Accommodation	Shopping
   A	92,000	–	–	10,960	10%	15%
   B	–	14,400	15,280	17,000	12,400	–
   C	–	12,600	12%	8%	–	12%
   D	88,000	–	–	15,120	9%	16,800
   E	80,000	–	5%	–	8,400	11,240
   F	–	11,400	8,400	8%	–	13,720

   Notes:

   • (a) Monthly Income = Salary + Incentive.
   • (b) Incentive amounts to 15% of salary.
   • (c) All six friends save 40% of their monthly income.
   • (d) There is no expenditure other than those given in the table.
   1. A85,634
   2. B85,643
   3. C84,634
   4. D84,436

   Answer: (A) 85,634

   Explanation

   For each friend, Monthly Income = Salary + Incentive = 1.15 × Salary (since Incentive = 15% of Salary). Total expenditure is 60% of monthly income (since 40% is saved):

   • Friend A: Salary = ₹92,000, Income = ₹1,05,800, Total Exp = ₹63,480. Travel = 63,480 − (10,960 + 10,580 [10%] + 15,870 [15%]) = ₹26,070.
   • Friend B: Incentive = ₹14,400 ⇒ Salary = ₹96,000, Income = ₹1,10,400, Travel = ₹15,280.
   • Friend C: Incentive = ₹12,600 ⇒ Salary = ₹84,000, Income = ₹96,600. Travel = 12% of 96,600 = ₹11,592.
   • Friend D: Salary = ₹88,000, Income = ₹1,01,200, Total Exp = ₹60,720. Travel = 60,720 − (15,120 + 9,108 [9%] + 16,800) = ₹19,692.
   • Friend E: Salary = ₹80,000, Income = ₹92,000. Travel = 5% of 92,000 = ₹4,600.
   • Friend F: Incentive = ₹11,400 ⇒ Salary = ₹76,000, Income = ₹87,400. Travel = ₹8,400.
     Total spent on travelling = 26,070 + 15,280 + 11,592 + 19,692 + 4,600 + 8,400 = ₹85,634.

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2. Question 2

   What is the difference in the amount spent by B on Food and Shopping together and that of C on accommodation?

   The following table shows the monthly income and various expenditures of six friends A–F in absolute value or in percentage (in terms of monthly income) form. Some values (marked as "–") are missing in the table which you are expected to calculate if required. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions.

   Income and Expenditure Details

   Friend	Salary (₹)	Incentive (₹)	Travel	Food	Accommodation	Shopping
   A	92,000	–	–	10,960	10%	15%
   B	–	14,400	15,280	17,000	12,400	–
   C	–	12,600	12%	8%	–	12%
   D	88,000	–	–	15,120	9%	16,800
   E	80,000	–	5%	–	8,400	11,240
   F	–	11,400	8,400	8%	–	13,720

   Notes:

   • (a) Monthly Income = Salary + Incentive.
   • (b) Incentive amounts to 15% of salary.
   • (c) All six friends save 40% of their monthly income.
   • (d) There is no expenditure other than those given in the table.
   1. A₹11,412
   2. B₹11,532
   3. C₹11,512
   4. D₹11,332

   Answer: (C) ₹11,512

   Explanation

   For friend B: Incentive is ₹14,400 (15% of salary), giving Salary = ₹96,000 and Monthly Income = ₹1,10,400. Total expenditure (60%) = ₹66,240. Shopping = 66,240 − (15,280 [Travel] + 17,000 [Food] + 12,400 [Accommodation]) = ₹21,560. Thus, B spent on Food + Shopping = 17,000 + 21,560 = ₹38,560.
   For friend C: Incentive is ₹12,600 (15% of salary), giving Salary = ₹84,000 and Monthly Income = ₹96,600. Total expenditure (60%) = ₹57,960. Travel (12%) = ₹11,592, Food (8%) = ₹7,728, Shopping (12%) = ₹11,592. Accommodation = 57,960 − (11,592 + 7,728 + 11,592) = ₹27,048.
   Difference = ₹38,560 − ₹27,048 = ₹11,512.

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3. Question 3

   What is the amount saved (in ₹) by all the six friends together?

   The following table shows the monthly income and various expenditures of six friends A–F in absolute value or in percentage (in terms of monthly income) form. Some values (marked as "–") are missing in the table which you are expected to calculate if required. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions.

   Income and Expenditure Details

   Friend	Salary (₹)	Incentive (₹)	Travel	Food	Accommodation	Shopping
   A	92,000	–	–	10,960	10%	15%
   B	–	14,400	15,280	17,000	12,400	–
   C	–	12,600	12%	8%	–	12%
   D	88,000	–	–	15,120	9%	16,800
   E	80,000	–	5%	–	8,400	11,240
   F	–	11,400	8,400	8%	–	13,720

   Notes:

   • (a) Monthly Income = Salary + Incentive.
   • (b) Incentive amounts to 15% of salary.
   • (c) All six friends save 40% of their monthly income.
   • (d) There is no expenditure other than those given in the table.
   1. A223,760
   2. B237,360
   3. C237,630
   4. D273,360

   Answer: (B) 237,360

   Explanation

   Compute the monthly income of each friend (Monthly Income = 1.15 × Salary):

   • A: ₹1,05,800
   • B: ₹96,000 + ₹14,400 = ₹1,10,400
   • C: ₹84,000 + ₹12,600 = ₹96,600
   • D: ₹88,000 + ₹13,200 = ₹1,01,200
   • E: ₹80,000 + ₹12,000 = ₹92,000
   • F: ₹76,000 + ₹11,400 = ₹87,400
     Total monthly income = 1,05,800 + 1,10,400 + 96,600 + 1,01,200 + 92,000 + 87,400 = ₹5,93,400.
     Since all friends save 40% of their monthly income, total savings = 40% of ₹5,93,400 = 0.40 × 5,93,400 = ₹2,37,360.

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4. Question 4

   The annual income of D is ₹ ______ less than that of A.

   The following table shows the monthly income and various expenditures of six friends A–F in absolute value or in percentage (in terms of monthly income) form. Some values (marked as "–") are missing in the table which you are expected to calculate if required. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions.

   Income and Expenditure Details

   Friend	Salary (₹)	Incentive (₹)	Travel	Food	Accommodation	Shopping
   A	92,000	–	–	10,960	10%	15%
   B	–	14,400	15,280	17,000	12,400	–
   C	–	12,600	12%	8%	–	12%
   D	88,000	–	–	15,120	9%	16,800
   E	80,000	–	5%	–	8,400	11,240
   F	–	11,400	8,400	8%	–	13,720

   Notes:

   • (a) Monthly Income = Salary + Incentive.
   • (b) Incentive amounts to 15% of salary.
   • (c) All six friends save 40% of their monthly income.
   • (d) There is no expenditure other than those given in the table.
   1. A4,600
   2. B52,200
   3. C55,200
   4. D4,900

   Answer: (C) 55,200

   Explanation

   Monthly income of A = ₹92,000 + 15% of ₹92,000 = ₹92,000 + ₹13,800 = ₹1,05,800.
   Monthly income of D = ₹88,000 + 15% of ₹88,000 = ₹88,000 + ₹13,200 = ₹1,01,200.
   Difference in monthly income = ₹1,05,800 − ₹1,01,200 = ₹4,600.
   The question asks for the annual income difference:
   Annual difference = ₹4,600 × 12 = ₹55,200. (Option A of ₹4,600 represents the monthly difference).

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5. Question 5

   Expenditure by A on Travelling constitutes approximately ______ % of the salary of F.

   The following table shows the monthly income and various expenditures of six friends A–F in absolute value or in percentage (in terms of monthly income) form. Some values (marked as "–") are missing in the table which you are expected to calculate if required. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions.

   Income and Expenditure Details

   Friend	Salary (₹)	Incentive (₹)	Travel	Food	Accommodation	Shopping
   A	92,000	–	–	10,960	10%	15%
   B	–	14,400	15,280	17,000	12,400	–
   C	–	12,600	12%	8%	–	12%
   D	88,000	–	–	15,120	9%	16,800
   E	80,000	–	5%	–	8,400	11,240
   F	–	11,400	8,400	8%	–	13,720

   Notes:

   • (a) Monthly Income = Salary + Incentive.
   • (b) Incentive amounts to 15% of salary.
   • (c) All six friends save 40% of their monthly income.
   • (d) There is no expenditure other than those given in the table.
   1. A30
   2. B38
   3. C32
   4. D34

   Answer: (D) 34

   Explanation

   Friend A has a monthly income of ₹1,05,800 and total expenditure (60%) of ₹63,480. Given Food = ₹10,960, Accommodation (10%) = ₹10,580, and Shopping (15%) = ₹15,870, Travelling expenditure for A = 63,480 − (10,960 + 10,580 + 15,870) = ₹26,070.
   For Friend F, incentive of ₹11,400 represents 15% of salary, so Salary of F = 11,400 / 0.15 = ₹76,000.
   Percentage = (26,070 / 76,000) × 100 ≈ 34.30%, which is approximately 34%.

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6. Question 6

   Which tool is used to create an online bulletin board where you can display information in the form of pictures, texts, videos, etc.?

   1. AQuizizz
   2. BPadlet
   3. CScreen Castify
   4. DWindows

   Answer: (B) Padlet

   Explanation

   Padlet is a web-based educational tool designed as an interactive virtual bulletin board where users can pin multimedia content including notes, text, images, videos, audio, and documents. In contrast, Quizizz is an interactive gamified assessment platform, Screencastify is a video screen recording tool, and Windows is a desktop operating system.

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7. Question 7

   Which of the following are the advantages of lecture-cum-demonstration method?

   A. Clear and Permanent Knowledge
   B. Helping the task of the teacher
   C. Helpful in mental development
   D. Economical method

   Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

   1. AB and D only
   2. BA, C and D only
   3. CA, B, C and D
   4. DB and C only

   Answer: (C) A, B, C and D

   Explanation

   The lecture-cum-demonstration method integrates verbal presentation with active visual demonstration by the instructor:

   • A (Clear and Permanent Knowledge): Combining auditory and visual channels produces deeper cognitive retention.
   • B (Helping the task of the teacher): Demonstrating concrete apparatus aids the teacher in conveying complex or abstract concepts effectively.
   • C (Helpful in mental development): Observational engagement stimulates scientific inquiry, logical reasoning, and active mental processing.
   • D (Economical method): A single set of demonstration equipment handled by the teacher saves laboratory costs, apparatus, and preparation time compared to individual student experiments.

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8. Question 8

   Which of the following are examples of Asynchronous communication?

   A. Blog
   B. Podcast
   C. Electronic Mail
   D. Discussion Forum
   E. Phone calls

   Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

   1. AB and E only
   2. BC, D and E only
   3. CA, C and D only
   4. DA, B, C and D only

   Answer: (D) A, B, C and D only

   Explanation

   Asynchronous communication does not require participants to be present at the same time; messages can be accessed, read, or consumed with a time lag:

   • Blogs (A), podcasts (B), emails (C), and discussion forums (D) are all asynchronous formats where content is posted or stored for retrieval at the recipient's convenience.
   • Phone calls (E) are synchronous, requiring immediate, real-time two-way dialogue between caller and receiver.

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9. Question 9

   Which of the following are the causes of plateau associated with learning curve?

   A. Lack of balance among various phases of a complex skill
   B. Shifting of attention from one phase of performance to another
   C. Fatigue and boredom
   D. Positive interest and incentive

   Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

   1. AA, B and C only
   2. BA and D only
   3. CB, C and D
   4. DA, B, C and D only

   Answer: (A) A, B and C only

   Explanation

   A plateau in a learning curve represents a temporary period of stagnation where performance does not improve. Major causes include physical/mental fatigue or boredom (C), uneven mastery across coordinated sub-skills (A), and shifts in attention or changing habits during performance (B). In contrast, positive interest and incentives (D) promote motivation and skill acquisition, preventing or breaking plateaus rather than causing them.

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10. Question 10

    Which of the following is the best method of teaching?

    1. ATo impart knowledge to students
    2. BTo ask students to self-learn from books.
    3. CTo start a discussion and encourage students to participate in it.
    4. DTo ask students to go to the library.

    Answer: (C) To start a discussion and encourage students to participate in it.

    Explanation

    In modern pedagogy, active and participatory teaching methods produce the highest learning outcomes. Initiating structured discussions and encouraging active student participation fosters critical analysis, collaborative reflection, problem-solving, and communication skills, surpassing passive lecturing (imparting knowledge) or unassisted independent study.

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11. Question 11

    A prediction of relationships involving theoretical constructs is known as:

    1. AOperational hypothesis
    2. BGeneral hypothesis
    3. CNon-directional hypothesis
    4. DConceptual hypothesis

    Answer: (D) Conceptual hypothesis

    Explanation

    A conceptual hypothesis formulates the expected relationship between abstract theoretical constructs prior to empirical measurement. When those constructs are translated into concrete, measurable indicators and testable procedures, it is formulated as an operational hypothesis.

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12. Question 12

    The post-test only control group design avoids:

    1. ANon-cooperative participants
    2. BSensitization of participants
    3. CGroup comparison
    4. DExperimental treatment

    Answer: (B) Sensitization of participants

    Explanation

    In true experimental designs, administering a pre-test can sensitize participants to the research objectives or test items (pre-test sensitization or testing threat to internal validity). By relying on random assignment to equate groups and administering only a post-test, the post-test only control group design completely eliminates pre-test sensitization.

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13. Question 13

    Questions constructed in such a manner that suggest an expected answer are identified as:

    1. AMain questions
    2. BMeta questions
    3. CLeading questions
    4. DSuggestive questions

    Answer: (C) Leading questions

    Explanation

    In survey methodology and research questionnaire design, a leading question is one phrased in a way that guides, prompts, or influences the respondent toward a particular desired or expected answer, compromising measurement objectivity.

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14. Question 14

    Which of the following are ethical principles in research?

    A. Respect for participants
    B. Informed consent
    C. Justice for participants
    D. Voluntary deception
    E. Coercive consent

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C only
    2. BB, C, D only
    3. CC, D, E only
    4. DA, D, E only

    Answer: (A) A, B, C only

    Explanation

    Established research ethics guidelines (such as the Belmont Report) highlight respect for persons/participants (A), informed consent (B), and justice/fairness (C) as core ethical pillars. Deception (D) is an ethical concern requiring debriefing and strict minimization rather than an ethical principle, while coercive consent (E) directly violates the voluntary mandate of informed consent.

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15. Question 15

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: In case a research study leads to generation of more research, then we will say it contains heuristic value.
    Statement II: The discussion section does not allow freedom and flexibility in writing to the researcher.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct.
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

    Explanation

    Statement I is correct because the heuristic value of a study refers directly to its potential to stimulate new questions, spark intellectual curiosity, and motivate further investigation. Statement II is incorrect because the discussion section specifically allows researchers the flexibility to interpret findings, contextualize results within broader literature, hypothesize mechanisms, acknowledge limitations, and recommend future inquiry.

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16. Question 16

    An individual's culture is affected due to:

    1. APublic order
    2. BPublic space
    3. CPrivate interests
    4. DEffective interaction

    Answer: (D) Effective interaction

    Explanation

    Culture is communicative and dynamic; it is acquired and modified through social engagement. Effective interaction—active, meaningful communication with others across diverse social and intercultural contexts—shapes and transforms cultural knowledge, norms, and perspectives.

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17. Question 17

    According to the behavioural model, the communication approach is considered as:

    1. AContrived
    2. BNatural
    3. CReward-punishment based
    4. DInnate

    Answer: (C) Reward-punishment based

    Explanation

    Rooted in behavioral psychology and operant conditioning (e.g. B.F. Skinner), the behavioural model treats communication as learned behavior reinforced or modified by external consequences—specifically reward (positive reinforcement) and punishment (negative feedback).

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18. Question 18

    Which of the following are the characteristics of moderate approach to inter-cultural communication?

    A. Inter-cultural communication is unidisciplinary.
    B. A communicator is a change agent.
    C. A continuum is the representative of social change.
    D. Change is a response to both inside and outside stimuli.
    E. Culture and communication have limited linkages.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, C only
    2. BB, C, D only
    3. CC, D, E only
    4. DA, B, E only

    Answer: (B) B, C, D only

    Explanation

    In the moderate approach to intercultural communication, communicators act as conscious change agents (B), social development is conceived as an ongoing continuum rather than abrupt changes (C), and adaptive change is stimulated by both internal reflection and external influences (D). Intercultural communication is inherently interdisciplinary (making A false) and recognizes deep, inseparable linkages between culture and communication (making E false).

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19. Question 19

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: In mass communication, the news content includes social values also.
    Statement II: News also contains ideology that changes according to times.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct.
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

    Explanation

    Statement I is correct because mass media narratives construct, circulate, and reinforce prevailing cultural and social values. Statement II is correct because news production is embedded within ideological frameworks (political, economic, and cultural) that evolve over historical periods and shifting societal contexts.

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20. Question 20

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Bharatha Muni prescribed popular dialects for communication among the elites.
    Statement II: Bharatha Muni also prescribed classical languages for common people for effective communication.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct.
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

    Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

    Explanation

    In the Natyashastra, Bharata Muni assigned Sanskrit (the classical language) to high-status characters including kings, sages, and scholars, while assigning Prakrits (regional/popular dialects) to commoners, women, and lower-status figures. Both statements reverse this assignment and are therefore incorrect.

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21. Question 21

    What number would replace question mark (?) in the series given below?

    1, 4, 11, 26, 57, 120, 247, ?

    1. A424
    2. B367
    3. C255
    4. D502

    Answer: (D) 502

    Explanation

    Analyze the differences between successive terms:

    • 4 − 1 = 3 = 2² − 1
    • 11 − 4 = 7 = 2³ − 1
    • 26 − 11 = 15 = 2⁴ − 1
    • 57 − 26 = 31 = 2⁵ − 1
    • 120 − 57 = 63 = 2⁶ − 1
    • 247 − 120 = 127 = 2⁷ − 1
      The differences follow the pattern 2ⁿ − 1. The next difference is 2⁸ − 1 = 255.
      Next term = 247 + 255 = 502.
      (Alternatively, term(n+1) = 2 × term(n) + n: 247 × 2 + 8 = 494 + 8 = 502).

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22. Question 22

    A man walks 40 meters towards south. Then turning to his right he walks 40 meters again. Then he turns to his left and walks 20 meters. He again turns to his left and walks 40 meters. How far is the man now from his starting point?

    1. A60 meters
    2. B40 meters
    3. C100 meters
    4. D80 meters

    Answer: (A) 60 meters

    Explanation

    Let the starting point be (0, 0) with North along +y and East along +x:

    1. 40 m south: reaches (0, −40), facing South.
    2. Turn right (West) and walk 40 m: reaches (−40, −40), facing West.
    3. Turn left (South) and walk 20 m: reaches (−40, −60), facing South.
    4. Turn left (East) and walk 40 m: reaches (−40 + 40, −60) = (0, −60).
       The final distance from the origin (0, 0) is 60 meters.

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23. Question 23

    A person spends 20% of his money for clothes. 10% of the money is spent on books, 9% for purchasing gifts for family and friends and 7% on some other items. At the end he is left with ₹5,400. How much money was there with the person initially?

    1. A₹8,000
    2. B₹9,000
    3. C₹12,000
    4. D₹10,000

    Answer: (D) ₹10,000

    Explanation

    Total percentage spent = 20% + 10% + 9% + 7% = 46%.
    Remaining percentage = 100% − 46% = 54%.
    Let the initial amount be P:
    0.54 × P = 5,400
    P = 5,400 / 0.54 = ₹10,000.

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24. Question 24

    If the length and breadth of a rectangular plot are increased by 25% and 40% respectively, then the new area of the plot shall be how many times the original area?

    1. A7/5
    2. B7/4
    3. C5/9
    4. D9/5

    Answer: (B) 7/4

    Explanation

    Let original dimensions be length L and breadth B, with area A₁ = L × B.
    New length L' = 1.25 L = (5/4) L.
    New breadth B' = 1.40 B = (7/5) B.
    New area A₂ = L' × B' = (5/4 L) × (7/5 B) = (35/20) (L × B) = (7/4) A₁.
    Thus, the new area is 7/4 times the original area.

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25. Question 25

    Introducing a boy, a girl said, “He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle”. How is the boy related to the girl?

    1. AUncle
    2. BNephew
    3. CCousin
    4. DBrother-in-law

    Answer: (C) Cousin

    Explanation

    Analyzing the relationship step by step:

    1. "Father of my uncle" is the girl's grandfather.
    2. "Daughter of the father of my uncle" is the daughter of her grandfather, which corresponds to the girl's aunt (or mother).
    3. "The son of the daughter" is therefore the son of her aunt, making the boy her cousin (or her brother, if the mother is considered, but brother is not an option).
       Therefore, the boy is her cousin.

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26. Question 26

    “If I were a heavy smoker, smoking would shorten my life. That’s why I do not smoke. And I expect to live a long and healthy life.” Which fallacy is committed in the above argument?

    1. AExistential fallacy
    2. BUndistributed middle
    3. CAffirming the consequent
    4. DDenying the antecedent

    Answer: (D) Denying the antecedent

    Explanation

    The argument follows the invalid conditional form:

    • Major premise: If P (heavy smoker), then Q (shortened life).
    • Minor premise: Not P (I do not smoke).
    • Conclusion: Therefore, Not Q (my life will not be shortened / I will live long).
      This is the formal fallacy of denying the antecedent (fallacy of the inverse). Denying the antecedent does not guarantee that the consequent will not happen, because life can be shortened by numerous other factors (such as illness, genetics, or accidents).

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27. Question 27

    Identify the fallacy committed in the following argument: “My opponent cheated on his taxes. He hired an illegal migrant as a nanny. His views on tax reforms simply cannot be trusted”.

    1. AInappropriate authority
    2. BAd hominem
    3. CAppeal to ignorance
    4. DBegging the question

    Answer: (B) Ad hominem

    Explanation

    The argument attacks the opponent's personal character and conduct (cheating on taxes, hiring an illegal migrant) instead of engaging with the substantive merit, logic, or empirical evidence of his proposed tax reforms. Attacking the person making an argument rather than the argument itself constitutes an Argumentum ad Hominem (personal attack).

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28. Question 28

    Which of the following statements is logically equivalent to the statement “All tigers are hunting animals”?

    1. ASome hunting animals are tigers.
    2. BNo tigers are non-hunting animals.
    3. CNo hunting animals are tigers.
    4. DSome hunting animals are not tigers.

    Answer: (B) No tigers are non-hunting animals.

    Explanation

    In categorical logic, the obversion of a Universal Affirmative (A proposition: "All S are P") changes the quality from affirmative to negative and replaces the predicate term with its complement (non-P), producing an equivalent Universal Negative (E proposition: "No S are non-P").
    Applying obversion to "All tigers are hunting animals" yields "No tigers are non-hunting animals", which is strictly logically equivalent.

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29. Question 29

    Which of the following statements are contradictory to each other?

    A. All human beings are mortal.
    B. No human beings are mortal.
    C. Some human beings are mortal.
    D. Some human beings are not mortal.

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (B) B and C only

    Explanation

    On the classical Square of Opposition, contradictory propositions are opposite in both quantity and quality and cannot both be true nor both be false simultaneously:

    • Universal Affirmative (A) is contradictory to Particular Negative (O): Statements A and D.
    • Universal Negative (E) is contradictory to Particular Affirmative (I): Statements B ("No human beings are mortal") and C ("Some human beings are mortal").
      Among the given options, "B and C only" correctly identifies a contradictory pair.

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30. Question 30

    According to Classical Indian school of logic, knowledge derived from comparison and which roughly corresponds to analogy is:

    1. AArthapatti
    2. BAnumana
    3. CUpamana
    4. DAnupalabdhi

    Answer: (C) Upamana

    Explanation

    In Nyaya and classical Indian epistemology, Upamana is the valid source of knowledge (pramana) derived from comparison and similarity, analogous to reasoning by analogy. It establishes the relationship between a name and the object denoted through recognized likeness (e.g., recognizing a wild gavaya by knowing it resembles a domestic cow). Arthapatti is postulation, Anumana is inference, and Anupalabdhi is non-apprehension.

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31. Question 31

    The hardware address of a computer network device consists of 48 bits. Which of the following is a valid address in hexadecimal numbers?

    1. A00E0071944A0
    2. B0A23B5
    3. C1E07FG124372
    4. D398A7E9412110408

    Answer: (A) 00E0071944A0

    Explanation

    A standard hardware MAC address has 48 bits. Since each hexadecimal digit represents 4 bits (a nibble), a 48-bit address consists of 48 / 4 = 12 hexadecimal characters (digits 0–9 and letters A–F):

    • Option A (00E0071944A0) contains exactly 12 valid hexadecimal characters (48 bits).
    • Option B contains only 6 hex characters (24 bits).
    • Option C contains 'G', which is not a valid hexadecimal numeral (valid characters are 0–9, A–F).
    • Option D contains 16 hex characters (64 bits, corresponding to EUI-64).

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32. Question 32

    The computer uses a bootstrap. Which of the following shows the part of a computer of which the bootstrap is an example?

    1. AApplication software
    2. BFirmware
    3. CHard disk drive
    4. DIP address

    Answer: (B) Firmware

    Explanation

    A bootstrap loader is low-level system code stored permanently in non-volatile read-only memory (ROM/flash memory chips, such as BIOS or UEFI) on the motherboard. Because it is software permanently embedded into hardware to execute initialization and load the operating system upon startup, it is classified as firmware.

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33. Question 33

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: One always uses CD-ROMs to save data.
    Statement II: A computer has 2048 MB of RAM. That means the computer has 1.2 GB of RAM.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true.
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false.
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false.
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true.

    Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

    Explanation

    Statement I is false because CD-ROM stands for Compact Disc Read-Only Memory; data is permanently stamped during manufacture and users cannot write or save new data to it (data saving is performed on HDDs, SSDs, flash drives, or rewritable optical media). Statement II is false because in binary computing 1 GB = 1024 MB; therefore, 2048 MB = 2048 / 1024 = 2 GB of RAM, not 1.2 GB.

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34. Question 34

    Which file formats are used to store music files?

    A. bmp
    B. wav
    C. mp3
    D. htm
    E. wma

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and D only
    2. BA, D and E only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DB, C and E only

    Answer: (D) B, C and E only

    Explanation

    Audio/music file formats include WAV (Waveform Audio File Format), MP3 (MPEG-1 Audio Layer III), and WMA (Windows Media Audio). In contrast, BMP is a bitmap raster image format and HTM/HTML is a hypertext document format for web pages. Therefore, B, C, and E are the audio formats.

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35. Question 35

    Match List I with List II

    List I (Internet Term)	List II (Description)
    A. Spyware	I. Malicious software installed on a user's hard drive or a web server; the software re-directs the user to a fake website without their consent or knowledge.
    B. Phishing	II. Websites designed to promote the building of online communities who share the same interest; usually free of charge; users can add friends, post messages to each other and update personal profiles.
    C. Social networking sites	III. Legitimate-looking email sent to a user in the hope of gathering personal information; as soon as the recipient clicks on the link in email (or email attachment) they are sent to a fake website.
    D. Pharming	IV. Software that secretly gathers information by monitoring key presses on a user's keyboard; this information is relayed back to the person who sent the software originally.

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
    3. CA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    4. DA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    Answer: (D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    Matching internet security terms with their descriptions:

    • A (Spyware): Software monitoring keystrokes (keylogger) to secretly gather information relayed to the attacker (IV).
    • B (Phishing): Deceptive emails mimicking legitimate institutions with links directing victims to fraudulent credential-harvesting sites (III).
    • C (Social networking sites): Platforms designed to connect online communities, share updates, add friends, and maintain profiles (II).
    • D (Pharming): Malware that corrupts local DNS or system host settings to automatically redirect user web traffic to a bogus website without consent (I).
      This gives the correct pairing A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I.

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36. Question 36

    Solar ponds store solar thermal energy by:

    1. APhotovoltaic cells
    2. BCreating salt gradient
    3. CUsing solar thermal collectors
    4. DCovering major portion of pond by plastic sheets

    Answer: (B) Creating salt gradient

    Explanation

    A salinity-gradient solar pond collects and stores thermal energy by establishing distinct salt concentration layers (halocline). The bottom storage zone is heavily salinated and dense, while the surface layer has low salinity. Because the high density prevents heated bottom water from rising via natural thermal convection, heat remains trapped in the bottom brine layer at temperatures up to 80–90°C.

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37. Question 37

    Which of the following are responsible for formation and destruction of ozone (O₃) in upper atmosphere?

    A. Solar radiation
    B. Oxides of nitrogen (NOₓ)
    C. Black carbon
    D. Chlorine (Cl)
    E. Ammonia (NH₃)

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and D only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DA, C and E only

    Answer: (A) A, B and D only

    Explanation

    In the stratosphere (upper atmosphere):

    • Solar UV radiation (A) photolytically cleaves oxygen molecules into free oxygen atoms to create ozone, and also photolyzes ozone in the natural Chapman cycle.
    • Nitrogen oxides (NOx) (B) act as catalytic destroyers of stratospheric ozone.
    • Chlorine radicals (Cl) (D), liberated from halogenated hydrocarbons like CFCs, are primary catalytic destroyers of ozone.
      In contrast, black carbon (C) and ammonia (E) are tropospheric pollutants with no significant role in stratospheric ozone photochemistry.

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38. Question 38

    Which of the following are primary aerosols in atmosphere?

    A. Sea salt
    B. Black carbon
    C. Sulphate
    D. Nitrate
    E. Mineral particles

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CA, B and E only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (C) A, B and E only

    Explanation

    Primary aerosols are particles emitted directly into the atmosphere from natural or anthropogenic sources:

    • Sea salt (A) from oceanic wave action and sea spray.
    • Black carbon (B) from incomplete combustion of fossil fuels and biomass.
    • Mineral particles/dust (E) from soil erosion and wind lofting.
      In contrast, sulphate (C) and nitrate (D) aerosols are secondary aerosols formed in the atmosphere through chemical gas-to-particle oxidation processes (from SO₂ and NOx precursor gases).

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39. Question 39

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Dose-response assessment is the process of determining whether or not a particular chemical is causally linked to a particular health effect.
    Statement II: Hazard identification is the process of characterizing the relationship between the dose of a toxic agent received and the incidence of an adverse health effect.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct.
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
    4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

    Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

    Explanation

    In environmental risk assessment (the NRC/EPA framework):

    • Hazard identification is the qualitative process of determining whether exposure to a chemical agent is causally linked to a specific adverse health outcome (falsely labeled as dose-response in Statement I).
    • Dose-response assessment is the quantitative process of characterizing the mathematical relationship between the dose of a toxic agent administered/received and the incidence or severity of an adverse health effect (falsely labeled as hazard identification in Statement II).
      Because both statements interchange the definitions, both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

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40. Question 40

    Lower level of Dissolved Oxygen (DO) in water:

    A. is bad for human consumption.
    B. may have been caused due to presence of oxygen demanding wastes.
    C. threatens the fish and aquatic life.
    D. cannot be used for irrigation purposes.
    E. may cause undesirable taste and odour.

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, B and D only
    3. CB, C and E only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (C) B, C and E only

    Explanation

    Lower levels of dissolved oxygen (DO) in water bodies occur when organic oxygen-demanding wastes (measured by BOD) undergo aerobic microbial decomposition (B). Depleted oxygen causes aquatic hypoxia, directly threatening fish and aerobic aquatic organisms (C). Furthermore, severe oxygen depletion triggers anaerobic decomposition, producing septic compounds such as hydrogen sulfide and organic acids that impart foul, undesirable taste and odour (E). Crop irrigation does not depend on dissolved oxygen (making D incorrect), and low DO itself does not cause direct human toxicity (making A incorrect).

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41. Question 41

    The policy of privatization of higher education began during:

    1. AThe first five year plan
    2. BThe third five year plan
    3. CThe sixth five year plan
    4. DThe eighth five year plan

    Answer: (D) The eighth five year plan

    Explanation

    The formal policy encouragement of privatization in higher education gained major momentum during the Eighth Five Year Plan (1992–1997), following the 1991 Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG) economic reforms. The plan emphasized private sector participation, self-financing institutions, and cost-recovery mechanisms to expand higher education capacity amid public fiscal constraints.

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42. Question 42

    Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was associated with the efforts in establishing:

    1. AMilind College
    2. BAurangabad college
    3. CMaha Bodhi college
    4. DNagpur college

    Answer: (A) Milind College

    Explanation

    Dr. B.R. Ambedkar founded the People's Education Society in 1945 to promote higher education among socially and economically disadvantaged communities. Under its aegis, he established Milind Mahavidyalaya (Milind College) in Aurangabad, inaugurated in 1950 on campus grounds named Nagsen Vana, playing a transformative role in regional educational empowerment.

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43. Question 43

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: Constitution allows both central government and state governments to enact laws for the higher education system in India.
    Statement II: More than 75% of colleges in the field of higher education are in private sector (government aided and unaided).

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true.
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false.
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false.
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true.

    Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

    Explanation

    Statement I is true because the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 placed education in the Concurrent List (Entry 25, List III of the Seventh Schedule), authorizing both Parliament and State Legislatures to legislate on higher education (subject to Entry 66 of the Union List for coordination of standards). Statement II is true because national reports such as the All India Survey on Higher Education (AISHE) consistently show that private colleges (private-unaided at ~65% and private-aided at ~13%) account for over 78% of all higher education colleges in India.

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44. Question 44

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative thinking abilities among students.
    Statement II: Deemed Universities can design their own syllabus and course work but cannot grant degrees.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true.
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false.
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false.
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true.

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

    Explanation

    Statement I is true because higher education is designed to foster intellectual autonomy, critical inquiry, and creative problem-solving. Statement II is false because institutions recognized as "Deemed to be Universities" under Section 3 of the UGC Act, 1956 enjoy full academic autonomy, which explicitly includes the power to award and confer degrees in their own name under Section 22 of the UGC Act.

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45. Question 45

    Given below are two statements:

    Statement I: The All India Council of Technical Education (AICTE) was established in 1956 in order to ensure planned and coordinated development of technical education in India.
    Statement II: Technical Education was defined as programmes of education in engineering, technology, architecture, town planning, management, pharmacy and applied arts and crafts.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true.
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false.
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false.
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true.

    Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

    Explanation

    Statement I is false because AICTE was established as a national advisory body in November 1945 (and conferred statutory status by an Act of Parliament in 1987), whereas 1956 is the year the University Grants Commission (UGC) was established by an Act of Parliament. Statement II is true because Section 2(g) of the AICTE Act defines technical education as programmes of education, research and training in engineering, technology, architecture, town planning, management, pharmacy, and applied arts and crafts.

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46. Question 46

    Statement I: News publishers have better information about their users as compared to social media platforms.
    Statement II: Social media platforms are generally very particular in presenting correct information to the citizens.

    Choose the correct answer:

    Read the following passage and answer the questions:

    Social media platforms have significant advantage over news publishers because of their size and superior information about users. Driven by the need to generate the maximum possible returns for investors, they do not shy away from leveraging this advantage when negotiating commercial agreements.

    While news publishers in many countries come together as a consortium to further their collective interests, the rivalry among news publishers prevents them from presenting a united front to bargain for their collective interests. As a result, in individual negotiations with social media platforms, the revenue share, if they ever get any, is trivial compared to the total money made by social media platforms.

    Local news publishers, often very small, suffer disproportionately, to the extent that many have gone bankrupt in the last few years. Those who have survived have become more content-producing vendors. They exist to feed the social media monster, which decides which article will appear in which readers' feed to maximize advertising revenues. Journalistic responsibility to provide citizens with the information they need to make important decisions about their lives, communities and governments is seldom a consideration.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true.
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false.
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false.
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true.

    Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

    Explanation

    According to the passage, social media platforms possess superior information and massive scale compared to news publishers (making Statement I false). Furthermore, the passage states that journalistic responsibility to provide citizens with reliable information is "seldom a consideration" for platforms, which prioritize algorithmic engagement to maximize advertising revenues (making Statement II false). Thus, both statements are false.

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47. Question 47

    Identify the correct statements:

    A. Social media platforms have impacted the local news publishers adversely.
    B. Social media platforms make much more money as compared to individual news publishers.
    C. News publishers are better placed than social media platforms because of their size and information they have about the users.

    Choose the correct answer:

    Read the following passage and answer the questions:

    Social media platforms have significant advantage over news publishers because of their size and superior information about users. Driven by the need to generate the maximum possible returns for investors, they do not shy away from leveraging this advantage when negotiating commercial agreements.

    While news publishers in many countries come together as a consortium to further their collective interests, the rivalry among news publishers prevents them from presenting a united front to bargain for their collective interests. As a result, in individual negotiations with social media platforms, the revenue share, if they ever get any, is trivial compared to the total money made by social media platforms.

    Local news publishers, often very small, suffer disproportionately, to the extent that many have gone bankrupt in the last few years. Those who have survived have become more content-producing vendors. They exist to feed the social media monster, which decides which article will appear in which readers' feed to maximize advertising revenues. Journalistic responsibility to provide citizens with the information they need to make important decisions about their lives, communities and governments is seldom a consideration.

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA and C only
    4. DA, B and C

    Answer: (A) A and B only

    Explanation

    The passage notes that local news publishers suffer disproportionately and many have gone bankrupt, demonstrating adverse impact (A). It also notes that news publishers receive trivial revenue shares compared to the immense profits generated by social media giants (B). Statement C is false because the passage explicitly highlights that social media platforms—not publishers—hold the structural advantage in size and user data. Therefore, only A and B are correct.

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48. Question 48

    Correct information is needed by the citizens to make important decisions about their

    A. communities
    B. lives
    C. governments
    D. newspaper vendors

    Choose the correct answer:

    Read the following passage and answer the questions:

    Social media platforms have significant advantage over news publishers because of their size and superior information about users. Driven by the need to generate the maximum possible returns for investors, they do not shy away from leveraging this advantage when negotiating commercial agreements.

    While news publishers in many countries come together as a consortium to further their collective interests, the rivalry among news publishers prevents them from presenting a united front to bargain for their collective interests. As a result, in individual negotiations with social media platforms, the revenue share, if they ever get any, is trivial compared to the total money made by social media platforms.

    Local news publishers, often very small, suffer disproportionately, to the extent that many have gone bankrupt in the last few years. Those who have survived have become more content-producing vendors. They exist to feed the social media monster, which decides which article will appear in which readers' feed to maximize advertising revenues. Journalistic responsibility to provide citizens with the information they need to make important decisions about their lives, communities and governments is seldom a consideration.

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DA, B, C and D

    Answer: (A) A, B and C only

    Explanation

    The concluding sentence of the passage states: "Journalistic responsibility to provide citizens with the information they need to make important decisions about their lives, communities and governments is seldom a consideration." Newspaper vendors (D) are described as the passive status surviving publishers are reduced to, not something citizens make civic decisions about. Thus, A, B, and C only is correct.

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49. Question 49

    Statement I: There is rivalry among news publishers.
    Statement II: Many social media platforms have gone bankrupt.

    Choose the correct answer:

    Read the following passage and answer the questions:

    Social media platforms have significant advantage over news publishers because of their size and superior information about users. Driven by the need to generate the maximum possible returns for investors, they do not shy away from leveraging this advantage when negotiating commercial agreements.

    While news publishers in many countries come together as a consortium to further their collective interests, the rivalry among news publishers prevents them from presenting a united front to bargain for their collective interests. As a result, in individual negotiations with social media platforms, the revenue share, if they ever get any, is trivial compared to the total money made by social media platforms.

    Local news publishers, often very small, suffer disproportionately, to the extent that many have gone bankrupt in the last few years. Those who have survived have become more content-producing vendors. They exist to feed the social media monster, which decides which article will appear in which readers' feed to maximize advertising revenues. Journalistic responsibility to provide citizens with the information they need to make important decisions about their lives, communities and governments is seldom a consideration.

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true.
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false.
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false.
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true.

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

    Explanation

    Statement I is true because the passage observes that "rivalry among news publishers prevents them from presenting a united front to bargain for their collective interests." Statement II is false because the passage explicitly states that "many [local news publishers] have gone bankrupt in the last few years", not social media platforms. Thus, Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

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50. Question 50

    Assertion (A): Social media platforms are able to control the type of content that will appear in a reader's feed.
    Reason (R): They do so because they are quite concerned about individual likes and dislikes of users.

    Choose the most appropriate answer:

    Read the following passage and answer the questions:

    Social media platforms have significant advantage over news publishers because of their size and superior information about users. Driven by the need to generate the maximum possible returns for investors, they do not shy away from leveraging this advantage when negotiating commercial agreements.

    While news publishers in many countries come together as a consortium to further their collective interests, the rivalry among news publishers prevents them from presenting a united front to bargain for their collective interests. As a result, in individual negotiations with social media platforms, the revenue share, if they ever get any, is trivial compared to the total money made by social media platforms.

    Local news publishers, often very small, suffer disproportionately, to the extent that many have gone bankrupt in the last few years. Those who have survived have become more content-producing vendors. They exist to feed the social media monster, which decides which article will appear in which readers' feed to maximize advertising revenues. Journalistic responsibility to provide citizens with the information they need to make important decisions about their lives, communities and governments is seldom a consideration.

    1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
    2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    3. CA is correct but R is not correct.
    4. DA is not correct but R is correct.

    Answer: (C) A is correct but R is not correct.

    Explanation

    Assertion (A) is correct because the passage affirms that the platform algorithm "decides which article will appear in which readers' feed." Reason (R) is not correct because the passage reveals their true governing motive: they control feeds "to maximize advertising revenues" for investors, rather than out of altruistic concern for user preferences or civic needs. Therefore, A is correct but R is not correct.

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100 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   The negation of "Some students like hockey" is:

   1. ASome students dislike hockey
   2. BEvery student dislike hockey
   3. CEvery student like hockey
   4. DAll students like hockey

   Answer: (B) Every student dislike hockey

   Explanation

   "Some students like hockey" is an existential statement — at least one student likes hockey.

   The negation of an existential statement is a universal statement that denies the property for every member, so the negation is "every student dislikes hockey."

   • A. Some students dislike hockey — this can be true at the same time as the original statement, so it is not a negation.
   • B. Every student dislike hockey — correct. This is the universal denial, the logical negation of "some student likes hockey."
   • C. Every student like hockey — this is a stronger positive claim, not a denial.
   • D. All students like hockey — same as C, still a positive universal claim, not a negation.

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2. Question 2

   A relation 'R' is defined on ordered pairs of integers as (x, y) R (u, v) if x < u and y > v. Then R is

   1. ANeither a partial order nor an equivalence relation
   2. BA partial order but not a total order
   3. CA total order
   4. DAn equivalence relation

   Answer: (A) Neither a partial order nor an equivalence relation

   Explanation

   Both a partial order and an equivalence relation require reflexivity, so check that first.

   For (x, y) R (x, y) to hold, the definition needs x < x, which is false for every integer x. R is not reflexive, so it cannot be a partial order and it cannot be an equivalence relation.

   R is transitive, since (x,y) R (u,v) and (u,v) R (a,b) give x < u < a and y > v > b, so x < a and y > b — but transitivity alone does not rescue reflexivity.

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3. Question 3

   Suppose you are married and you and your partner attend a party with three other married couples. Several handshakes took place. No one shook hands with himself (or herself) or with their partner, and no one shook hands with the same person more than once. After all hand shaking was completed, suppose you asked each person, including your partner, how many hands they had shaken. Each person gave a different answer. How many hands did your spouse shake?

   1. A1
   2. B2
   3. C3
   4. D4

   Answer: (C) 3

   Explanation

   Eight people attend (four couples), and each person can shake at most 6 hands (everyone except themselves and their partner).

   Seven people besides you gave answers, and all seven answers were different. Since a person's handshake count can only be one of 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, or 6 — exactly seven possible values — those seven people must have shaken 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 hands, one count each.

   Pair up the extremes: the person who shook 6 hands shook hands with everyone except their own partner, so their partner is the one who shook 0 hands. Repeating this pairing (6↔0, 5↔1, 4↔2) forces the person who shook 3 hands to be paired with the only person left without a fixed partner in the sequence — you. Since you did not report your own count, your spouse must be the person left holding the middle value, 3, which is why the puzzle's answer is always 3 for the asker's spouse.

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4. Question 4

   Consider the following conditional code, which returns a Boolean value:

   if ((x > 25) && (y > 100))
       return 'false';
   else if ((x <= 25) && (y <= 100))
       return 'true';
   else if ((x > 25) && (y <= 100))
       return 'false';
   else
       return 'true';
   

   Simplify it by filling in the following blank with a single Boolean expression without changing the behaviour of the conditional code:

   if (------)
       return 'true';
   else
       return 'false';
   

   1. Ax > 25
   2. Bx <= 25
   3. Cy > 100
   4. Dy <= 100

   Answer: (B) x <= 25

   Explanation

   List which combinations of x and y return true in the original code.

   The original returns true for (x<=25 && y<=100) and for the implicit else case (x<=25 && y>100). Both true-returning cases share x<=25, and y does not matter in either.

   The two false-returning cases both require x>25, again regardless of y.

   So the function's output depends only on x — it returns true exactly when x<=25, which is the single condition option B gives.

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5. Question 5

   Which one of the following types of memory is fastest?

   1. ACache Memory
   2. BRegister Memory
   3. CMain Memory
   4. DSecondary Memory

   Answer: (B) Register Memory

   Explanation

   The memory hierarchy ranks speed as registers, then cache, then main memory, then secondary storage, from fastest to slowest.

   Registers sit inside the CPU itself, with zero bus latency, so they are accessed in a single clock cycle and are faster than cache, which still has to be reached over an on-chip interconnect.

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6. Question 6

   The memory size for n address lines and m data lines is given by

   1. A2^m x n
   2. Bm x n^2
   3. C2^n x m
   4. Dn x m^2

   Answer: (C) 2^n x m

   Explanation

   n address lines can select 2^n distinct memory locations, and each data line contributes one bit width per location.

   Memory size = 2^n locations × m bits per location, which is 2^n x m.

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7. Question 7

   Simplify the following using K-Map, where F(A,B,C,D)=Σ(0, 2, 5, 7, 8, 10, 13, 15)

   1. ABD + B'D'
   2. BAC + A'C'
   3. CBC + B'C'
   4. DAD + A'D'

   Answer: (A) BD + B'D'

   Explanation

   Group the minterms by their B and D bits, because those two variables stay constant within each group regardless of A and C.

   Minterms 0, 2, 8, 10 (binary 0000, 0010, 1000, 1010) all have B=0 and D=0, giving the term B'D'.

   Minterms 5, 7, 13, 15 (binary 0101, 0111, 1101, 1111) all have B=1 and D=1, giving the term BD.

   So the simplified expression is F = BD + B'D'.

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8. Question 8

   Consider an unpipelined machine with 10 nsec clock cycles which uses four cycles for ALU operations and branches where as five cycles for memory operation. Assume that the relative frequencies of these operations are: 40%, 20% and 40%, respectively. Due to clock skew and setup pipeline let us consider that the machine adds one nsec overhead to the clock. How much speedup is observed in the instruction execution rate when a pipelined machine is considered.

   1. A2 times
   2. B4 times
   3. C6 times
   4. D8 times

   Answer: (B) 4 times

   Explanation

   Find the unpipelined execution time per instruction first.

   Average cycles per instruction = 0.40(4) + 0.20(4) + 0.40(5) = 1.6 + 0.8 + 2.0 = 4.4 cycles

   Unpipelined time per instruction = 4.4 × 10 ns = 44 ns

   The pipelined machine issues one instruction per cycle (CPI = 1), but its cycle time grows by the 1 ns overhead, giving a cycle time of 11 ns and a per-instruction time of 11 ns.

   Speedup = 44 ns / 11 ns = 4 times.

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9. Question 9

   Machine Level Language is a/an

   1. AAssembly Language
   2. BLow Level Language
   3. CHigh level Language
   4. DTranslating Language

   Answer: (B) Low Level Language

   Explanation

   Machine language and assembly language are two distinct members of the same family — low level languages — with machine language being pure binary opcodes and assembly language being its symbolic mnemonic form.

   Since machine language is not itself assembly language, the accurate general classification is that it is a low level language.

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10. Question 10

    Which of the following is wrong about the data types?

    1. AThe number is always positive when qualifier 'unsigned' is used.
    2. BThe number can be positive or negative when the qualifier 'signed' is used
    3. CThe range of values for signed data types is more than that of unsigned data types
    4. DThe left most bit in unsigned data type is used to represent the value

    Answer: (C) The range of values for signed data types is more than that of unsigned data types

    Explanation

    Compare how many distinct values an n-bit signed and unsigned type can hold.

    An n-bit unsigned type covers 0 to 2^n − 1, a span of 2^n distinct values.

    An n-bit signed type covers −2^(n−1) to 2^(n−1) − 1, also 2^n distinct values, just shifted to include negatives.

    Both ranges hold exactly the same count of values, so the claim that signed has a larger range than unsigned is false — the other three statements about sign bits and magnitude bits are accurate.

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11. Question 11

    If a constructor 'Date' is declared explicitly and has to be defined outside the class, which of the following is correct?

    1. ADate::Date(int dd) { /.../ }
    2. Bexplicit Date:: Date(int dd) { /.../ }
    3. CSuch a constructor cannot be defined
    4. DConstructor always has to be defined inside the class

    Answer: (A) Date::Date(int dd) { /.../ }

    Explanation

    The explicit specifier is only valid on the declaration of a constructor inside the class body — it controls whether the compiler may use the constructor for implicit conversions, and C++ does not allow it to be repeated on an out-of-class definition.

    So the out-of-class definition uses the scope resolution operator with no explicit keyword, exactly as in Date::Date(int dd) { /*...*/ }.

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12. Question 12

    Which one of the following allows the session to continue?

    1. AWhen a user quits a browser
    2. BWhen the user logs out and is invalidated by the servlet
    3. CWhen the session is timed out due to inactivity
    4. DWhen the user refreshes the browser and there is a persistent cookie

    Answer: (D) When the user refreshes the browser and there is a persistent cookie

    Explanation

    A session ends when its cookie is lost, when the server explicitly invalidates it, or when it times out — all three of the other options describe exactly those endings.

    A persistent cookie survives a page refresh because it is stored on disk rather than only in browser memory, so the browser resends the same session identifier on the next request and the server matches it back to the still-active session.

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13. Question 13

    Overfitting is expected when we observe that?

    1. AWith training iterations error on training set as well as test set decreases
    2. BWith training iterations error on training set decreases but test set increases
    3. CWith training iterations error on training set as well as test set increases
    4. DWith training iterations training set as well as test error remains constant

    Answer: (B) With training iterations error on training set decreases but test set increases

    Explanation

    Overfitting means the model is memorizing training-specific noise rather than learning the general pattern.

    That shows up as a widening gap between the two curves: training error keeps falling because the model fits the training data ever more closely, while test error rises because that memorized noise does not generalize to unseen data.

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14. Question 14

    Identify the incorrect statement(s).

    1. AA candidate key is minimal set of one or more attributes that, taken collectively, allows us to uniquely identify any entity in the entity set.
    2. BA candidate key for which no proper subset is also a candidate key is called a super key.
    3. CA super key is a set of one or more attributes that, taken collectively, allows us to uniquely identify any entity in the entity set.
    4. DA super key for which no proper subset is also a super key is called a candidate key.

    Answer: (B) A candidate key for which no proper subset is also a candidate key is called a super key.

    Explanation

    Check each statement against the standard definitions: a super key uniquely identifies an entity, and a candidate key is a minimal super key (one with no proper subset that is also a super key).

    • A. Candidate key is a minimal uniquely-identifying attribute set — correct, this is the standard definition.
    • B. A candidate key with no proper-subset candidate key is called a super key — incorrect. This statement swaps the definitions: minimality applied to a candidate key does not produce a super key, it just restates what a candidate key already is.
    • C. A super key uniquely identifies an entity — correct, this is the standard definition.
    • D. A super key with no proper-subset super key is called a candidate key — correct, this is exactly the minimality condition that defines a candidate key.

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15. Question 15

    Consider the two relations below. The primary keys are underlined. Identify all possible foreign key(s) from the options based only on the two relations.

    EMP (eid, ename, did)
    DEPT (did, dname)

    1. Aeid
    2. Bdid
    3. Ceid, did
    4. Deid, did, ename

    Answer: (B) did

    Explanation

    A foreign key in one relation must reference the primary key of another relation.

    EMP.did references DEPT's primary key did, giving a valid foreign key relationship. EMP's own primary key eid does not reference any other relation's primary key, so it cannot be the foreign key.

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16. Question 16

    Which of the following statement is correct, according to the following instance of the relational schema R(X, Y, Z)?

    X	Y	Z
    1	1	a
    1	1	a
    2	1	b
    3	2	b

    Instance of relation R(X, Y, Z)

    1. AX→Y, Z→X
    2. BY→Z, Z→X
    3. CX→Y, X→Z
    4. DY→X, X→Z

    Answer: (C) X→Y, X→Z

    Explanation

    Check each candidate dependency against the instance (rows (1,1,a), (1,1,a), (2,1,b), (3,2,b)) by seeing whether every occurrence of the left side always pairs with the same right side.

    X→Y holds because X=1 always pairs with Y=1, X=2 with Y=1, and X=3 with Y=2, each X value maps to exactly one Y value.

    X→Z holds because X=1 always pairs with Z=a, X=2 with Z=b, and X=3 with Z=b, each X value maps to exactly one Z value.

    Y→Z fails, because Y=1 appears with both Z=a (when X=1) and Z=b (when X=2). Y→X and Z→X fail for the same reason: Y=1 maps to two different X values, and Z=b maps to both X=2 and X=3.

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17. Question 17

    In Linux Operating System, when ______ is invoked, it is passed a set of flags that determine how much sharing is to take place between the parent and child tasks.

    1. Afork()
    2. Bclone()
    3. Cpthread()
    4. Dthread()

    Answer: (B) clone()

    Explanation

    Linux implements process and thread creation through a single system call, clone(), which takes explicit flag arguments such as CLONE_VM and CLONE_FS to control exactly which resources (address space, file descriptors, and signal handlers) the parent and child share.

    fork() is implemented on top of clone() with a fixed set of flags, so it does not itself expose configurable sharing.

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18. Question 18

    The main function of the microkernel is to provide a communication facility between the ______ program and the various ______ that are also running in user space.

    1. AVirtual, Processes
    2. BSystem, Processes
    3. CClient, Services
    4. DVirtual, Services

    Answer: (C) Client, Services

    Explanation

    In microkernel design, the kernel is stripped down to minimal functionality, and traditional OS functions (file systems, device drivers, networking) run as separate user-space services.

    The microkernel's main job is to relay messages between a client program and those user-space services, so it can be swapped or restarted independently of the core kernel.

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19. Question 19

    Consider an operating system capable of loading and executing a single sequential user process at a time. The disk head scheduling algorithm used is first come first served (FCFS). If FCFS is replaced by shortest seek time first (SSTF) and the vendor claims 50% better benchmark results, what is the expected improvement in the I/O performance of user programs?

    1. A50%
    2. B100%
    3. C25%
    4. D0%

    Answer: (D) 0%

    Explanation

    Disk-scheduling algorithms such as FCFS and SSTF only change behaviour when several I/O requests are already queued and can be reordered.

    A system that loads and executes only a single sequential user process at a time issues disk requests one at a time, so there is essentially no backlog of pending requests for the scheduler to reorder. With nothing meaningful to reorder, switching from FCFS to SSTF has little to no effect on real user-program I/O time, even though an isolated benchmark built around queued requests can show a large improvement.

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20. Question 20

    For the following set of processes scheduled using FCFS policy, determine the average waiting time. Assume that the processes arrived in the order P1, P2, P3, P4.

    Process	Burst Time (ms)
    P1	8
    P2	15
    P3	10
    P4	7

    Burst times for processes P1-P4

    1. A8
    2. B16
    3. C32
    4. D48

    Answer: (B) 16

    Explanation

    Under FCFS each process waits for the sum of the burst times of every process ahead of it in arrival order.

    P1 waits 0 ms, P2 waits 8 ms, P3 waits 8+15=23 ms, and P4 waits 8+15+10=33 ms.

    Average waiting time = (0 + 8 + 23 + 33) / 4 = 64 / 4 = 16 ms.

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21. Question 21

    Which of the following is not a Non functional requirement?

    1. APortability
    2. BSecurity
    3. CScalability
    4. DUser interaction

    Answer: (D) User interaction

    Explanation

    Non-functional requirements describe quality attributes of a system such as how portable, secure, or scalable it is, rather than what the system does.

    Portability, security, and scalability are all quality attributes. User interaction describes what the system does for the user, a functional requirement, so it is the one that does not belong.

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22. Question 22

    COCOMO stands for ______

    1. AConsumed cost model
    2. BConstructive cost model
    3. CCommon control model
    4. DComposition cost model

    Answer: (B) Constructive cost model

    Explanation

    COCOMO is Boehm's software cost estimation model, and its name is a direct acronym: COnstructive COst MOdel.

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23. Question 23

    Modifying the software to match changes in the ever changing environment is called as

    1. AAdaptive maintenance
    2. BCorrective maintenance
    3. CPerfective maintenance
    4. DPreventive maintenance

    Answer: (A) Adaptive maintenance

    Explanation

    Software maintenance types are distinguished by their trigger. Corrective maintenance fixes bugs, perfective maintenance improves existing features, and preventive maintenance guards against future faults.

    Adaptive maintenance is specifically the type triggered by external environment changes, such as a new OS version or a changed hardware platform, which matches modifying software to keep up with a changing environment.

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24. Question 24

    For a function of two variables, boundary value analysis yields,

    1. A4n+3 test cases
    2. B4n+1 test cases
    3. Cn+4 test cases
    4. D2n+4 test cases

    Answer: (B) 4n+1 test cases

    Explanation

    The standard boundary value analysis formula for a function of n variables is 4n+1 test cases, covering the minimum, just-above-minimum, nominal, just-below-maximum, and maximum values for each variable while holding the others at their nominal value.

    For n=2 variables, this gives 4(2)+1 = 9 test cases.

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25. Question 25

    How many different trees are possible with 'n' nodes?

    1. An^(n-1)
    2. B2^(n-1)
    3. C2^n
    4. D2^n - n

    Answer: (A) n^(n-1)

    Explanation

    By Cayley's formula, there are n^(n-2) distinct labelled unrooted trees on n nodes.

    Rooting a tree means choosing any one of its n nodes as the root, so the count of distinct labelled rooted trees is n × n^(n-2) = n^(n-1), which is the standard count quoted for "different trees possible with n nodes."

    NTA's official final answer key for this exact sitting marked this question as dropped (full marks awarded to all candidates), consistent with genuine ambiguity between counting labelled rooted trees (n^(n-1)) and labelled unrooted trees (n^(n-2), Cayley's formula) for a question that does not specify which.

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26. Question 26

    Let 'n' denote a positive integer. Suppose a function F is defined as

    f(n) = 0, n = 1
    f(n) = f(⌊n/2⌋) + 1, n > 1

    What is f(25)? and what does this function find?

    1. A4, ⌊log₂ n⌋
    2. B14, ⌊log₂ n⌋
    3. C4, ⌊n/2⌋
    4. D14, ⌊n/2⌋

    Answer: (A) 4, ⌊log₂ n⌋

    Explanation

    Unroll the recursion by repeatedly halving 25 and flooring, because each call adds exactly 1 to the result.

    f(25) = f(12) + 1
    f(12) = f(6) + 1
    f(6) = f(3) + 1
    f(3) = f(1) + 1 = 0 + 1 = 1

    Substituting back gives f(6) = 2, f(12) = 3, and f(25) = 4.

    Each call halves n, so f(n) counts how many times n can be halved before reaching 1, which is exactly ⌊log₂ n⌋. Since 2^4 = 16 ≤ 25 < 32 = 2^5, ⌊log₂ 25⌋ = 4, matching the computed value.

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27. Question 27

    Given the FFT we can have __________ time procedure for multiplying two polynomials A(x) and B(x) of degree bound n where input and output representations are in coefficient form, assuming n is a power of 2.

    1. AO(n²)
    2. BO(n log₂ n)
    3. CO(2ⁿ)
    4. DO(log₂ n)

    Answer: (B) O(n log₂ n)

    Explanation

    Direct coefficient-form multiplication needs O(n²) work, because every coefficient of A must be multiplied against every coefficient of B.

    The FFT-based approach avoids this by converting both polynomials to point-value form using the FFT in O(n log n), multiplying the point-values pairwise in O(n), and converting the product back to coefficient form with an inverse FFT in O(n log n).

    The two FFT steps dominate, so the overall procedure runs in O(n log₂ n) time, much faster than the naive O(n²) approach.

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28. Question 28

    Consider a graph with 4 vertices P, Q, R, and S. The edges are P-Q, Q-R, P-S, Q-S, and R-S. How many spanning trees can be found?

    1. A10
    2. B5
    3. C9
    4. D8

    Answer: (D) 8

    Explanation

    Apply Kirchhoff's Matrix Tree Theorem, because the graph has 4 vertices and 5 edges, one more edge than a spanning tree needs.

    Build the Laplacian (degree minus adjacency) in order P, Q, R, S. Degrees are P=2, Q=3, R=2, S=3. Deleting the S row and column leaves the 3×3 matrix for P, Q, R:

    [2, -1, 0]
    [-1, 3, -1]
    [0, -1, 2]

    The determinant of this matrix equals the number of spanning trees.

    det = 2×(3×2 − (−1)×(−1)) − (−1)×((−1)×2 − (−1)×0) = 2×5 − (−1)×(−2) = 10 − 2 = 8

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29. Question 29

    The transition function 'δ' in multi-tape Turing machine is defined as:

    1. Aδ: 2^Q × Γᵏ → 2^Q × Γᵏ × {L, R, S}ᵏ
    2. Bδ: Q × Q × Γᵏ → Q × Q × Γᵏ × {L, R, S}ᵏ
    3. Cδ: Q × Γᵏ → Q × Γᵏ × {L, R, S}ᵏ
    4. Dδ: Q × Γᵏ × 2^Q → Q × Γᵏ × 2^Q × {L, R, S}ᵏ

    Answer: (C) δ: Q × Γᵏ → Q × Γᵏ × {L, R, S}ᵏ

    Explanation

    A k-tape Turing machine reads one symbol from each of its k tapes at once, so its transition function must take the current state and a k-tuple of tape symbols as input.

    The output is the next state, the k symbols to write, and a movement direction for each of the k heads, giving δ: Q × Γᵏ → Q × Γᵏ × {L, R, S}ᵏ.

    The power-set forms in options A and D describe nondeterministic machines, not the standard deterministic multi-tape definition, so they do not fit here.

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30. Question 30

    In Pumping Lemma for regular languages, to say a language is satisfying pumping lemma, what is the minimum length of 'y' if you consider the string as 'xyz'?

    1. An
    2. B2
    3. C1
    4. D0

    Answer: (C) 1

    Explanation

    The pumping lemma requires the middle segment y to be pumpable, meaning it must be repeatable any number of times, including zero, while the resulting string stays in the language.

    A segment of length 0 cannot be meaningfully pumped because repeating an empty string never changes anything, so the lemma's standard statement fixes |y| ≥ 1, which makes 1 the minimum required length.

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31. Question 31

    The item generated by the production A → ε is:

    1. AA → •
    2. BA → ε•
    3. CA → •ε
    4. DA → ε

    Answer: (A) A → •

    Explanation

    An LR item marks how much of a production's right-hand side has already been seen with a dot, so for a normal production the dot sits between recognized and unrecognized symbols.

    Because A → ε has an empty right-hand side, there are no symbols on either side of the dot to place it between, so the standard convention writes the single resulting item as A → • with the dot alone, omitting the ε symbol entirely rather than writing it out before or after the dot.

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32. Question 32

    In the ε-NFA, M = ({q0, q1, q2, q3}, {a}, δ, q0, {q3}), where 'δ' is given by q0 moving to q1 on ε, q1 moving to q2 on ε, and q2 moving to both q2 and q3 on 'a', what is the minimum length of string to reach the final state?

    State	ε	a
    q0	{q1}	{}
    q1	{q2}	{}
    q2	{}	{q2,q3}
    q3	{}	{}

    Transition table for the ε-NFA

    1. A0
    2. B1
    3. C2
    4. D3

    Answer: (B) 1

    Explanation

    Trace the epsilon-closure of the start state first, because epsilon moves consume no input.

    From q0, the epsilon-closure reaches q1 and then q2 without consuming any symbol. The only way to reach the accepting state q3 is the transition from q2 on input 'a', so at least one 'a' is required.

    A single 'a' takes the machine from q0, through the epsilon-closure to q2, then directly to q3, so the minimum string length to reach the final state is 1.

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33. Question 33

    Given Ethernet address 01011010 00010001 01010101 00011000 10101010 00001111 in binary, what is the address in hexadecimal notation?

    1. A5A:88:AA:18:55:F0
    2. B5A:81:BA:81:AA:08
    3. C5A:18:5A:18:55:0F
    4. D5A:11:55:18:AA:0F

    Answer: (D) 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F

    Explanation

    Convert each of the six 8-bit octets to hexadecimal separately.

    01011010 = 5A
    00010001 = 11
    01010101 = 55
    00011000 = 18
    10101010 = AA
    00001111 = 0F

    Joining the six pairs with colons gives 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F.

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34. Question 34

    A Computer on a 10 Mbps network is regulated by a token bucket. The token bucket is filled at a rate of 2 Mbps. It is initially filled to capacity with 16 megabits. What is the maximum duration for which the computer can transmit at the full 10 Mbps?

    1. A1.6 seconds
    2. B2 seconds
    3. C5 seconds
    4. D8 seconds

    Answer: (B) 2 seconds

    Explanation

    While transmitting at 10 Mbps, the bucket keeps refilling at 2 Mbps, so the net drain rate is 10 − 2 = 8 Mbps.

    The bucket starts with 16 megabits stored, and it empties when those 16 megabits are consumed at the net drain rate.

    Time = 16 megabits ÷ 8 Mbps = 2 seconds

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35. Question 35

    In the standard Ethernet with transmission rate of 10Mbps, assume that the length of the medium is 2500m and size of a frame is 512 bits. The propagation speed of a signal in a cable is normally 2 × 10⁸ m/s. Calculate Transmission delay and propagation delay.

    1. A25.25μs and 51.2μs
    2. B51.2μs and 12.5μs
    3. C10.24μs and 50.12μs
    4. D12.5μs and 51.2μs

    Answer: (B) 51.2μs and 12.5μs

    Explanation

    Transmission delay is frame size divided by the link's transmission rate.

    Transmission delay = 512 bits / 10 Mbps = 51.2 μs

    Propagation delay is the cable length divided by the signal's propagation speed.

    Propagation delay = 2500 m / (2 × 10⁸ m/s) = 12.5 μs

    The question asks for transmission delay followed by propagation delay, so the answer pairs 51.2 μs with 12.5 μs in that order.

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36. Question 36

    In CRC coding if the data word is 111111, divisor is 1010 and the remainder is 110. Which of the following code is true?

    1. A011111101
    2. B001010110
    3. C111111110
    4. D110111111

    Answer: (C) 111111110

    Explanation

    The CRC transmitted codeword is formed by appending the computed remainder directly onto the end of the original data word, with no other change.

    Appending remainder 110 to data word 111111 gives 111111 followed by 110, which is 111111110.

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37. Question 37

    The A* algorithm is optimal when,

    1. AIt always finds the solution with the lowest total cost if the heuristic 'h' is admissible.
    2. BAlways finds the solution with the highest total cost if the heuristic 'h' is admissible.
    3. CFinds the solution with the lowest total cost if the heuristic 'h' is not admissible.
    4. DIt always finds the solution with the highest total cost if the heuristic 'h' is not admissible.

    Answer: (A) It always finds the solution with the lowest total cost if the heuristic 'h' is admissible.

    Explanation

    A* is optimal specifically because an admissible heuristic never overestimates the true remaining cost to the goal, so it never prunes away the actual lowest-cost path.

    Since the heuristic underestimates or exactly matches the true cost, A* is guaranteed to expand nodes in an order that finds the lowest total cost solution, not merely some solution.

    Without admissibility, this optimality guarantee is lost, which is why options describing a non-admissible heuristic as still yielding the lowest cost solution are wrong.

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38. Question 38

    Which Artificial intelligence technique enables the computers to understand the associations and relationships between objects & Events?

    1. AHeuristic Processing.
    2. BCognitive Science.
    3. CRelative symbolism.
    4. DPattern Matching.

    Answer: (D) Pattern Matching.

    Explanation

    Recognizing how objects and events relate to each other means comparing a current situation against known structures or templates, which is exactly what pattern matching does in AI systems.

    Heuristic processing is about guiding search with rules of thumb, and cognitive science is a broader field of study rather than a specific computational technique, so neither directly names the relationship-recognition mechanism the question describes.

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39. Question 39

    Where does the values of alpha-beta search get updated?

    1. AAlong the path of search.
    2. BInitial state itself.
    3. CAt the end.
    4. DNone of these.

    Answer: (A) Along the path of search.

    Explanation

    Alpha-beta pruning works by tightening the alpha and beta bounds as the search visits and backtracks through nodes, because each newly explored branch can improve the best-known bound for its ancestors.

    This means the values are continuously updated along the path of search, not fixed at the initial state or deferred until the search finishes.

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40. Question 40

    A 4-input neuron has weights 1,2,3,4. The transfer function is linear with the constant of proportionality being equal to 3. The inputs are 5,7,10,30, respectively.

    Then the output will be,

    1. A120
    2. B213
    3. C410
    4. D507

    Answer: (D) 507

    Explanation

    Compute the weighted sum of the inputs first, then apply the linear transfer function.

    Weighted sum = 1×5 + 2×7 + 3×10 + 4×30 = 5 + 14 + 30 + 120 = 169

    Output = 3 × 169 = 507

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41. Question 41

    Consider the following statements:

    P: There exists no simple, undirected and connected graph with 80 vertices and 77 edges.
    Q: All vertices of Euler graph are of even degree.
    R: Every simple, undirected, connected and acyclic graphs with 50 vertices has at least two vertices of degree one.
    S: There exists a bipartite graph with more than six vertices which is 2-colorable.

    What is the number of correct statements among the above statements.

    1. A1
    2. B2
    3. C3
    4. D4

    Answer: (D) 4

    Explanation

    Check each statement against its underlying graph theory rule.

    • P — A connected graph on 80 vertices needs at least 79 edges to link every vertex, so 77 edges cannot form one. P correctly claims no such graph exists, so P is true.
    • Q — A connected graph has an Eulerian circuit only when every vertex has even degree, which is a standard theorem, so Q is true.
    • R — A connected acyclic graph is a tree, and every tree with two or more vertices has at least two leaves (degree-one vertices), so R is true for 50 vertices.
    • S — Bipartite graphs are always 2-colorable by definition, and bipartite graphs with more than six vertices certainly exist, so S is true.

    All four statements are correct, giving a count of 4.

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42. Question 42

    Consider the following statements:

    A. There exists a Boolean algebra with '5' elements.
    B. Every element of Boolean algebra has unique complement.
    C. If a Lattice 'L' is a Boolean algebra then 'L' is not relatively complemented.
    D. The direct product of two Boolean algebras is also a Boolean algebra.

    Choose the correct answer about the four statements given above.

    1. AOnly A and D are correct
    2. BOnly B and D are correct
    3. CAll statements are NOT correct
    4. DAll statements are correct

    Answer: (B) Only B and D are correct

    Explanation

    Check each statement against Boolean algebra theorems.

    • A — Every finite Boolean algebra has exactly 2ⁿ elements for some n, so its size must be a power of 2. Since 5 is not a power of 2, no Boolean algebra with 5 elements exists, so A is false.
    • B — Uniqueness of the complement is a fundamental theorem of Boolean algebra, so B is true.
    • C — A Boolean algebra is in fact always a relatively complemented distributive lattice, so claiming it is not relatively complemented is false.
    • D — The direct product of two Boolean algebras, with operations defined componentwise, is itself a Boolean algebra, so D is true.

    Only B and D are correct.

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43. Question 43

    Which of the statement is not true in regards to virtual memory?

    1. AThe main objective for using virtual memory is to increase the effective capacity of the memory system
    2. BSize of the program can be as large as the size of the secondary memory
    3. CProgram and data are stored in the secondary memory
    4. DNone of these

    Answer: (D) None of these

    Explanation

    Virtual memory extends the effective size of usable memory by keeping the full program and data on secondary storage and paging in only what is currently needed.

    This makes the first three statements all accurate descriptions of virtual memory, since it does increase effective capacity, does allow program size to approach secondary storage capacity, and does rely on secondary memory as the backing store.

    Because none of the first three statements is actually untrue, the correct response to "which is not true" is that none of them, matching option D.

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44. Question 44

    Which of the following is/are true for Dynamic RAM (DRAM)?

    A. It is slower than static RAM(SRAM)
    B. Packing Density is higher than Static RAM (SRAM)
    C. It is faster than static RAM(SRAM)
    D. It requires data refreshing

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and D Only
    2. BA, B and C Only
    3. CC and D Only
    4. DB and D Only

    Answer: (A) A, B and D Only

    Explanation

    DRAM stores each bit as a charge on a capacitor, while SRAM stores each bit in a flip-flop.

    • A. It is slower than SRAM — correct. The capacitor read/write cycle makes DRAM slower than SRAM's flip-flop access.
    • B. Packing density is higher than SRAM — correct. A DRAM cell needs far fewer transistors per bit, so more bits fit in the same silicon area.
    • C. It is faster than SRAM — incorrect, this directly contradicts A.
    • D. It requires data refreshing — correct. The capacitor's charge leaks over time, so DRAM must be periodically refreshed to retain its data.

    A, B, and D are correct.

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45. Question 45

    Which of the following statement is/are false?

    A. The processor has direct access to both primary and secondary memory
    B. Primary memory stores the active instructions and data for the program being executed on the process
    C. Secondary memory is used as a backup memory
    D. Memory system is implemented on a single level memory

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA, B and C only
    4. DA and D Only

    Answer: (D) A and D Only

    Explanation

    Check each statement against how the memory hierarchy actually works.

    • A. The processor has direct access to both primary and secondary memory — false. The CPU can only directly address primary memory, it reaches secondary memory indirectly through I/O operations.
    • B. Primary memory stores active instructions and data for the running program — true, this is exactly primary memory's role.
    • C. Secondary memory is used as a backup memory — true, it provides persistent, non-volatile storage.
    • D. Memory system is implemented on a single level memory — false. Modern systems use a multi-level hierarchy of registers, cache, main memory, and secondary storage, not a single level.

    A and D are the false statements.

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46. Question 46

    Given a vector with cartesian components (x,y), if scaling is done with matrix [[0.5, 0], [0, 1.5]] which of the following are true.

    A. Decreases the vertical by three halves
    B. Increases the vertical by three halves
    C. Doubles the horizontal
    D. Halves the horizontal

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and C only
    2. BA and D only
    3. CB and C only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (D) B and D only

    Explanation

    Apply the scaling matrix to get the transformed point, because a diagonal scaling matrix multiplies each coordinate independently.

    New point = (0.5x, 1.5y)

    The y-coordinate is multiplied by 1.5, which increases the vertical component by a factor of three halves, matching B rather than A.

    The x-coordinate is multiplied by 0.5, which halves the horizontal component, matching D rather than C.

    B and D are true.

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47. Question 47

    Which of the following lists defined in HTML share similar elements?

    A. Unordered lists
    B. Ordered lists
    C. Definition Lists
    D. Correlated lists
    E. Enumerated lists

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, D only
    2. BA, C, E only
    3. CA, B, C only
    4. DA, C, D only

    Answer: (C) A, B, C only

    Explanation

    HTML actually defines exactly three list types, because unordered lists (<ul>), ordered lists (<ol>), and definition lists (<dl>) are the only standard list elements in the HTML specification.

    "Correlated lists" and "enumerated lists" are not real HTML elements, so they cannot belong to the group of genuine HTML list types.

    A, B, and C are the three actual HTML list categories.

    NTA's official final answer key for this exact sitting marked this question as dropped (full marks awarded to all candidates), consistent with the genuine interpretive ambiguity in what "share similar elements" was intended to mean here.

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48. Question 48

    What are the drawbacks of using file systems to store data?

    A. Data inconsistency
    B. Difficulty in accessing data
    C. Data isolation
    D. Atomicity of updates

    Choose the correct answers from the options given below:

    1. AA, B, only
    2. BB, C, D only
    3. CA, B, C only
    4. DA, B, C, D

    Answer: (D) A, B, C, D

    Explanation

    File-based systems predate database management systems because they suffer from a well-known set of problems that DBMSs were built to solve.

    • A. Data inconsistency — happens when the same fact is duplicated across files and updated in only one place, leaving other copies stale.
    • B. Difficulty in accessing data — comes from needing a new program for every new type of query, since file systems have no general query language.
    • C. Data isolation — happens because related data is scattered across files in different, incompatible formats.
    • D. Atomicity of updates — is hard to guarantee because a crash mid-update can leave files only partially changed.

    All four are standard, textbook-listed drawbacks of file systems, so the answer includes all of A, B, C, and D.

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49. Question 49

    Which of the following database model, we have a parent-child relationship?

    A. hierarchical databases
    B. network databases
    C. relational databases

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B
    2. BA, C
    3. CB, C
    4. DA, B, C

    Answer: (A) A, B

    Explanation

    The hierarchical model organizes records in a strict tree, so every record has exactly one parent, which is the textbook definition of a parent-child relationship.

    The network model generalizes this into owner-member links, which are still parent-child style connections but allow a record to have more than one owner.

    The relational model stores data in independent tables connected only through shared key values, with no inherent parent-child structure, so it does not belong in this group.

    A and B are the models built around parent-child links.

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50. Question 50

    Identify the correct operation which produces the given output based on two relations R1 and R2.

    Relation	Name	Class
    R1	a1	9
    R1	b1	5
    R1	c1	6
    R1	d1	11
    R2	b1	5
    R2	f1	8
    Output	b1	5

    Relations R1, R2 and the resulting output

    1. AR1 ∩ R2
    2. BR1 − R2
    3. CR1 − (R1 − R2)
    4. DR1 ∪ R2

    Accepted answers: (A) R1 ∩ R2, (C) R1 − (R1 − R2)

    Explanation

    Compare the tuples in R1 and R2 against the output, because the operation is identified by which rows survive.

    R1 contains (a1,9), (b1,5), (c1,6), (d1,11), and R2 contains (b1,5), (f1,8). The output contains only (b1,5), which is the single tuple that appears in both relations.

    Keeping only the tuples common to both relations is exactly the intersection operation, R1 ∩ R2.

    R1 − (R1 − R2) computes the same result by a different route: R1 − R2 removes every R1 tuple that is also in R2, leaving only R1's own tuples, and subtracting that from R1 a second time leaves exactly the tuples R1 shares with R2. So R1 − (R1 − R2) is set-theoretically identical to R1 ∩ R2, and both are accepted here.

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51. Question 51

    Which of the following statements are true?

    A. Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvation
    B. Preemptive scheduling may cause starvation
    C. Round robin is better than FCFS in terms of response time

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA only
    2. BB, C only
    3. CA, B only
    4. DA, B, C

    Answer: (D) A, B, C

    Explanation

    Check each scheduling claim against standard CPU scheduling behaviour.

    • A. SRTF may cause starvation — true. A steady stream of newly arriving short processes can keep pushing a long process to the back indefinitely.
    • B. Preemptive scheduling may cause starvation — true, since SRTF is itself a preemptive policy, and priority-based preemptive scheduling can starve low-priority processes the same way.
    • C. Round robin is better than FCFS for response time — true. Time-slicing lets every process get CPU time quickly, avoiding the long waits FCFS causes through the convoy effect.

    All three statements hold.

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52. Question 52

    In design protocol of critical section problem, each process must ask permission to enter critical section in ____ code, it then executes in the critical section, once it finishes executing in the critical section it enters the ____ code. The process then enters the ____ code.

    1. Aentry section, remainder section, exit section
    2. Bentry section, exit section, remainder section
    3. Cremainder section, entry section, exit section
    4. Dremainder section, exit section, entry section

    Answer: (B) entry section, exit section, remainder section

    Explanation

    The critical section protocol cycles through three named regions of code in a fixed order.

    A process first requests permission in the entry section, runs its critical section code, then releases access in the exit section, and finally does unrelated work in the remainder section before looping back to the entry section again.

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53. Question 53

    How do you create agile processes to manage unpredictability?

    A. Requirements gathering must be conducted very carefully.
    B. Risk analysis must be conducted before planning takes place.
    C. Software increments must be delivered in short time periods.
    D. Software processes must not adapt to changes incrementally.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA only
    2. BB only
    3. CC only
    4. DD only

    Answer: (C) C only

    Explanation

    Agile methods are built specifically to manage unpredictable requirements, and their defining mechanism is short, frequent delivery rather than heavy upfront analysis.

    Delivering software increments in short time periods lets the team get feedback and adjust direction quickly, which is exactly how agile processes cope with unpredictability.

    Heavy upfront requirements gathering or pre-planning risk analysis are hallmarks of plan-driven approaches, not agile ones, and refusing to adapt incrementally is the direct opposite of what agile processes do.

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54. Question 54

    Software project manager is responsible for the following tasks:

    A. Project Planning
    B. Project status tracking
    C. Resource management
    D. Risk management
    E. Project delivery within time & budget.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AAll the statements are correct.
    2. BOnly B & C are correct.
    3. COnly A & D are correct
    4. DAll the statements are not correct.

    Answer: (A) All the statements are correct.

    Explanation

    Standard software project management texts list planning, tracking progress, staffing and resource allocation, risk management, and delivering within time and budget as the core duties of a project manager.

    Each of the five listed tasks is a recognized project manager responsibility, so all five statements are correct together.

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55. Question 55

    Mr. X designed open source software which must comply with some criteria. Choose the false statement in respect of above.

    A. No restriction on redistribution of the software as part or whole.
    B. The integrity of the author's source code must be maintained.
    C. The software can be sold after distribution.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA only
    2. BB only
    3. CC only
    4. DAll statements are false

    Answer: (C) C only

    Explanation

    The Open Source Definition's free-redistribution clause protects statement A, guaranteeing a license cannot restrict redistribution as part of a bundle or on its own. It also protects the integrity of the original author's source in statement B, typically by requiring modifications to ship as patches or under a different name rather than altering the original files directly.

    Statement C is the false one: open source software is meant to stay freely available for anyone to redistribute, not become a paid commercial product controlled after distribution. A strict reading of the free-redistribution clause is actually more permissive about resale than this framing suggests, but the standard classification this kind of question relies on still treats "the software can be sold after distribution" as the odd one out among the three statements.

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56. Question 56

    Circuit satisfiability problem: Given a Boolean combinational circuit composed of AND, OR and NOT gates, is it satisfiable? A one output Boolean combinatorial circuit is satisfiable means for the given inputs the output will be 1.

    A. The circuit satisfiability problem belongs to class NP
    B. The circuit satisfiability problem is at least as hard as any language in NP
    C. The circuit satisfiability is NP-Complete
    D. The size of the circuit is O(K²+1)
    E. If P≠NP, this situation would contradict the NP-Completeness of the problem.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C, D Only
    2. BB, D, E Only
    3. CA, B, C Only
    4. DB, C, D Only

    Answer: (C) A, B, C Only

    Explanation

    Circuit satisfiability was the first problem the Cook-Levin theorem proved NP-complete, so its standard properties follow directly from that theorem.

    • A. Belongs to class NP — true, a satisfying input assignment can be verified in polynomial time by simulating the circuit.
    • B. At least as hard as any language in NP — true, this is exactly the definition of NP-hardness, and Cook-Levin proves every NP problem reduces to it.
    • C. Is NP-Complete — true, being both in NP and NP-hard is precisely what NP-Complete means.
    • D. Circuit size is O(K²+1) — this is not a general property of circuit satisfiability, so it does not belong here.
    • E. If P≠NP, this would contradict NP-Completeness — false. P≠NP is entirely consistent with circuit satisfiability being NP-complete, it does not contradict it.

    A, B, and C are correct.

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57. Question 57

    Given an expression (A+B*D)/(E-F)+G

    A. The prefix notation is : +/+A*DB-EFG
    B. The prefix expression is the reverse of the postfix expression
    C. The order of operands in infix expression and postfix expression are the same.
    D. The order of operands in infix expression, prefix expression and postfix expression are the same.

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, C and D Only
    2. BC and D Only
    3. CA and B Only
    4. DA and D Only

    Answer: (B) C and D Only

    Explanation

    Derive the correct prefix and postfix forms first, because both later statements depend on them.

    Infix: (A+BD)/(E-F)+G. Converting the inner term BD gives BD, so A+BD becomes +ABD. The term E-F becomes -EF. Dividing gives / +ABD -EF, and adding G on the outside gives the full prefix + / +A*BD -EF G.

    • A. Prefix is +/+A*DB-EFG — false, this writes the B*D term as *DB with the operands swapped, but the correct order is *BD.
    • B. Prefix is the reverse of postfix — checking the postfix form A B D * + E F - / G + against the true prefix, a plain string reversal does not reproduce it correctly for the non-commutative subtraction and division operators, so this is false.
    • C. Operand order matches between infix and postfix — true. Reading left to right, both give A, B, D, E, F, G.
    • D. Operand order matches across infix, prefix and postfix — true. The prefix form also reads A, B, D, E, F, G left to right, since converting notation only relocates operators, never reorders operands.

    C and D are correct.

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58. Question 58

    Which of the following is (are) correct about the regular expression aabbccdd

    A. The language represented by the regular expression consists of strings of the form aⁱbʲcᵏdˡ, where i, j, k and l are each at least 1.
    B. The expression requires the number of a's to be equal to the number of b's.
    C. The expression requires the number of c's to be equal to the number of d's.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AOnly A is correct
    2. BOnly B is correct
    3. CBoth A and B are correct
    4. DAll the three A, B and C are correct

    Answer: (A) Only A is correct

    Explanation

    Read the regular expression group by group, because each letter's star applies only within its own block.

    a followed by a* guarantees at least one a with any number more, and the same pattern repeats independently for b, c, and d, so the language is exactly strings with one or more of each letter in that fixed order, matching statement A.

    Each group's count is controlled by its own independent star, so there is no requirement linking the count of a's to b's, or c's to d's. For example a^5b^2c^1d^1 is a valid string in this language despite having 5 a's and only 2 b's, which makes statement B false, and the same reasoning makes statement C false.

    The official answer key for this exact sitting marks a different option than this analysis supports. The regular-expression reasoning above is a direct mechanical consequence of independent Kleene stars and does not depend on interpretation, so this conflict is noted for a human to weigh against the official key rather than silently resolved either way.

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59. Question 59

    Which of the following statements are correct?

    A. The first three-address instruction in the intermediate code is a leader.
    B. The instruction which is exactly at the middle of the given three address code is a leader.
    C. Any instruction that is the target of a conditional or unconditional jump is a leader.
    D. Any instruction that immediately follows a conditional or unconditional jump is a leader.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C
    2. BB, C and D
    3. CA, C and D
    4. DA, B, C and D

    Answer: (C) A, C and D

    Explanation

    Basic-block leader identification follows three fixed rules in compiler construction, and being in the middle of the code is not one of them.

    • A. First instruction is a leader — true, this is rule one.
    • B. The instruction at the middle is a leader — false, position at the midpoint has nothing to do with basic block boundaries.
    • C. Any jump target is a leader — true, this is rule two.
    • D. Any instruction right after a jump is a leader — true, this is rule three.

    A, C, and D are correct.

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60. Question 60

    Which of the following are correct on regular expressions?

    A. Φ + L = L + Φ = L
    B. εL = Lε = L
    C. ΦL = LΦ = Φ
    D. ΦL = LΦ = L

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and D only
    2. BA, B and C only
    3. CB and D only
    4. DA and D only

    Answer: (B) A, B and C only

    Explanation

    These identities follow from what the empty language Φ and the empty string ε each do under union and concatenation.

    • A. Φ + L = L + Φ = L — true. Φ is the identity element for union, adding no new strings.
    • B. εL = Lε = L — true. ε is the identity element for concatenation, contributing nothing to any string.
    • C. ΦL = LΦ = Φ — true. Concatenating with the empty language, which contains no strings, produces no strings at all.
    • D. ΦL = LΦ = L — false, this directly contradicts C, since concatenating with Φ yields Φ, not L.

    A, B, and C are correct.

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61. Question 61

    Consider two hosts P and Q connected through a router R. The maximum transmit unit (MTU) value of the link between P and R is 1500 bytes and between R and Q is 820 bytes. A TCP segment of size of 1400 bytes is transferred from P to Q through R with IP identification value of 0x1234. Assume that IP header size is 20 bytes. Further the packet is allowed to be fragmented, that is Don't Fragment (DF) flag in the IP Header is not set by P.

    A. Two fragments are created at R and IP datagram size carrying the second fragment is 620 bytes
    B. If the second fragment is lost then R resend the fragment with IP identification value of 0x1234
    C. If the second fragment lost then P required to resend the entire TCP segment
    D. TCP destination port can be determined by analyzing the second fragment only

    Which of the following statement is/are true. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CC and D Only
    4. DB and D Only

    Answer: (B) A and C only

    Explanation

    The 1400-byte TCP segment plus its 20-byte IP header forms a 1420-byte datagram, which fits under the 1500-byte P-R MTU, so R receives it whole and must refragment its 1400 bytes of payload to fit the 820-byte R-Q MTU.

    Each fragment can carry at most 820-20=800 bytes of data, which is already a multiple of 8 so no further rounding is needed.

    First fragment: 800 bytes data + 20-byte header = 820 bytes total.
    Second fragment: 1400-800=600 bytes data + 20-byte header = 620 bytes total.

    This gives exactly two fragments, with the second one totalling 620 bytes, matching statement A.

    Routers never retransmit lost IP fragments themselves, that responsibility belongs to the original TCP sender, so statement B's claim that R resends the fragment is false.

    Because TCP operates on whole segments and IP has no fragment-level retransmission, P is the one that must resend the entire TCP segment if any fragment is lost, matching statement C.

    Only the first fragment, at offset zero, carries the TCP header with the port numbers, so a later fragment alone cannot reveal the destination port, making statement D false.

    A and C are true.

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62. Question 62

    The Solution to Silly Window Syndrome problem is/are:

    A. Nagle's Algorithm
    B. Clark's Algorithm
    C. Jacobson's Algorithm
    D. Piggy backing Algorithm

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (A) A and B only

    Explanation

    Silly Window Syndrome has two named textbook fixes, one for each end of the connection.

    Nagle's algorithm addresses the sender side by delaying small outgoing writes until there is enough data or an acknowledgment arrives, and Clark's algorithm addresses the receiver side by not advertising small window increases until a full segment's worth of space opens up.

    Jacobson's algorithm is about round-trip-time estimation for retransmission timeouts, and piggybacking is about combining acknowledgments with outgoing data, so neither one specifically solves Silly Window Syndrome.

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63. Question 63

    Which AI System mimics the evolutionary process to generate increasingly better solutions to a process to a problem?

    A. Self organizing neural network.
    B. Back propagation neural network.
    C. Genetic algorithm.
    D. Forward propagation neural network.

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA Only
    2. BB Only
    3. CC Only
    4. DD Only

    Answer: (C) C Only

    Explanation

    Genetic algorithms are explicitly modeled on biological evolution, using selection, crossover, and mutation across generations of candidate solutions to produce increasingly fit results.

    The neural network variants listed describe how signals move through or train a network, not an evolutionary search process, so none of them fit the description.

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64. Question 64

    Consider the following Learning algorithms.

    A. Logistic regression
    B. Back propagation
    C. Linear regression
    D. Forward propagation

    Which of the following options represents classification algorithm?

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA & C only
    2. BB & D only
    3. CA & B only
    4. DC & D only

    Answer: (C) A & B only

    Explanation

    Logistic regression predicts a class label and is the textbook example of a classification algorithm, unlike linear regression, which predicts a continuous numeric value.

    Back propagation is the training mechanism most associated with neural network classifiers, so it is grouped with logistic regression here, while forward propagation is just the feedforward computation step and does not itself perform classification.

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65. Question 65

    Which Boolean operation on two variables can be represented by a single perceptron layer?

    A. X1 AND X2
    B. X1 OR X2
    C. X1 NOR X2
    D. X1 XOR X2

    Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. AA and B Only
    2. BB and C Only
    3. CA, B and C Only
    4. DA, B, C and D Only

    Answer: (C) A, B and C Only

    Explanation

    A single perceptron can only represent functions whose true and false outputs are linearly separable by one straight decision boundary.

    AND, OR, and NOR are all linearly separable, so a single line can correctly divide their true and false input combinations, letting one perceptron compute each of them.

    XOR is the classic counterexample, its true outputs cannot be separated from its false outputs by any single straight line, so it needs a multi-layer network instead of one perceptron.

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66. Question 66

    Match List I with List II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Planar Graph	I. Probabilistic Model
    B. Bipartite Graph	II. Deterministic Model
    C. PERT	III. 4-Colorable
    D. CPM	IV. 2-Colorable

    List I and List II for the matching question

    1. AA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    2. BA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    3. CA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Match each List I item to the theorem or model that actually describes it.

    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    A planar graph can always be colored with 4 colors by the Four Color Theorem, matching III. A bipartite graph is exactly the graphs that are 2-colorable, matching IV. PERT uses probabilistic time estimates for uncertain activity durations, matching I. CPM uses deterministic, fixed time estimates, matching II.

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67. Question 67

    Match List I with List II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Direct Addressing	I. MVI A, FFH
    B. Indirect Addressing	II. MOV A, B
    C. Register Addressing	III. STA FFFFH
    D. Immediate Addressing	IV. MOV A, M

    List I and List II for the matching question

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    Match each 8085 addressing mode to its example instruction.

    A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Direct addressing specifies the memory address directly in the instruction, matching STA FFFFH (III). Indirect addressing accesses memory through a register pair, matching MOV A,M (IV), since M refers to the memory location pointed to by HL. Register addressing operates on register contents directly, matching MOV A,B (II). Immediate addressing supplies the operand value itself in the instruction, matching MVI A,FFH (I).

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68. Question 68

    Match List I with List II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. If the implementation of generated or derived classes differ only through a parameter, we have	I. To use class hierarchy
    B. If the actual types of objects used cannot be known at compile time, then we have	II. Improved run-time efficiency
    C. If inline operations are essential and templates are used then we have	III. To use templates
    D. To gain access to differing instances for derived classes through base we have	IV. To use explicit casting

    List I and List II for the matching question

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
    2. BA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
    3. CA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    4. DA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

    Answer: (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

    Explanation

    Match each C++ design scenario to the technique it calls for.

    A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

    When generated classes differ only through a parameter, templates parameterize that difference, matching III. When the actual object types are unknown until runtime, a class hierarchy with virtual dispatch is needed, matching I. Combining inline operations with templates avoids virtual-call overhead, giving improved run-time efficiency, matching II. Accessing a derived class's specific members through a base class pointer requires an explicit downcast, matching IV.

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69. Question 69

    Match List I with List II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Apache Kafka	I. Platform for constructing data flows for extract, transform, and load (ETL) processing and analysis of large datasets
    B. Pig	II. General-purpose computing model and runtime system for distributed data analytics
    C. Apache Mahout	III. Open-source platform that was created by LinkedIn
    D. Mapreduce	IV. Open-source platform used for creating scalable machine learning algorithms

    List I and List II for the matching question

    1. AA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    2. BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    3. CA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    4. DA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

    Answer: (C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    Explanation

    Match each big data tool to what it is actually known for.

    A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    Apache Kafka was created by LinkedIn as a distributed messaging platform, matching III. Pig is a platform for constructing extract-transform-load data flows over large datasets, matching I. Apache Mahout is an open-source platform for creating scalable machine learning algorithms, matching IV. MapReduce is the general-purpose computing model and runtime system for distributed data analytics, matching II.

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70. Question 70

    Match List I with List II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. IPC	I. Resource Allocation
    B. Demand Paging	II. Computational speedup
    C. Banker's Algorithm	III. Task Control Block
    D. PCB	IV. Virtual Memory

    List I and List II for the matching question

    1. AA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    2. BA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    3. CA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    4. DA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    Answer: (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

    Explanation

    Match each operating-system concept to what it provides.

    A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

    Inter-process communication lets cooperating processes share work, which is the classic textbook benefit of computational speedup, matching II. Demand paging loads pages only when referenced, which is how virtual memory is implemented, matching IV. Banker's algorithm decides whether a resource request can be safely granted, matching resource allocation, I. The process control block stores a process's saved state, which is why it functions as a task control block, matching III.

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71. Question 71

    Match List I with List II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Product complexity	I. System Requirements Design
    B. Structured System analysis	II. Software design
    C. Coupling & Cohesion	III. Validation techniques
    D. Symbolic Execution	IV. Software cost estimation

    List I and List II for the matching question

    1. AA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    2. BA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    3. CA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Explanation

    Match each software engineering concept to the activity it is most associated with.

    A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Product complexity is a key input to cost estimation models such as COCOMO, matching IV. Structured system analysis is a technique for capturing system requirements, matching I. Coupling and cohesion are quality measures used in software design, matching II. Symbolic execution is a validation technique used to test program paths without concrete input values, matching III.

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72. Question 72

    Match List I with List II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Dijkstra's Algorithm	I. Calculates path matrix
    B. Prim's Algorithm	II. Stores minimum cost edge
    C. Warshall's Algorithm	III. Stores the total cost from a source node to the current node
    D. Kruskal's algorithm	IV. Finds Minimum Spanning Tree

    List I and List II for the matching question

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Answer: (B) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

    Explanation

    Match each named graph algorithm to what it actually computes.

    A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

    Dijkstra's algorithm tracks the running total cost from the source node to the current node as it relaxes edges, matching III. Prim's algorithm grows a tree by always attaching the minimum cost edge connecting a new vertex, matching II. Warshall's algorithm computes reachability by calculating the full path matrix between all pairs of nodes, matching I. Kruskal's algorithm sorts and adds edges to directly build a minimum spanning tree, matching IV.

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73. Question 73

    Match List I with List II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. S→aSa | aa	I. ((2ⁿ*3)-4), n≥1
    B. S→aaSaa | aa	II. 2ⁿ, n≥1
    C. S→aaaSaaa | aa	III. ((4*2ⁿ)-6), n≥1
    D. S→aaaaSaaaa | aa	IV. 2ⁿ-2, n≥2

    List I and List II for the matching question

    1. AA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    2. BA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    3. CA-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
    4. DA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    Answer: (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

    Explanation

    Each grammar in List I generates strings by wrapping a fixed number of a's around the recursive call before terminating with the same block of a's: grammar A wraps 1 a per side, B wraps 2, C wraps 3, and D wraps 4, each adding that many more a's to each side per recursive step.

    A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

    Multiple independent attempts to derive each grammar's closed-form count in List II directly from its production rules -- by working out generated string length as a function of recursion depth -- did not reproduce any of the four listed expressions (2^n, (4 times 2^n)-6, (2^n times 3)-4, or 2^n-2) from first principles. That suggests List II may represent a different count than raw string length, such as the number of distinct strings derivable up to some bound, which is not recoverable from the productions alone.

    This pairing is used here as the best-available answer. A learner should not expect to re-derive the specific I-IV assignment from the grammars alone -- the exact combinatorial argument connecting each grammar to its formula remains an open question pending the source material's own worked solution.

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74. Question 74

    Match List I with List II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. CDMA	I. It provides mobile internet connection with faster data transfer rates
    B. GSM	II. It allows users to connect to a network or to other devices over wireless channel
    C. UMTS	III. Accessing mechanism for multiple transmitters over a single channel
    D. WiFi	IV. It is cellular technology employs hybrid of FDMA and TDMA

    List I and List II for the matching question

    1. AA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    2. BA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    3. CA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    4. DA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Answer: (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Match each wireless or mobile technology to what it is best known for.

    A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    CDMA is an accessing mechanism that lets multiple transmitters share one channel using distinct codes, matching III. GSM is a cellular technology built on a hybrid of FDMA and TDMA, matching IV. UMTS is the 3G technology that provides mobile internet access with faster data transfer rates, matching I. WiFi is what lets a device connect to a network or other devices over a wireless channel, matching II.

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75. Question 75

    Match List I with List II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Text planning	I. Natural language understanding
    B. Sentence planning	II. Natural language generation
    C. Sentence generation	—
    D. Map the input to useful representations	—

    List I and List II for the matching question

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-I, D-II
    2. BA-II, B-II, C-I, D-II
    3. CA-I, B-II, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-II, B-II, C-II, D-I

    Answer: (D) A-II, B-II, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    Natural language processing splits into an understanding half and a generation half, and each List I stage belongs to one of them.

    A-II, B-II, C-II, D-I

    Text planning, sentence planning, and sentence generation are all stages of producing output text, so all three belong to natural language generation, matching II. Mapping the input to useful internal representations is about interpreting incoming text, which is the job of natural language understanding, matching I.

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76. Question 76

    Consider the statements:

    A. There does not exist a polynomial time algorithm to solve integer linear programming problem.
    B. Main focus of PERT is 'minimizing time'.

    Choose the correct option about the statements A and B.

    1. AA is True; B is True
    2. BA is True; B is False
    3. CA is False; B is True
    4. DA is False; B is False

    Answer: (A) A is True; B is True

    Explanation

    Integer linear programming is NP-hard, so no polynomial time algorithm is known for it, which makes statement A true.

    PERT and CPM are commonly distinguished in project management by their focus, with PERT built around estimating and managing uncertain activity durations to plan project time, so statement B's claim that PERT centers on time is also considered true.

    Both statements are true.

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77. Question 77

    The correct sequence in fetch-execute cycle is ____

    A. Decode
    B. Fetch
    C. Execute

    Choose the correct answer from the following

    1. AA-B-C
    2. BB-C-A
    3. CC-B-A
    4. DB-A-C

    Answer: (D) B-A-C

    Explanation

    The CPU first fetches an instruction from memory, then decodes it to determine the operation and operands, and only then executes it.

    That gives the order Fetch, Decode, Execute, which is B-A-C.

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78. Question 78

    In what sequence the initialization, testing and execution of body is done while using do-while loop?

    A. Commenting
    B. Execution of the body
    C. Initialisation
    D. Testing the condition

    Choose the correct answer from the following

    1. AD,B,C
    2. BD,C,B
    3. CC,A,B
    4. DC,B,D

    Answer: (D) C,B,D

    Explanation

    A do-while loop always runs its body at least once before checking the condition.

    Execution starts with initializing any loop variables, then runs the loop body, and only after that tests the condition to decide whether to repeat, giving the order Initialisation, Execution of the body, Testing the condition, which is C,B,D.

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79. Question 79

    Select the correct order of DBSCAN algorithm.

    A. Find recursively all its density connected points and assign them to the same cluster as the core point.
    B. Find all the neighbor points within eps and identify the core points with more than MinPts neighbors.
    C. Iterate through the remaining unvisited points in the dataset.
    D. For each core point if it is not already assigned to a cluster, create a new cluster.

    Choose the correct answer from the following:

    1. AB, D, C, A
    2. BD, B, C, A
    3. CB, D, A, C
    4. DD, B, A, C

    Answer: (C) B, D, A, C

    Explanation

    DBSCAN first classifies points, then builds clusters from them, and only then moves on to what is left.

    It starts by finding each point's neighbors within eps and marking core points that have enough neighbors, which is B. For each unassigned core point it opens a new cluster, which is D. It then recursively pulls in every density-connected point and adds them to that same cluster, which is A. Finally it iterates through whatever points remain unvisited in the dataset, which is C.

    The order is B, D, A, C.

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80. Question 80

    Select the correct order of events after power is initialized on a system.

    A. Bootstrap loader is loaded from the disk
    B. Kernel is loaded onto the memory
    C. Firmware ROM loads boot block

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AB, C, A
    2. BC, A, B
    3. CA, B, C
    4. DA, C, B

    Answer: (B) C, A, B

    Explanation

    Booting proceeds from the most permanent, hardwired code toward the fully loaded operating system.

    Firmware in ROM runs first and loads the boot block, which is C. That boot block then loads the bootstrap loader from disk, which is A. The bootstrap loader finally loads the kernel into memory, which is B.

    The order is C, A, B.

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81. Question 81

    Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

    Assertion (A): Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module can be written more compactly and is able to complete its function in a timely manner.

    Reason (R): Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree to which a module is connected to other modules and the outside world.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

    1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
    2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
    3. CA is correct but R is not correct.
    4. DA is not correct but R is correct.

    Answer: (C) A is correct but R is not correct.

    Explanation

    Reason R actually defines coupling, not cohesion — coupling is the standard software engineering term for the degree to which one module is connected to other modules and the outside world. Cohesion instead measures how tightly a single module's own internal elements work together toward one purpose, so R is incorrect.

    Because R is definitely wrong, any option requiring R to be correct — "both correct" and "A incorrect but R correct" — is ruled out, which leaves only two live possibilities: both statements are wrong, or A alone is right.

    Assertion A frames cohesion as a module completing its function compactly and efficiently on its own — close enough to the standard idea of a module doing one thing well internally — so A is treated as correct rather than wrong.

    That makes A correct and R incorrect, matching option C. Assertion A's exact wording is a looser paraphrase than the textbook definition of cohesion, so if this conflicts with the official answer key, re-check the source phrasing of Assertion A against the original exam image.

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82. Question 82

    A weighted graph has vertices a, b, c, d, e, and f. Based on the edge weights, which one of the following edge orderings cannot be the order in which Kruskal's algorithm adds edges A-E while building a minimum spanning tree?

    A. a-b
    B. d-f
    C. b-f
    D. d-c
    E. d-e

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BA, B, D, C, E
    3. CB, A, C, E, D
    4. DB, A, D, C, E

    Answer: (C) B, A, C, E, D

    Explanation

    Kruskal's algorithm processes edges strictly in increasing order of weight, adding each one as long as it does not close a cycle with edges already chosen, and skipping any edge that would close one.

    Among the five edges offered (a-b, d-f, b-f, d-c, d-e), the ordering "B, A, C, E, D" -- that is, d-f, then a-b, then b-f, then d-e, then d-c -- is the sequence used as the answer here.

    The actual edge weights in this diagram were too small and densely packed on the source page to read with full confidence, so this explanation states the sequence used without asserting specific weight values that were never actually verified. A learner reviewing this question should confirm the real edge weights directly against the source image rather than relying on any reconstructed set of numbers.

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83. Question 83

    What is the safest order while simplifying Context Free Grammar?

    1. AElimination of ε-productions, Unit productions and then Useless symbols & productions.
    2. BElimination of useless symbols & productions, ε-productions and then Unit productions.
    3. CElimination of Unit productions, ε-productions and then Useless symbols and productions.
    4. DElimination of ε-productions, Useless symbols and productions and then Unit productions.

    Answer: (A) Elimination of ε-productions, Unit productions and then Useless symbols & productions.

    Explanation

    Removing productions in the wrong order can reintroduce the very problems already cleaned up, which is why compiler theory fixes a specific safe order.

    Eliminating ε-productions first prevents new unit productions from appearing, then eliminating unit productions next prevents new useless symbols from being missed, and eliminating useless symbols last removes anything left disconnected by the previous two steps.

    This gives the safest order as ε-productions, then unit productions, then useless symbols and productions.

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84. Question 84

    Rearrange the following sequence in the context of OSI Layers:

    A. Transforming the raw bits in the form of frame for transmission
    B. Transmission of raw bits over communication channel
    C. Handling user interfaces
    D. Control and monitoring of subnet
    E. Transmission data through connection oriented or connection less using datagrams

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AA-B-C-D-E
    2. BB-C-D-E-A
    3. CB-A-D-E-C
    4. DA-B-D-E-C

    Answer: (C) B-A-D-E-C

    Explanation

    Match each description to its OSI layer, then order the layers from physical up to application.

    Transmitting raw bits over the channel is the Physical layer (B). Framing those raw bits for transmission is the Data Link layer (A). Controlling and monitoring the subnet is the Network layer (D). Delivering data connection-oriented or connectionless using datagrams is the Transport layer (E). Handling user interfaces is the Application layer (C).

    Ordering these from the bottom of the stack to the top gives B, A, D, E, C.

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85. Question 85

    Choose the correct option describing the features of Artificial neural network

    A. It is essentially machine learning algorithm.
    B. It is useful when solving the problems for which the data set is very large.
    C. They are able to extract features without input from the programmer.
    D. These are systems modeled on the human brain and nervous system

    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. AAll the statements are correct.
    2. BOnly B & C are correct.
    3. COnly A & D are correct.
    4. DAll the statements are not correct.

    Answer: (A) All the statements are correct.

    Explanation

    Artificial neural networks are a machine learning technique, they scale well to large datasets, they automatically learn features from data without hand-engineering, and they are explicitly modeled on the structure of biological neurons.

    All four listed features are accurate descriptions of artificial neural networks.

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86. Question 86

    Four persons, P, Q, R and S, are in police custody and one of them has committed a crime. They confess as follows:

    Person P: Q did it.
    Person Q: S did it.
    Person R: I did not do it.
    Person S: Q lied.

    If exactly one of the statements is false, which of the following is the guilty person.

    1. AP
    2. BQ
    3. CR
    4. DS

    Answer: (B) Q

    Explanation

    Test each suspect as the guilty one and count how many statements turn out false, because exactly one false statement must fit the guilty person.

    If Q is guilty, P's claim "Q did it" is true, Q's claim "S did it" is false, R's claim "I did not do it" is true, and S's claim "Q lied" is true since Q's statement was indeed false. That gives exactly one false statement.

    Checking the other three suspects each produces two or three false statements instead of one, so Q is the only guilty person consistent with exactly one false statement.

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87. Question 87

    Assertion (A): A Raster scan device is a CRT graphic device and can use a television monitor for display.

    Reason (R): In Raster scan display the picture is composed of a series of dots. These dots are traced out as a series of horizontal lines. Television works in a similar fashion.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. BBoth A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    3. CA is true but R is false
    4. DA is false but R is true

    Answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    A raster scan CRT builds its image from a series of dots traced out along horizontal scan lines, which is exactly how a television picture tube also draws its image.

    That shared horizontal-line scanning mechanism is precisely why a raster scan device can reuse television display hardware, so Reason R directly explains why Assertion A is true.

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88. Question 88

    An OS follows round-robin scheduling with time quantum of 4ms. Assuming that the CPU is free now and there are 20 processes waiting in the ready queue, the maximum amount of time that a process waits before getting into the CPU is ________.

    1. A80ms
    2. B76ms
    3. C84ms
    4. DNone of the above

    Answer: (B) 76ms

    Explanation

    In round robin, a process's worst-case wait happens when it sits at the very back of the queue and every other process runs its full time quantum first.

    With 20 total processes, the unluckiest process must wait for the other 19 to each use their full quantum.

    Maximum wait = 19 × 4ms = 76ms

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89. Question 89

    Statement I: Given a graph G=(V,E) in which each vertex v in V has an associated positive weight w(v), we can use linear programming to find the lower bound on the weight of the minimum-weight vertex cover.

    Statement II: The lower bound can be found by maximizing the objective Σ w(v)x(v) over all v in V, subject to x(u)+x(v) ≥ 1 for each edge (u,v) in E.

    In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

    1. ABoth statement I and Statement II are correct
    2. BBoth statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    4. DStatement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

    Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

    Explanation

    Linear programming relaxation is a standard technique for bounding weighted vertex cover, so Statement I correctly describes a real approach.

    The standard LP relaxation for minimum weight vertex cover minimizes Σ w(v)x(v) subject to x(u)+x(v)≥1 for every edge, because minimizing a covering objective under a relaxed LP gives a lower bound on the true integer optimum.

    Maximizing that same objective, as Statement II proposes, does not produce a lower bound on a minimization problem at all, so Statement II describes the wrong direction of optimization and is incorrect.

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90. Question 90

    A TCP Server application is programmed to listen on port P on Host S. A TCP Client is connected to the TCP Server over the network. Consider that while the TCP Connection is active the server is crashed and rebooted. Assume that the client does not use a TCP keepalive timer. Which of the following behaviours is/are possible?

    Statement I: If client is waiting to receive a packet, it may wait indefinitely

    Statement II: If the client sends a packet after the server reboot, it will receive the FIN segment

    In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

    1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
    2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
    3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
    4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

    Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

    Explanation

    A client that is passively blocked waiting for data has no built-in way to detect a silent server crash, since without a keepalive timer nothing prompts it to check whether the connection is still alive, so Statement I is true, it may wait indefinitely.

    After rebooting, the server's TCP stack has no memory of the old connection at all, so any packet the client sends for that connection is unrecognized. A host that receives a segment for a connection it has no record of replies with a RST, not a FIN, because FIN is reserved for gracefully closing a connection the host still knows about, so Statement II is false.

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91. Question 91

    An organization is granted the block 130.56.0.0/16. The administrator wants to create 1024 subnets.

    Find the number of addresses in each subnet

    1. A32
    2. B64
    3. C128
    4. D16

    Answer: (B) 64

    Explanation

    A /16 block has 2^16 total addresses, and splitting it evenly into 1024 subnets divides that pool among them.

    Addresses per subnet = 65536 / 1024 = 64

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92. Question 92

    An organization is granted the block 130.56.0.0/16. The administrator wants to create 1024 subnets.

    What will be the prefix length of each subnet?

    1. A/24
    2. B/25
    3. C/26
    4. D/27

    Answer: (C) /26

    Explanation

    Creating 1024 equal subnets from a /16 block requires borrowing enough host bits to distinguish 1024 subnets.

    1024 = 2^10, so 10 bits must be borrowed from the host portion.

    New prefix length = 16 + 10 = /26

    The official answer key for this exact sitting lists a different option here, but that would require a /24 prefix (256 addresses per subnet), which directly contradicts the same key's own confirmed answer to the "addresses per subnet" question in this set (64 addresses, which only a /26 prefix produces). Because those two answers cannot both be correct for the same subnetting scenario, /26 is kept here as the internally consistent answer, and this conflict is noted for a human to double-check against the original key.

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93. Question 93

    An organization is granted the block 130.56.0.0/16. The administrator wants to create 1024 subnets.

    Find first and last addresses of the first subnet.

    1. A130.56.0.0 130.56.254.254
    2. B130.56.0.0 130.56.0.63
    3. C130.0.0.0 130.255.255.255
    4. D130.56.0.0 130.56.255.63

    Answer: (B) 130.56.0.0 130.56.0.63

    Explanation

    Each subnet holds 64 addresses, so the first subnet simply starts at the block's own first address and runs for 64 addresses.

    The first subnet spans 130.56.0.0 through 130.56.0.63, since 0 through 63 is exactly 64 consecutive addresses.

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94. Question 94

    An organization is granted the block 130.56.0.0/16. The administrator wants to create 1024 subnets.

    Find first and last addresses of the last subnet.

    1. A130.56.0.0 130.56.254.255
    2. B130.56.255.0 130.56.255.255
    3. C130.56.0.192 130.255.255.255
    4. D130.56.255.192 130.56.255.255

    Answer: (D) 130.56.255.192 130.56.255.255

    Explanation

    The last of 1024 subnets, each holding 64 addresses, starts 64 addresses before the very end of the /16 block.

    The block's last address is 130.56.255.255, so the last subnet's first address is 65536 − 64 = 65472 addresses from the start, which works out to 130.56.255.192.

    The last subnet spans 130.56.255.192 through 130.56.255.255.

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95. Question 95

    An organization is granted the block 130.56.0.0/16. The administrator wants to create 1024 subnets.

    Find the subnet mask.

    1. A255.255.255.0
    2. B255.255.255.128
    3. C255.255.255.192
    4. D255.255.255.224

    Answer: (C) 255.255.255.192

    Explanation

    A /26 prefix sets the first 26 bits of the address to 1, which spans all of the first three octets plus the top two bits of the fourth octet.

    The fourth octet's top two bits set gives 11000000 in binary, which is 192 in decimal.

    The subnet mask is 255.255.255.192.

    NTA's official final answer key for this exact sitting marked this question as dropped (full marks awarded to all candidates). The mask 255.255.255.192 is the direct, unambiguous consequence of the confirmed /26 prefix used elsewhere in this same question set, so the drop does not appear to reflect any ambiguity in the mask itself.

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96. Question 96

    A Turing Machine for the language L={aⁿbᵐcⁿdᵐ | n≥1, m≥1} is designed. Part of its transition function 'δ' is given in a transition table, where X1 and X2 are used to work with 'a's and 'c's, and Y1 and Y2 are used to handle 'b's and 'd's of the given string. The table has state q1 moving right over 'a', 'b' and 'X2' while staying in q1, and reaching an unmarked 'c' triggers the move recorded as cell 'M1'.

    What is the move in cell 'M1'?

    q	a	b	c	X1	X2	Y1	Y2
    q0	(q1,X1,R)			M2
    q1	(q1,a,R)	(q1,b,R)	M1		(q1,X2,R)
    q2	(q2,a,L)	(q2,b,L)		(q2,X1,R)	(q2,X2,L)
    q3	M3	(q4,Y1,R)			(q6,X2,R)
    q4		(q4,b,R)	(q5,Y2,L)		M5		(q4,Y2,R)
    q5		(q5,b,L)			(q5,X2,L)	M4	(q5,Y2,L)
    q6					(q6,X2,R)		(q7,Y2,R)
    q7							(q7,Y2,R)

    Partial transition table for the Turing machine, with cells M1-M5 to be determined

    1. A(q2,X2,R)
    2. B(q2,X2,L)
    3. C(q3,X2,L)
    4. DError Entry

    Answer: (B) (q2,X2,L)

    Explanation

    State q1 scans right past everything already handled in this pass, remaining a's, remaining b's, and c's already marked X2 from earlier passes, because its job is to find the next unmarked c, the one that pairs with the a just marked as X1.

    Once that unmarked c is found, it must be marked the same way (X2) so it is never matched twice, and the head must then reverse to head back left toward the next unmarked a to start the following round. That gives (q2, X2, L): mark the c, then move left into the return-scan state q2.

    This matches the skip-and-mark pattern shown elsewhere in the table: q1's own X2 column already skips right over previously marked c's the same way, and q2's row exists specifically to scan back left toward the a-block.

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97. Question 97

    A Turing Machine for the language L={aⁿbᵐcⁿdᵐ | n≥1, m≥1} is designed. Part of its transition function 'δ' is given in a transition table, where X1 and X2 are used to work with 'a's and 'c's, and Y1 and Y2 are used to handle 'b's and 'd's of the given string. In this table, state q0 marks the leftmost unmarked 'a' as X1 and moves right, and seeing an already-marked 'X1' triggers the move recorded as cell 'M2'.

    What is the move in cell 'M2'?

    q	a	b	c	X1	X2	Y1	Y2
    q0	(q1,X1,R)			M2
    q1	(q1,a,R)	(q1,b,R)	M1		(q1,X2,R)
    q2	(q2,a,L)	(q2,b,L)		(q2,X1,R)	(q2,X2,L)
    q3	M3	(q4,Y1,R)			(q6,X2,R)
    q4		(q4,b,R)	(q5,Y2,L)		M5		(q4,Y2,R)
    q5		(q5,b,L)			(q5,X2,L)	M4	(q5,Y2,L)
    q6					(q6,X2,R)		(q7,Y2,R)
    q7							(q7,Y2,R)

    Partial transition table for the Turing machine, with cells M1-M5 to be determined

    1. A(q1,X1,R)
    2. B(q1,a,R)
    3. C(q2,X1,R)
    4. DError Entry

    Answer: (D) Error Entry

    Explanation

    State q0 is used exactly once, right at the very start of the computation, to mark the very first unmarked 'a' as X1 before handing off to q1's rightward scan.

    Scanning every other row in this table for a transition that leads back into q0 turns up nothing: q1 and q2 only ever transition into q1, q2, or (once the b/d phase begins) onward into q3 and beyond, never back into q0. The state that rechecks for more unmarked a's after the first round is q3, not q0 (see the companion question about cell M3).

    Because nothing in the machine's design ever sends the head back to q0 after that first step, q0 can only ever be sitting on a fresh, unmarked 'a' the one time it runs. Seeing an already-marked X1 in state q0 is a symbol-state combination that never legitimately arises in a valid computation, so the correct entry for M2 is (D) Error Entry, not a defined transition.

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98. Question 98

    A Turing Machine for the language L={aⁿbᵐcⁿdᵐ | n≥1, m≥1} is designed. Part of its transition function 'δ' is given in a transition table, where X1 and X2 are used to work with 'a's and 'c's, and Y1 and Y2 are used to handle 'b's and 'd's of the given string. In this table, state q3 is reached after the a-c marking phase, and seeing an unmarked 'a' from q3 triggers the move recorded as cell 'M3'.

    What is the move in cell 'M3'?

    q	a	b	c	X1	X2	Y1	Y2
    q0	(q1,X1,R)			M2
    q1	(q1,a,R)	(q1,b,R)	M1		(q1,X2,R)
    q2	(q2,a,L)	(q2,b,L)		(q2,X1,R)	(q2,X2,L)
    q3	M3	(q4,Y1,R)			(q6,X2,R)
    q4		(q4,b,R)	(q5,Y2,L)		M5		(q4,Y2,R)
    q5		(q5,b,L)			(q5,X2,L)	M4	(q5,Y2,L)
    q6					(q6,X2,R)		(q7,Y2,R)
    q7							(q7,Y2,R)

    Partial transition table for the Turing machine, with cells M1-M5 to be determined

    1. A(q1,X1,L)
    2. B(q4,X1,R)
    3. C(q1,X1,R)
    4. DError Entry

    Answer: (C) (q1,X1,R)

    Explanation

    State q0 only ever runs once, at the very start, to mark the first 'a' (see the companion question about cell M2: nothing in this table ever transitions back into q0). After marking one 'a', q1 scans right to find its matching c, and q2 scans back left to the a/X1 boundary -- but some state still has to check whether more unmarked a's remain before phase one can safely hand off to the b/d-matching phase, and that job falls to q3.

    So q3 is reached after each single a-c pairing completes, not only once at the very end of the whole phase, and its role for an unmarked 'a' is exactly q0's role: mark it as X1 and move right into q1's scan to find its matching c. That gives (q1, X1, R) for cell M3 -- the same action q0 itself takes, just triggered again on a later pass.

    This also explains why q3 exists as a state distinct from q0: q0 is the one-time entry point for the very first 'a', and q3 is the loop-back point that keeps the a-c matching phase going until no unmarked a's remain, at which point q3's other columns (on 'b' and on already-marked 'X2') hand off to the b/d-matching phase instead.

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99. Question 99

    A Turing Machine for the language L={aⁿbᵐcⁿdᵐ | n≥1, m≥1} is designed. Part of its transition function 'δ' is given in a transition table, where X1 and X2 are used to work with 'a's and 'c's, and Y1 and Y2 are used to handle 'b's and 'd's of the given string. In this table, state q5 moves left over 'b', already-marked 'X2' and already-marked 'Y2', and seeing an already-marked 'Y1' triggers the move recorded as cell 'M4'.

    What is the move in cell 'M4'?

    q	a	b	c	X1	X2	Y1	Y2
    q0	(q1,X1,R)			M2
    q1	(q1,a,R)	(q1,b,R)	M1		(q1,X2,R)
    q2	(q2,a,L)	(q2,b,L)		(q2,X1,R)	(q2,X2,L)
    q3	M3	(q4,Y1,R)			(q6,X2,R)
    q4		(q4,b,R)	(q5,Y2,L)		M5		(q4,Y2,R)
    q5		(q5,b,L)			(q5,X2,L)	M4	(q5,Y2,L)
    q6					(q6,X2,R)		(q7,Y2,R)
    q7							(q7,Y2,R)

    Partial transition table for the Turing machine, with cells M1-M5 to be determined

    1. A(q5,Y1,L)
    2. B(q3,Y1,R)
    3. C(q4,Y1,L)
    4. D(q3,Y1,L)

    Answer: (A) (q5,Y1,L)

    Explanation

    State q5 is the leftward return-scan for the b/d-matching phase, and its other columns that are given directly in the table — 'b', X2, and Y2 — all do the same thing: stay in q5 and keep moving left over whatever the scan has already processed.

    An already-marked Y1 (a 'b' that an earlier pass already matched to a 'd') is exactly that kind of already-processed symbol, so the consistent reading is that q5 treats it the same way as its other three columns: stay in q5, keep moving left. That gives (q5, Y1, L).

    This is the best-supported answer among the four choices because it matches the pattern shown by every other filled-in cell in q5's own row, not just a guess by analogy with a different state.

    One caution for anyone re-checking this table: the header row is missing a column for raw 'd', pointing to a likely gap in the extracted table relative to the source image. It is still worth confirming this specific cell against the original diagram.

    NTA's official final answer key for this exact sitting marked this question as dropped (full marks awarded to all candidates), consistent with the missing-'d'-column ambiguity noted above.

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100. Question 100

     A Turing Machine for the language L={aⁿbᵐcⁿdᵐ | n≥1, m≥1} is designed. Part of its transition function 'δ' is given in a transition table, where X1 and X2 are used to work with 'a's and 'c's, and Y1 and Y2 are used to handle 'b's and 'd's of the given string. In this table, state q4 moves right over 'b' and already-marked 'Y2' while heading toward the next unmarked 'c', and seeing an already-marked 'X2' triggers the move recorded as cell 'M5'.

     What is the move in cell 'M5'?

     q	a	b	c	X1	X2	Y1	Y2
     q0	(q1,X1,R)			M2
     q1	(q1,a,R)	(q1,b,R)	M1		(q1,X2,R)
     q2	(q2,a,L)	(q2,b,L)		(q2,X1,R)	(q2,X2,L)
     q3	M3	(q4,Y1,R)			(q6,X2,R)
     q4		(q4,b,R)	(q5,Y2,L)		M5		(q4,Y2,R)
     q5		(q5,b,L)			(q5,X2,L)	M4	(q5,Y2,L)
     q6					(q6,X2,R)		(q7,Y2,R)
     q7							(q7,Y2,R)

     Partial transition table for the Turing machine, with cells M1-M5 to be determined

     1. A(q4,X2,R)
     2. B(q5,X2,R)
     3. C(q5,X2,L)
     4. DError Entry

     Answer: (A) (q4,X2,R)

     Explanation

     State q4 is the rightward scan for the b/d-matching phase, mirroring q1's role in the a/c phase. Its other given columns — 'b' and Y2 — both stay in q4 and keep moving right over symbols already processed: remaining b's, and d's already marked Y2 from earlier passes.

     An already-marked X2 is a 'c' that was fully consumed back in the a/c-matching phase, so it sits in q4's path as the scan crosses the c-block on its way toward the d's. The consistent reading is to skip it the same way as the row's other columns: stay in q4, keep moving right. That gives (q4, X2, R).

     This matches the pattern shown by q4's own other filled-in cells in the same row.

     One caution for anyone re-checking this table: the header row is missing a column for raw 'd', even though this same row's 'c' column oddly already transitions away with a Y2 mark — behaviour that would make more sense under a 'd' column than a 'c' column. That points to a likely labeling gap in the extracted table, so it is worth confirming the full row against the source image.

     NTA's official final answer key for this exact sitting marked this question as dropped (full marks awarded to all candidates), consistent with the missing-'d'-column ambiguity noted above.

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