UGC NET Computer Science & Applications January 2025 Question PaperPaper 1 & Paper 2 with Answer Key

50 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   What is the difference between the total number of Cornmeal hotcakes sold by bakery A and bakery D together, and the number of Swedish hotcakes sold by bakery A?

   Bakery shops prepare Cornmeal, American and Swedish hotcakes. Total sold equals the sum of the three varieties; American sales are always greater than Cornmeal sales.

   Bakery	Total sold	Cornmeal sold	American − Cornmeal
   A	1200	320	40
   B	1080	280	120
   C	1000	360	80
   D	1320	420	40

   Bakery-wise Sale Details of Hotcakes on Monday

   1. A175
   2. B200
   3. C150
   4. D220

   Answer: (D) 220

   Explanation

   Bakery A sells 360 American hotcakes, so its Swedish sales are 1200 − 320 − 360 = 520. Cornmeal sales for A and D total 320 + 420 = 740; the required difference is 740 − 520 = 220. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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2. Question 2

   If the number of Cornmeal hotcakes sold by bakery B on Tuesday is 20% more than that on Monday, the ratio of American to Swedish hotcakes sold by bakery B on Tuesday is 4:5, and American sales are 320, what is the total number of hotcakes sold by bakery B on Tuesday?

   Bakery shops prepare Cornmeal, American and Swedish hotcakes. Total sold equals the sum of the three varieties; American sales are always greater than Cornmeal sales.

   Bakery	Total sold	Cornmeal sold	American − Cornmeal
   A	1200	320	40
   B	1080	280	120
   C	1000	360	80
   D	1320	420	40

   Bakery-wise Sale Details of Hotcakes on Monday

   1. A1056
   2. B1150
   3. C1200
   4. D1000

   Answer: (A) 1056

   Explanation

   Tuesday Cornmeal sales are 1.2 × 280 = 336. With American:Swedish = 4:5 and American sales 320, Swedish sales are 400; total sales are 336 + 320 + 400 = 1056. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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3. Question 3

   The number of American hotcakes sold by bakery A is what percent more than the number of Swedish hotcakes sold by bakery C?

   Bakery shops prepare Cornmeal, American and Swedish hotcakes. Total sold equals the sum of the three varieties; American sales are always greater than Cornmeal sales.

   Bakery	Total sold	Cornmeal sold	American − Cornmeal
   A	1200	320	40
   B	1080	280	120
   C	1000	360	80
   D	1320	420	40

   Bakery-wise Sale Details of Hotcakes on Monday

   1. A20
   2. B80
   3. C180
   4. D40

   Answer: (B) 80

   Explanation

   American sales for A are 320 + 40 = 360. Swedish sales for C are 1000 − 360 − 440 = 200. The excess is 160, and 160/200 × 100 = 80%, so option B is correct. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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4. Question 4

   For another bakery E, the total number of hotcakes sold is 120 less than that of bakery D. Cornmeal sales are 40% of E’s total, American sales are 35%, and the remaining sales are Swedish. What is the number of Swedish hotcakes sold by E?

   Bakery shops prepare Cornmeal, American and Swedish hotcakes. Total sold equals the sum of the three varieties; American sales are always greater than Cornmeal sales.

   Bakery	Total sold	Cornmeal sold	American − Cornmeal
   A	1200	320	40
   B	1080	280	120
   C	1000	360	80
   D	1320	420	40

   Bakery-wise Sale Details of Hotcakes on Monday

   1. A210
   2. B300
   3. C250
   4. D400

   Answer: (B) 300

   Explanation

   Bakery E sells 1320 − 120 = 1200 hotcakes. Cornmeal and American account for 40% + 35% = 75%, leaving 25% for Swedish hotcakes. Thus Swedish sales are 0.25 × 1200 = 300. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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5. Question 5

   What is the ratio of the number of American hotcakes sold by bakery C to the number of Swedish hotcakes sold by bakery D?

   Bakery shops prepare Cornmeal, American and Swedish hotcakes. Total sold equals the sum of the three varieties; American sales are always greater than Cornmeal sales.

   Bakery	Total sold	Cornmeal sold	American − Cornmeal
   A	1200	320	40
   B	1080	280	120
   C	1000	360	80
   D	1320	420	40

   Bakery-wise Sale Details of Hotcakes on Monday

   1. A3:5
   2. B5:2
   3. C1:1
   4. D4:3

   Answer: (C) 1:1

   Explanation

   American sales for C are 360 + 80 = 440. For D, American sales are 420 + 40 = 460, so Swedish sales are 1320 − 420 − 460 = 440. The ratio is therefore 440:440 = 1:1. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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6. Question 6

   Which of the following tools can be used to create a virtual science-lab experience?

   A. Kahoot!
   B. Labster
   C. Turnitin
   D. PhET simulation
   E. Padlet

   Choose the correct answer.

   1. AA, B and D only
   2. BC and E only
   3. CA and E only
   4. DB and D only

   Answer: (D) B and D only

   Explanation

   Labster provides virtual laboratory simulations and PhET provides interactive science simulations. Kahoot!, Turnitin, and Padlet serve different educational purposes. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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7. Question 7

   निम्नलिखित में से कौन से विपरीत तर्क-वाक्य हैं?

   A. सभी कवि स्वप्रज्ञ होते हैं
   B. कुछ कवि स्वप्रज्ञ होते हैं
   C. कुछ कवि स्वप्रज्ञ नहीं होते हैं
   D. कोई वर्ग वृत्त नहीं होते हैं
   E. कोई कवि स्वप्रज्ञ नहीं होते हैं

   नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही उत्तर का चयन कीजिए:

   1. AD and E only
   2. BC and D only
   3. CB and D only
   4. DA and E only

   Answer: (D) A and E only

   Explanation

   The universal affirmative “All poets are self-aware” and the universal negative “No poets are self-aware” are contrary propositions: they cannot both be true, though both can be false. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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8. Question 8

   Android is a mobile operating system developed by

   1. AIBM
   2. BApple
   3. CMicrosoft
   4. DGoogle

   Answer: (D) Google

   Explanation

   Android was developed by Android Inc. and acquired and developed by Google; it is the operating system associated with Google’s mobile ecosystem. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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9. Question 9

   If, in a certain coding scheme, “DELHI” is coded as 5613910, then how is “MUMBAI” coded in this scheme?

   1. A1422143210
   2. B132113219
   3. C122012108
   4. D1523154311

   Answer: (C) 122012108

   Explanation

   The code concatenates alphabet positions: D=4, E=5, L=12, H=8 and I=9, with the displayed sequence using the scheme’s positional transformation. Applying the same rule to MUMBAI gives the keyed option.

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10. Question 10

    Which air pollutant causes serious health issues because of its greater affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen?

    1. ASO₂ (sulphur dioxide)
    2. BCO (carbon monoxide)
    3. CCO₂ (carbon dioxide)
    4. DO₃ (ozone)

    Answer: (B) CO (carbon monoxide)

    Explanation

    Carbon monoxide forms carboxyhaemoglobin very readily, preventing haemoglobin from carrying adequate oxygen. The other gases are harmful but do not produce this high-affinity binding effect.

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11. Question 11

    निम्नलिखित में से हाइड्रोइलेक्ट्रिक विद्युत संयंत्र के कौन-कौन से प्रभाव हैं?

    A. भू-निम्नीकरण / अवक्रमण
    B. सूक्ष्म-भूकंपता
    C. ग्रीन हाउस गैस उत्सर्जन
    D. जल प्रदूषण
    E. धूम्र कोहरे का निर्माण

    नीचे दिए गए विकल्पों में से सही उत्तर का चयन कीजिए:

    1. Aकेवल A, B, C और D
    2. Bकेवल A, C, D और E
    3. Cकेवल A, B, D और E
    4. Dकेवल B, C और E

    Answer: (A) केवल A, B, C और D

    Explanation

    Hydroelectric projects can cause land degradation, reservoir-induced microseismicity, greenhouse-gas emissions from reservoirs, and water-quality effects. Smog formation is not a characteristic direct impact.

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12. Question 12

    Which of the following were initiatives taken during the Third Five Year Plan?

    A. Removal of the diploma-course system
    B. Provision for correspondence courses
    C. Establishment of additional colleges including regional engineering colleges
    D. Appointment of a working group on technical education
    E. Less emphasis on trained manpower

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DA, D and E only

    Answer: (B) B, C and D only

    Explanation

    The plan expanded higher and technical education through correspondence courses, additional colleges and regional engineering colleges, and planning for technical education. “Less emphasis on trained manpower” is inconsistent with this expansion.

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13. Question 13

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I (Definition)	List-II (Characteristic)
    A. Stipulative B. Lexical C. Precising D. Theoretical	I. Used to eliminate ambiguity II. Encapsulate a larger understanding of theory III. Neither accurate nor inaccurate IV. Report the meaning of the definiendum

    1. AA-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
    2. BA-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
    3. CA-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
    4. DA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    A stipulative definition assigns a meaning and is neither true nor false; lexical definitions report established meaning; precising definitions reduce ambiguity; theoretical definitions encapsulate a theory.

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14. Question 14

    The committee for the establishment of a national open university was headed by

    1. AG. Parthasarathy
    2. BG. Rami Reddy
    3. CHari Gautam
    4. DK. L. Srimali

    Answer: (A) G. Parthasarathy

    Explanation

    The G. Parthasarathy Committee recommended establishing a national open university, an initiative that ultimately led to IGNOU. The other names are associated with different educational bodies or reforms.

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15. Question 15

    If (L)ₘ represents a number L in base-M, identify the correct ascending order of:

    A. (11011.11)₂
    B. (131.2)₄
    C. (25.5)₈
    D. (16.6)₁₆

    1. AC, D, B, A
    2. BC, D, A, B
    3. CA, C, D, B
    4. DB, A, C, D

    Answer: (B) C, D, A, B

    Explanation

    Convert each numeral: C=2×8+5+5/8=21.625; D=1×16+6+6/16=22.375; A=27.75; and B=29.5. Hence the ascending order is C, D, A, B. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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16. Question 16

    Situated cognition is

    1. Athe idea that thinking is located in social and physical contexts, not solely within an individual’s mind
    2. Ba student’s general knowledge about the world
    3. Cthe belief that one can master a situation and produce positive outcomes
    4. Da schema of an event

    Answer: (A) the idea that thinking is located in social and physical contexts, not solely within an individual’s mind

    Explanation

    Situated cognition holds that learning and thinking are shaped by the activity, tools, people and setting in which they occur. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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17. Question 17

    If 7 : x = 17.5 : 22.5, find x.

    1. A9
    2. B12
    3. C15
    4. D8

    Answer: (A) 9

    Explanation

    Equate the ratios: 7/x = 17.5/22.5. Cross-multiplication gives 17.5x = 157.5, so x = 9; the other values do not preserve the given proportion. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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18. Question 18

    Which are characteristics of computer-mediated mass communication?

    A. One-way communication
    B. Massification
    C. Interactivity
    D. Demassification
    E. Asynchroneity

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DA, B and E only

    Answer: (C) C, D and E only

    Explanation

    Digital communication supports interactivity, personalised or demassified communication, and asynchronous exchange. One-way massification describes traditional broadcast media more closely. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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19. Question 19

    एक परिस्थिति से दूसरी परिस्थिति में अधिगम का अंतरण जो चेतन और प्रयत्नपूर्ण है, को कहा जाता है:

    1. Aफार-रोड अंतरण
    2. Bहाई-रोड अंतरण
    3. Cनियर-रोड अंतरण
    4. Dलॉन्ग-रोड अंतरण

    Answer: (B) हाई-रोड अंतरण

    Explanation

    High-road transfer is deliberate and mindful application of learning from one context to another. Near-road transfer is more automatic because the situations are very similar. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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20. Question 20

    Which one of the following has the highest turbidity?

    1. ADrinking water
    2. BMuddy water
    3. CClear lake water
    4. DOcean water

    Answer: (B) Muddy water

    Explanation

    Turbidity measures cloudiness caused by suspended particles. Muddy water contains the greatest visible suspended load. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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21. Question 21

    Which of the following are strategies of co-operative learning?

    A. Rally coach
    B. Talking chips
    C. Schedule
    D. Round table
    E. Think-pair-share

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA, B, D and E only
    2. BB and E only
    3. CA, C and E only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (A) A, B, D and E only

    Explanation

    Rally coach, talking chips, round table and think-pair-share are cooperative-learning structures. A schedule is not a cooperative-learning strategy. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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22. Question 22

    Which independent malicious program propagates itself across a network by exploiting security flaws in widely used services?

    1. AComputer worm
    2. BComputer virus
    3. CTrojan horse
    4. DLogic bomb

    Answer: (A) Computer worm

    Explanation

    A worm self-propagates over networks, often by exploiting a vulnerability. A virus normally requires a host file; a Trojan disguises itself; a logic bomb triggers on a condition. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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23. Question 23

    The tendency of researchers to subtly and inadvertently affect participants’ behaviour, obscuring the true effect of the independent variable, is called

    1. AResponse bias
    2. BExperimenter bias
    3. CSocial desirability bias
    4. DHawthorne effect

    Answer: (B) Experimenter bias

    Explanation

    Experimenter bias occurs when an investigator’s expectations or conduct unintentionally influence participants or observations. Response and social-desirability biases arise from participants, while the Hawthorne effect is behaviour change from being observed.

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24. Question 24

    Sound with frequencies below and above the audible range are known as

    1. AA and C
    2. BB and C
    3. CB and D
    4. DA and D

    Answer: (C) B and D

    Explanation

    Frequencies below the lower limit of human hearing are infrasound, while frequencies above the upper limit are ultrasound. Thus B and D are the required pair; “feeble” and “parasound” are not the standard categories.

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25. Question 25

    A man walks 12 km towards south and then 7 km towards north. From here he walks 5 km towards his left. How far and in which direction is the man with reference to his starting point?

    1. A5 km, north-west
    2. B5 km, south-west
    3. C5√2 km, south-west
    4. D5√2 km, south-east

    Answer: (C) 5√2 km, south-west

    Explanation

    After the first two moves he is 5 km south of the start. Facing north, his left is west, so he then moves 5 km west. The displacement has equal south and west components, giving 5√2 km to the south-west.

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26. Question 26

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: μ; (1/N)Σxᵢ²	List-II: σ
    A. 3; 90 B. 4; 116 C. 5; 146 D. 6; 180	I. 12 II. 11 III. 9 IV. 10

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    Answer: (C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Explanation

    Use σ² = (1/N)Σxᵢ² − μ². The four variances are 81, 100, 121 and 144, whose standard deviations are 9, 10, 11 and 12 respectively; this gives A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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27. Question 27

    सूची I के साथ सूची II का मिलान कीजिए।

    सूची I (विद्वान)	सूची II (विशेषज्ञता)
    A. ब्रह्मगुप्त B. कौटिल्य C. पतंजलि D. चरक	I. राजनीतिक रणनीतिज्ञ II. योग III. चिकित्सक IV. गणितज्ञ

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    The pairs are Brahmagupta–mathematician, Kautilya–political strategist, Patanjali–yoga, and Charaka–physician. This produces the keyed matching sequence. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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28. Question 28

    Find the number that can replace the question mark in the series: 21, 22, 26, 35, 51, ?

    1. A62
    2. B66
    3. C86
    4. D76

    Answer: (D) 76

    Explanation

    The successive additions are +1, +4, +9 and +16, i.e. consecutive squares. The next addition is +25, so the missing number is 51 + 25 = 76. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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29. Question 29

    Identify the variables associated with an interval scale of measurement:

    A. Time of day in 24-hour format
    B. Date of birth
    C. Weight
    D. Height

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AA and B only
    2. BC and D only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DA only

    Answer: (A) A and B only

    Explanation

    Clock time and calendar dates have meaningful equal intervals but no true zero, so they are interval-scale variables. Weight and height have a meaningful zero and are ratio-scale variables. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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30. Question 30

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Modelling B. Scaffolding C. Articulation D. Exploration	I. Helping a learner begin and gradually fading support II. Searching for new information and verifying it III. Observing expert performance IV. Giving words to understanding of process and content

    1. AA-IV, B-II, C-II, D-I
    2. BA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    3. CA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    4. DA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

    Answer: (B) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    Explanation

    In cognitive apprenticeship, modelling is observing an expert, scaffolding is support that is gradually withdrawn, articulation is putting understanding into words, and exploration is independently seeking and verifying information.

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31. Question 31

    नैयायिकों के अनुसार जब हम एक पात्र को प्रत्यक्ष देखते हैं, तो हम निम्न में से किस के कारण सामान्य “पात्रता” को उसके परिभाषक गुण के रूप में देखते हैं?

    1. Aयोगज
    2. Bअनुमान
    3. Cज्ञान लक्षण
    4. Dसामान्य लक्षण

    Answer: (D) सामान्य लक्षण

    Explanation

    Nyāya recognises sāmānya-lakṣaṇa perception as the cognition of a universal through an individual. Here the universal “pot-ness” is apprehended through the perceived pot. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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32. Question 32

    Arrange the following in the correct order of their appearance in APA-style journal article referencing:

    A. Name of journal in italics
    B. DOI
    C. Initials of author
    D. Title of article

    1. AA, B, C, D
    2. BB, C, D, A
    3. CC, D, A, B
    4. DD, A, B, C

    Answer: (C) C, D, A, B

    Explanation

    A reference begins with the author initials, followed by the article title, journal title in italics, and DOI. Thus the correct sequence is C, D, A, B. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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33. Question 33

    “Step on scale, please” represents which function of language?

    1. AInformative
    2. BExpressive
    3. CDirective
    4. DPerformative

    Answer: (C) Directive

    Explanation

    The utterance requests that the listener take an action, so its primary function is directive rather than informative or expressive. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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34. Question 34

    Identify the chronological sequence of the following organisations:

    A. Associated Press
    B. A. C. Nielsen
    C. Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences
    D. Al Jazeera
    E. Federal Communications Commission

    1. AA, B, C, E, D
    2. BB, D, E, C, A
    3. CE, C, A, D, B
    4. DB, C, E, A, D

    Answer: (D) B, C, E, A, D

    Explanation

    Associated Press predates Nielsen, the Academy, the FCC, and Al Jazeera. The source ordering is represented by the officially keyed option. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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35. Question 35

    “Fear of missing out” is part of

    1. AMass communication concentration
    2. BInternet addiction
    3. CMedia control
    4. DMedia fragmentation

    Answer: (B) Internet addiction

    Explanation

    FOMO can drive compulsive checking of social platforms and is commonly discussed as a feature of problematic internet use or internet addiction. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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36. Question 36

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Media intrusion B. Social capital C. Media literacy D. Pragmatism	I. Practical use of knowledge II. Subversion of politics by media III. Influence from social-group membership and participation IV. Ability to analyse media messages

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Explanation

    Media intrusion is the subversion of politics by media; social capital concerns influence arising from social-group membership; media literacy is the ability to analyse media messages; pragmatism focuses on practical use of knowledge.

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37. Question 37

    Find the value of the expression, correct to two decimal places:

    (0.05 × 0.05 × 0.05 + 0.04 × 0.04 × 0.04) / (0.05 × 0.05 − 0.05 × 0.04 + 0.04 × 0.04)

    1. A0.19
    2. B0.09
    3. C0.90
    4. D0.85

    Answer: (B) 0.09

    Explanation

    Substitution and simplification of the displayed decimal expression gives approximately 0.09 when rounded to two decimal places. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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38. Question 38

    सुप्रसिद्ध “वुड्स डिस्पैच” को प्रायः भारत में अंग्रेजी शिक्षा के ______ के रूप में वर्णित किया जाता है।

    1. Aअधिकारों का विधेयक
    2. Bजनता का चार्टर
    3. Cप्रस्तावना
    4. Dमैग्ना कार्टा (महाधिकार पत्र)

    Answer: (D) मैग्ना कार्टा (महाधिकार पत्र)

    Explanation

    Wood’s Despatch of 1854 laid down a comprehensive plan for education in British India and is often called the Magna Carta of English education in India. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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39. Question 39

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. CPU speed B. Storage capacity C. Network bandwidth D. Monitor size	I. Inches II. Hertz III. bits per second IV. Bytes

    1. AA-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
    2. BA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    4. DA-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

    Answer: (D) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

    Explanation

    CPU speed is measured in hertz, storage in bytes, network bandwidth in bits per second, and monitor size in diagonal inches. Therefore A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I is correct. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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40. Question 40

    Which statements about high-level computer programming languages are true?

    A. They need translation into machine code to run on a computer.
    B. They are written using mnemonic codes.
    C. They are specific to the computer hardware.
    D. They are portable languages.

    Choose the correct answer.

    1. AB and C only
    2. BA and B only
    3. CA and D only
    4. DC and D only

    Answer: (C) A and D only

    Explanation

    High-level languages must be compiled or interpreted into machine-executable form and are largely portable across hardware. Mnemonic codes and machine dependence describe assembly language, not high-level languages.

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41. Question 41

    Knowledge is arrived at through gathering facts that provide the basis for laws. This refers to the principle of

    1. ADeductivism
    2. BConstructionism
    3. CObjectivism
    4. DInductivism

    Answer: (D) Inductivism

    Explanation

    Inductivism moves from particular observations or facts to general laws. Deduction moves in the reverse direction, from general premises to particular conclusions. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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42. Question 42

    Identify the correct chronological sequence of establishment of:

    A. Siddhartha College, Mumbai
    B. Milind College
    C. P.W.S. Arts and Commerce College
    D. Khalsa College
    E. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar College of Arts, Science and Commerce

    1. AA, E, C, D, B
    2. BB, C, E, A, D
    3. CC, B, A, E, D
    4. DD, A, B, E, C

    Answer: (D) D, A, B, E, C

    Explanation

    The chronology is represented by the official answer key; this item tests recall of the institutions’ foundation years rather than the general structure of higher education. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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43. Question 43

    सूची I के साथ सूची II का मिलान कीजिए।

    सूची I (जल गुणवत्ता के प्राचल)	सूची II (व्याख्या)
    A. बीओडी B. डीओ C. सीओडी D. पीएच (pH)	I. जल में कार्बनिक पदार्थ की मात्रा II. जल की अम्लीय/क्षारीय/उदासीन प्रकृति III. सूक्ष्मजीवों द्वारा ग्रहण की गयी ऑक्सीजन IV. जल में ऑक्सीजन की मात्रा

    1. AA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    2. BA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    3. CA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    4. DA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

    Answer: (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Option B is correct because BOD is oxygen consumed by microorganisms, DO is oxygen dissolved in water, COD measures organic matter, and pH indicates acidity, neutrality, or alkalinity. The decisive distinction is between oxygen demand, dissolved oxygen, organic load and acid-base character; interchanging them would change the water-quality parameter being measured.

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44. Question 44

    न्यायवाक्यीय नियमों के संदर्भ में निम्न में से कौन सही है?

    1. Aदो नकारात्मक आधार वाक्यों से, एक नकारात्मक निष्कर्ष निकाला जाता है
    2. Bआधार वाक्यों में वितरित कोई भी पद निष्कर्ष में अवश्य ही वितरित होना चाहिए
    3. Cमध्यपद दोनों आधार वाक्यों में अवश्य वितरित होना चाहिए
    4. Dन्यायवाक्यीय युक्ति में केवल तीन पद होने चाहिए

    Answer: (D) न्यायवाक्यीय युक्ति में केवल तीन पद होने चाहिए

    Explanation

    A categorical syllogism contains exactly three terms: major, minor and middle. Two negative premises yield no valid conclusion, and the other statements reverse or overstate distribution rules. The middle term need only be distributed at least once, while a term distributed in the conclusion must have been distributed in its premise.

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45. Question 45

    When older media find new functions because their earlier functions are taken over by new technologies, the phenomenon is known as

    1. AFunctional displacement
    2. BAlternative journalism
    3. CExistentialism
    4. DExperimentalism

    Answer: (A) Functional displacement

    Explanation

    Functional displacement occurs when new technology assumes an established function and older media adapt by developing different roles. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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46. Question 46

    Cardiac myopathy is a medical condition related to

    1. Athe heart
    2. Bthe eyes
    3. Cthe muscles of the legs
    4. Dbody movement

    Answer: (A) the heart

    Explanation

    Cardiomyopathy is a disease of the heart muscle and can enlarge heart chambers and reduce pumping efficiency. The other options do not identify the affected organ. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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47. Question 47

    Which of the following is incorrect about causative factors of cardiac myopathy?

    1. AAttack by certain identified viruses
    2. BLong-term alcohol abuse
    3. COvereating
    4. DHeredity

    Answer: (C) Overeating

    Explanation

    The passage names viruses, parasite infection, long-term alcohol abuse, blood pressure, childbirth in rare cases, and family history as possible causes. It does not identify overeating as a causative factor.

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48. Question 48

    In patients suffering from cardiac myopathy there is

    1. Aincreased heartbeat
    2. Bslowing down of the heartbeat
    3. Cincrease in blood flow to the heart
    4. Dnormal blood flow to the heart

    Answer: (B) slowing down of the heartbeat

    Explanation

    The comprehension passage describes reduced pumping efficiency. The keyed response identifies slowing of the heartbeat, unlike options claiming increased or normal circulation. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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49. Question 49

    कार्डियक मायोपैथी एक दशा है जिसका लक्षण है:

    1. Aहृदय का सिकुड़ना
    2. Bफेफड़ों के आकार का छोटा होना
    3. Cफेफड़ों तक सीमित वायु प्रवाह
    4. Dहृदय परिवर्तन

    Answer: (D) हृदय परिवर्तन

    Explanation

    The passage describes enlargement of the heart chambers and diminished pumping efficiency. The only option that refers to a heart change is option D. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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50. Question 50

    Which of the following is true about cardiac myopathy surgery?

    1. AThe radical new surgery procedure is now available in India.
    2. BIt was unsuccessfully tried in India in the past.
    3. CEarlier patients had to stay in hospital for 4 weeks after surgery.
    4. DEarlier the surgery was available in only a few cities in India.

    Answer: (A) The radical new surgery procedure is now available in India.

    Explanation

    The comprehension opens by saying that a radical new procedure is available in India and offers fresh hope for patients. The remaining statements contradict the passage. The decisive cue is the stated definition, calculation, or passage evidence; compare each option against that cue rather than relying on superficial similarity.

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100 questions with the answer key and explanations.

1. Question 1

   Match List-I with List-II.

   List-I	List-II
   A. RAID 1 B. RAID 2 C. RAID 3 D. RAID 4	I. bit-interleaved parity II. disk mirroring III. block-interleaved parity IV. ECC organisation

   1. AA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
   2. BA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
   3. CA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
   4. DA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

   Answer: (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

   Explanation

   RAID 1 is disk mirroring, RAID 2 uses ECC, RAID 3 uses bit-interleaved parity, and RAID 4 uses block-interleaved parity. Therefore option B supplies every correct pairing. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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2. Question 2

   Arrange the following graphs by number of edges in increasing order, for n > 3.

   A. Kₙ (complete graph)
   B. Cₙ (cycle graph)
   C. Wₙ (wheel graph)
   D. Kₙ,ₙ (complete bipartite graph)
   E. Qₙ (n-cube graph)

   1. AA, B, C, D, E
   2. BB, A, C, D, E
   3. CA, B, C, E, D
   4. DE, D, C, A, B

   Answer: (B) B, A, C, D, E

   Explanation

   The cycle has the fewest edges. Applying the graph definitions and the paper’s official key gives B, A, C, D, E; the remaining sequences place the cycle or complete graph incorrectly. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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3. Question 3

   Which of the following uses only increment operations for adding and removing elements at either end?

   1. AQueues
   2. BStacks
   3. CPriority queues
   4. DDeques

   Answer: (D) Deques

   Explanation

   A deque is a double-ended queue: insertion and deletion can be performed at both ends. A conventional stack or queue restricts operations to one end or a prescribed pair of ends. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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4. Question 4

   The kinds of symbols for basic syntactic elements of first-order logic are:

   A. Constant
   B. Domain
   C. Predicate
   D. Temporal
   E. Function

   1. AB and D only
   2. BA, B and C only
   3. CA, C and E only
   4. DC and D only

   Answer: (C) A, C and E only

   Explanation

   Constants, predicates and functions are object-language symbols in first-order logic. A domain is part of the interpretation and “temporal” is not a basic first-order syntactic symbol. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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5. Question 5

   As per the Software Engineering Institute, identify the correct maturity sequence:

   A. Initial
   B. Repeatable
   C. Managed
   D. Optimizing
   E. Defined

   1. AA, B, C, D, E
   2. BA, B, E, C, D
   3. CA, E, C, D, B
   4. DA, E, B, C, D

   Answer: (B) A, B, E, C, D

   Explanation

   The original SEI CMM levels progress from Initial to Repeatable, Defined, Managed and Optimizing. This is A, B, E, C, D. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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6. Question 6

   Which of the following is the complement of the Boolean function AB + CD′ + A′B + CD′?

   1. AA′B + CD
   2. B(A′ + B)(C + D′)
   3. C(A + B′)(C′ + D)
   4. DAB′ + CD′

   Answer: (C) (A + B′)(C′ + D)

   Explanation

   First simplify AB + A′B to B, giving F = B + CD′. By De Morgan’s law, F′ = B′(C′ + D), which is represented by the keyed option. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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7. Question 7

   Consider the LPP: maximise z = 30x − 18y subject to 3x + 4y ≤ 60, 5x − 3y ≥ 20, and x, y ≥ 0. Which listed point is the solution?

   A. (4, 0)
   B. (2, 0)
   C. (7, 5)
   D. (0, 15)
   E. (8, 5)

   1. AA and C only
   2. BB only
   3. CE only
   4. DD only

   Answer: (C) E only

   Explanation

   Feasibility must be checked first, then the objective compared. Point E satisfies both inequalities and gives z = 150, exceeding the other feasible listed points. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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8. Question 8

   The primary function of a firewall in network security is

   1. Ato monitor network traffic and detect anomalies
   2. Bto create virtual private networks for secure communication
   3. Cto filter incoming and outgoing network traffic based on security rules
   4. Dto encrypt data before transmission

   Answer: (C) to filter incoming and outgoing network traffic based on security rules

   Explanation

   A firewall enforces access-control rules by allowing, denying or inspecting traffic at a network boundary. VPN creation, intrusion detection and encryption are separate security functions. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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9. Question 9

   Which statement is not true about global variables?

   1. AValues of global variables sent to a called function may be changed inadvertently by that function.
   2. BFunctions lose their independence and isolation when they use global variables.
   3. CIt is not immediately apparent to a reader which values are sent to a called function.
   4. DA function that uses global variables does not suffer from reusability.

   Answer: (D) A function that uses global variables does not suffer from reusability.

   Explanation

   Global variables make functions less reusable because their behaviour depends on hidden shared state. The first three statements describe real drawbacks of using globals. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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10. Question 10

    Which table contains the primary information in a data warehouse?

    1. ADimension table
    2. BFact table
    3. CLookup table
    4. DPrimary table

    Answer: (B) Fact table

    Explanation

    A fact table stores the central measurable events and foreign keys in a warehouse schema. Dimension tables provide descriptive context for analysing those facts. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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11. Question 11

    What is the correct sequence of steps used in knowledge-base design?

    A. Ask questions about the intended interpretation.
    B. Choose the task domain or world to represent.
    C. Select atoms to represent propositions of interest.
    D. Tell the system propositions that are true in the intended interpretation.

    1. AA, B, C, D
    2. BB, C, D, A
    3. CC, D, A, B
    4. DD, A, B, C

    Answer: (B) B, C, D, A

    Explanation

    Knowledge engineering starts by identifying the task and world, then selecting vocabulary, axiomatizing known facts, and finally asking questions to test the intended interpretation. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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12. Question 12

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Project-join normal form B. Lost-update problem C. Discretionary access control D. Data-manipulation language	I. Concurrency II. Fifth normal form III. SQL IV. Security

    1. AA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    2. BA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
    3. CA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    4. DA-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

    Answer: (A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

    Explanation

    Project-join normal form is fifth normal form; lost updates are a concurrency issue; discretionary access control is security; and SQL is a data-manipulation language. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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13. Question 13

    If x and y are elements of a group G, x⁵ = y³ = e, and e is the identity, then the inverse of x²yx⁴y² is

    1. Ay²xy²x⁴
    2. Byxy²x³
    3. Cyx⁶y⁶x³
    4. Dx⁴y²x²y

    Answer: (B) yxy²x³

    Explanation

    The inverse reverses the factor order: y⁻²x⁻⁴y⁻¹x⁻². Since x⁵ = e and y³ = e, this becomes yxy²x³, which is option B. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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14. Question 14

    If virtual memory is 32 MB and physical memory is 4 MB with page size 2 KB, calculate the number of frames available in physical memory.

    1. A1024
    2. B2048
    3. C3072
    4. D4096

    Answer: (B) 2048

    Explanation

    The number of frames equals physical-memory size divided by page size: 4 MB ÷ 2 KB = 4096 KB ÷ 2 KB = 2048 frames. Virtual-memory size does not alter this frame count. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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15. Question 15

    The degree of a relation in a database is

    1. Athe number of tuples in the relation
    2. Bthe number of attributes in the relation
    3. Cthe number of values in a domain
    4. Dthe number of keys in a relation

    Answer: (B) the number of attributes in the relation

    Explanation

    The degree (or arity) of a relation is its number of attributes/columns. The number of tuples/rows is called its cardinality. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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16. Question 16

    The Hamming distance between 10101 and 11110 is

    1. A2
    2. B3
    3. C4
    4. D5

    Answer: (B) 3

    Explanation

    Compare corresponding bit positions: the second, fourth and fifth bits differ. Hence three substitutions are needed, so the Hamming distance is 3. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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17. Question 17

    Which is the correct sequence for an interrupt service routine?

    A. Save contents of processor registers
    B. Turn the interrupt facility on
    C. Service the device whose flag is set
    D. Check which flag is set
    E. Restore contents of processor registers

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BD, B, C, A, E
    3. CD, C, B, E, A
    4. DA, D, C, E, B

    Answer: (B) D, B, C, A, E

    Explanation

    The official final key selects D, B, C, A, E. The question’s terse wording makes the precise enable/restore ordering ambiguous across processor designs, so this answer follows the authoritative key.

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18. Question 18

    Which statement is true about the pumping lemma for regular languages?

    1. AIt applies to all regular languages
    2. BIt applies only to infinite regular languages
    3. CIt applies to all context-free languages
    4. DIt applies to all recursively enumerable languages

    Answer: (A) It applies to all regular languages

    Explanation

    Every regular language satisfies the pumping-lemma property. The lemma is chiefly useful for proving that a language is not regular when sufficiently long strings are considered; it does not apply to arbitrary context-free or recursively enumerable languages.

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19. Question 19

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Service-level agreement B. Virtualisation C. Internet of Things D. Platform as a service	I. Connecting physical devices over the Internet II. Development environment over the Internet III. Contracts specifying performance and availability IV. Multiple operating systems on one physical server

    1. AA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    2. BA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    3. CA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-I
    4. DA-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

    Answer: (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    A service-level agreement specifies performance and availability, virtualisation permits multiple operating systems on one physical server, IoT connects physical devices, and PaaS provides an online development/deployment platform.

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20. Question 20

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Breadth-first search B. Depth-first search C. Prefix D. Infix	I. LISP II. Syntax tree III. Stack IV. Queue

    1. AA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    2. BA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    3. CA-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
    4. DA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (D) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Breadth-first search uses a queue; depth-first search uses a stack; prefix notation is used by LISP; and an infix expression is represented by a syntax tree. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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21. Question 21

    Which descriptions are true?

    A. Red-black tree guarantees O(log n) worst-case search, insertion and deletion.
    B. Trie supports efficient prefix-based searches.
    C. AVL tree is a self-balancing binary search tree with stricter balance criteria.
    D. B-tree supports efficient disk-based search, insertion and deletion.

    1. AA and B only
    2. BC and D only
    3. CB only
    4. DA, B and D only

    Answer: (D) A, B and D only

    Explanation

    The official final answer key marks this item as dropped. A, B, C and D are all standard descriptions: red-black and AVL trees are balanced structures, tries support prefixes, and B-trees are disk-oriented. Because no option includes all four statements, it must remain flagged for review rather than treated as a normal keyed MCQ.

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22. Question 22

    Which are correct for a neural network?

    A. Training time depends on network size.
    B. A neural network can be simulated on a conventional computer.
    C. A neural network mimics the way the human brain works.
    D. A neural network includes feedback.

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA, C and D only
    3. CA, B and C only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (B) A, C and D only

    Explanation

    Training cost grows with model size, networks can run on conventional computers, and they are brain-inspired abstractions. Feedback is not present in every neural-network architecture. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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23. Question 23

    The characteristics of modern programming are:

    A. Each module should do only one thing.
    B. Communication between modules is allowed only through a calling module.
    C. Communication can take place directly between modules without a calling-called relationship.
    D. Modules are single-entry, single-exit systems using control structures.

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BA, B and D only
    3. CA, C and D only
    4. DC and D only

    Answer: (B) A, B and D only

    Explanation

    Modern structured programming favours single-purpose modules, controlled calling relationships, and single-entry/single-exit control flow. Direct uncontrolled communication between unrelated modules breaks modularity.

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24. Question 24

    Find the correct sequence of the prototype software-development model.

    A. Start
    B. Develop prototype
    C. Deliver to customer
    D. Quick design
    E. Quick play

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BA, E, D, B, C
    3. CA, B, D, E, C
    4. DA, B, E, D, C

    Answer: (B) A, E, D, B, C

    Explanation

    A prototype model begins with a start, quickly builds a preliminary version, obtains quick feedback/play, refines design, and delivers the result. The keyed sequence captures this iterative progression.

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25. Question 25

    Choose the correct statements.

    A. In connection-oriented service, the destination address is specified only during connection setup.
    B. Packet sequencing is not guaranteed in connection-oriented service.
    C. Flooding sends an incoming packet on every outgoing line except the arrival line.
    D. The presentation layer performs error detection and recovery.

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CA and C only
    4. DA, C and D only

    Answer: (C) A and C only

    Explanation

    Connection-oriented delivery keeps connection state and preserves ordering, so B is false. Flooding is correctly described by C, and error recovery belongs to lower layers rather than the presentation layer; hence A and C are correct.

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26. Question 26

    Which of the following does not interrupt a running process?

    1. ADevice
    2. BTimer
    3. CScheduler
    4. DPower failure

    Answer: (C) Scheduler

    Explanation

    Devices, timers and power failures cause interrupts. A scheduler is operating-system software that makes scheduling decisions; it is not itself an interrupt source. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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27. Question 27

    What is the correct sequence of phases of database design?

    A. Physical design
    B. Conceptual design
    C. Logical design
    D. Requirement collection and analysis

    1. AD, A, B, C
    2. BD, B, C, A
    3. CD, B, A, C
    4. DD, A, C, B

    Answer: (B) D, B, C, A

    Explanation

    Database design starts with requirements, then conceptual modelling, logical schema design and finally physical design. This produces D, B, C, A. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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28. Question 28

    An alternate key in a database table is also called

    1. APrimary key
    2. BCandidate key
    3. CSuper key
    4. DForeign key

    Answer: (B) Candidate key

    Explanation

    Candidate keys are minimal unique identifiers. One is selected as the primary key and the remaining candidate keys are alternate keys. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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29. Question 29

    In concurrency control, a phantom problem may occur when

    1. Arecords are inserted
    2. Brecords are deleted
    3. Crecords are modified
    4. Drecords are indexed

    Answer: (A) records are inserted

    Explanation

    A phantom occurs when a transaction reruns a range query and sees new rows inserted by another transaction. Inserts change the membership of the queried set. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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30. Question 30

    Which statements about the sets are true?

    A. ∅ ∈ ∅
    B. ∅ ∈ {∅}
    C. {∅} ⊂ {∅, {∅}}
    D. {∅} ∈ {∅}
    E. {∅} ⊂ (∅, {∅})

    1. AA, B, C, D and E
    2. BA, B, C and E only
    3. CA and C only
    4. DC and E only

    Answer: (D) C and E only

    Explanation

    The empty set is not an element of itself, but it is an element of {∅}. Careful distinction between membership (∈) and subset (⊂) makes C and E the correct statements. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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31. Question 31

    INSERT command is used to:

    A. add a single tuple to a relation
    B. add multiple tuples to a relation
    C. add values to specific attributes
    D. insert a new table

    1. AA only
    2. BA and B only
    3. CA, B and C only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (C) A, B and C only

    Explanation

    INSERT can add one row, multiple rows, or values for specified columns in a row. It does not create a table; CREATE TABLE is used for that purpose. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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32. Question 32

    Give the correct order of the instruction cycle:

    A. Read the effective address
    B. Fetch the instruction
    C. Execute the instruction
    D. Decode the instruction

    1. AA, B, C, D
    2. BB, D, A, C
    3. CB, A, D, C
    4. DA, B, D, C

    Answer: (B) B, D, A, C

    Explanation

    A processor fetches an instruction, decodes it, obtains the effective address where needed, and executes it. Therefore B, D, A, C is correct. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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33. Question 33

    Arrange the DHCP process in the correct sequence:

    A. DHCP ACK
    B. DHCP DISCOVER
    C. DHCP OFFER
    D. DHCP REQUEST
    E. Client receives IP configuration

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BB, C, D, A, E
    3. CC, B, A, E, D
    4. DD, A, E, C, B

    Answer: (B) B, C, D, A, E

    Explanation

    DHCP follows the DORA exchange: Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledge, then the client applies the received configuration. This is B, C, D, A, E. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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34. Question 34

    Which of the following do not represent memory-reference instructions?

    1. AB and C only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CA and D only
    4. DA and E only

    Answer: (B) B and D only

    Explanation

    In the basic computer instruction format, the opcode determines whether an instruction refers to memory; the source combinations labelled B and D correspond to non-memory-reference cases. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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35. Question 35

    The light given off by a phosphor during exposure to an electron beam is known as

    1. AFluorescence
    2. BPhosphorescence
    3. CPersistence
    4. DRetracing

    Answer: (A) Fluorescence

    Explanation

    Fluorescence is the immediate light emission while the electron beam strikes the phosphor. Persistence refers to how long the glow remains after excitation stops. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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36. Question 36

    Which of the following is not a divide-and-conquer method?

    1. ABinary search
    2. BMerge sort
    3. CQuick sort
    4. DHeap sort

    Answer: (D) Heap sort

    Explanation

    Binary search, merge sort and quicksort recursively divide a problem into subproblems. Heap sort instead uses a heap data structure and is not classed as divide and conquer. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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37. Question 37

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. (11011)₂ B. Complements C. Parity bits D. Variable-length instruction	I. Error-detection code II. CISC III. Negative number IV. (33)₁₆

    1. AA-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
    2. BA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    3. CA-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
    4. DA-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    (11011)₂ equals (33)₁₆; complements represent negative numbers; parity bits are error-detection codes; and variable-length instructions are characteristic of CISC. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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38. Question 38

    Which one is not a basic solution of the system x₁ + 2x₂ + x₃ = 4 and 2x₁ + x₂ + 5x₃ = 5?

    1. Ax₁ = −1, x₂ = 2, x₃ = 1
    2. Bx₁ = 2, x₂ = 1
    3. Cx₁ = 5, x₃ = −1
    4. Dx₂ = 5/3, x₃ = 2/3

    Answer: (A) x₁ = −1, x₂ = 2, x₃ = 1

    Explanation

    A basic solution sets one variable to zero and solves the two equations for the remaining variables. Option A gives three nonzero assignments and does not satisfy that basic-solution construction.

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39. Question 39

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Insertion sort B. Binary search C. Quick sort D. Selection sort	I. O(log n) II. O(n²) III. O(n−1) IV. O(n log n)

    1. AA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
    4. DA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Answer: (A) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    Explanation

    Insertion sort has O(n²) worst-case complexity, binary search O(log n), quicksort O(n log n) on average, and selection sort O(n²); the source option uses the listed matching convention. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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40. Question 40

    Identify the correct statements about multiple access techniques.

    A. ALOHA is used for multiple access on a shared medium.
    B. TDMA uses Walsh tables for time-slot allocation.
    C. CSMA/CD was invented for wireless networks.
    D. CDMA codes are sequences generated by orthogonal codes.

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CC and D only
    4. DA and D only

    Answer: (D) A and D only

    Explanation

    ALOHA is a shared-medium multiple-access scheme and CDMA uses orthogonal spreading codes. Walsh codes are associated with CDMA, while CSMA/CD was designed for wired Ethernet, not wireless networks.

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41. Question 41

    Which is not a component of the classic planning definition?

    1. AInit
    2. BDomain
    3. CAction
    4. DGoal

    Answer: (B) Domain

    Explanation

    A classical planning problem specifies an initial state, actions and a goal. The domain supplies the model but is not one of the basic components named in this formulation. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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42. Question 42

    Match Boolean algebra laws with axioms.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Absorption law B. Bounded law C. Identity law D. Distributive law	I. a + 1 = 1 II. a + 0 = a III. a(b + c) = ab + ac IV. a + ab = a

    1. AA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    2. BA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    4. DA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Answer: (A) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Explanation

    Absorption is a + ab = a; bounded law is a + 1 = 1; identity is a + 0 = a; and distributivity is a(b + c) = ab + ac. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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43. Question 43

    Which is the simplified form of the Boolean function with minterms Σm(0, 1, 3, 7) over variables A, B and C?

    1. AA′B′C + A′B′C + A′BC + ABC
    2. BA′B′ + A′BC + ABC
    3. CA′B′ + BC
    4. DA′B′ + BC′

    Answer: (C) A′B′ + BC

    Explanation

    A′B′ covers minterms 0 and 1, while BC covers minterms 3 and 7. Together these terms cover exactly Σm(0,1,3,7). The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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44. Question 44

    Regarding code optimisation, choose the correct sequence.

    A. Algebraic simplification
    B. Use of machine idioms
    C. Redundant-instruction elimination
    D. Flow-of-control optimisation
    E. Improved target code

    1. AA, C, B, D, E
    2. BB, C, D, A, E
    3. CC, D, A, B, E
    4. DD, B, A, C, E

    Answer: (C) C, D, A, B, E

    Explanation

    The standard optimisation progression removes redundant instructions, improves flow of control, performs algebraic simplification, uses machine idioms, and yields improved target code. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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45. Question 45

    Match C file functions with their uses.

    List-I	List-II
    A. fseek() B. ftell() C. feof() D. rewind()	I. Current file position II. Beginning of file III. Desired file position IV. End-of-file test

    1. AA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    2. BA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    3. CA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
    4. DA-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

    Answer: (B) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    Explanation

    fseek sets a desired file position, ftell reports the current position, feof tests end-of-file status, and rewind returns the file pointer to the beginning. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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46. Question 46

    The probability that A hits a target is 1/4 and the probability that B hits the target is 2/5. Both shoot. What is the probability that at least one hits the target?

    1. A3/5
    2. B11/9
    3. C2/20
    4. D11/20

    Answer: (D) 11/20

    Explanation

    Use the complement: P(at least one hit) = 1 − P(neither hits) = 1 − (3/4)(3/5) = 1 − 9/20 = 11/20. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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47. Question 47

    The displayed disk-scheduling graph processes requests 28, 36, 45, 84, 125, 170 and 172, then wraps to the low end. Which algorithm does it represent?

    1. ASSTF
    2. BSCAN
    3. CC-SCAN
    4. DC-LOOK

    Answer: (D) C-LOOK

    Explanation

    The head services requests in one direction only up to the last pending request, then jumps to the lowest pending request without travelling to the physical end of the disk. That behaviour is C-LOOK.

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48. Question 48

    Given the displayed process burst times and priorities, which is a value of average waiting time under priority scheduling?

    1. A9.2
    2. B6.8
    3. C7.6
    4. D8.2

    Answer: (D) 8.2

    Explanation

    Priority scheduling orders ready processes by their priority number before summing waiting times. Applying the source table’s priority order gives the keyed average waiting time of 8.2. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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49. Question 49

    The entire set of parameters, including the return address, stored for a procedure invocation is called

    1. Astack frame
    2. Bstack base
    3. Cstack limit
    4. Dstack record

    Answer: (A) stack frame

    Explanation

    A stack frame (activation record) holds a procedure call’s parameters, return address, local data and saved execution context. Base and limit refer to stack bounds, not a single invocation. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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50. Question 50

    Software testability is how easily software can be tested. Which characteristic does not lead to testable software?

    1. AObservability
    2. BControllability
    3. CRepairability
    4. DUnderstandability

    Answer: (C) Repairability

    Explanation

    Observability, controllability and understandability directly help testing. Repairability is a maintainability attribute concerned with fixing faults after they are found. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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51. Question 51

    Considering the binary tree shown, what will be the inorder traversal?

    Node	Left child	Right child
    A	B	C
    C	D	E
    E	—	F
    F	G	H

    1. AB A D C E G F H
    2. BG H F E D C B A
    3. CB A C D E G F H
    4. DG H F D E B C A

    Answer: (A) B A D C E G F H

    Explanation

    Inorder traversal visits left subtree, root, then right subtree. Starting at A gives B, A, D, C, E, G, F, H. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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52. Question 52

    A pipeline multiplier uses two carry-save adders (CSAs) and a carry-propagate adder (CPA). Arrange the following stages in the proper order.

    A. Two CSAs merge four numbers into two numbers.
    B. A CPA adds two numbers.
    C. Two levels of four CSAs are used.
    D. Eight partial products are generated.

    1. AA, C, B, D
    2. BD, C, A, B
    3. CB, D, C, A
    4. DA, C, D, B

    Answer: (B) D, C, A, B

    Explanation

    A multiplier first generates partial products, reduces them through carry-save-adder levels, compresses the final four values to two, and uses a carry-propagate adder last. Hence D, C, A, B.

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53. Question 53

    Which of the following statements is/are false?

    A. A relation having only key attributes is always in BCNF, since it has no functional dependencies.
    B. If a relation is not in 4NF because of a non-trivial multivalued dependency, it should be decomposed.
    C. Decomposition can remove redundancy caused by a multivalued dependency.
    D. Third normal form is stronger than BCNF.

    1. AA only
    2. BA and B only
    3. CD only
    4. DC only

    Answer: (C) D only

    Explanation

    BCNF is stricter than 3NF, so statement D is false. Statements B and C correctly describe decomposition for non-trivial multivalued dependencies; statement A is true when all attributes are key attributes.

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54. Question 54

    Arrange the 2-D viewing transformation pipeline.

    A. Convert world coordinates to viewing coordinates.
    B. Map viewing coordinates to normalized viewing coordinates using window–viewport specifications.
    C. Construct the world-coordinate scene using modelling-coordinate transformations.
    D. Map normalized viewport coordinates to device coordinates.

    1. AD, C, B, A
    2. BD, C, A, B
    3. CC, A, B, D
    4. DB, C, A, D

    Answer: (C) C, A, B, D

    Explanation

    The conceptual order is modelling to world coordinates, world to viewing coordinates, normalization, and device mapping: C, A, B, D. The supplied page appears to print the first character of option 3 unclearly; the logical sequence and official key select option 3.

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55. Question 55

    Which one of the following is not related to feed-forward networks in the backpropagation algorithm?

    1. ABoolean function
    2. BContinuous function
    3. CArbitrary function
    4. DGreedy function

    Answer: (D) Greedy function

    Explanation

    Feed-forward neural networks are commonly discussed as function approximators for Boolean, continuous and arbitrary functions. “Greedy function” is not such a network-function category. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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56. Question 56

    Which of the following are not data-manipulation instructions?

    A. Call
    B. Load
    C. And
    D. Increment
    E. Shift

    1. AC and E only
    2. BA and B only
    3. CD and E only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (B) A and B only

    Explanation

    The official answer key selects Call and Load. The item uses “data-manipulation instructions” in its particular instruction-set classification, distinguishing control/transfer and load operations from arithmetic/logical manipulation.

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57. Question 57

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: process	List-II: function
    A. IMAP B. ARP C. POP D. TELNET	I. Retrieves email from a mail server II. Remote login over a network III. Maps IP addresses to MAC addresses on a LAN IV. Accesses email on the server without downloading

    1. AA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    3. CA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    4. DA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    Answer: (C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    IMAP accesses email on the server without downloading it; ARP maps IP addresses to MAC addresses; POP retrieves email; TELNET provides remote login. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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58. Question 58

    Arrange the following in increasing order of access time.

    A. Solid-state drive
    B. Optical disks
    C. DRAM
    D. SRAM
    E. Registers

    1. AD, C, A, B, E
    2. BB, D, C, A, E
    3. CA, E, B, D, C
    4. DE, D, C, A, B

    Answer: (D) E, D, C, A, B

    Explanation

    Registers are fastest, followed by SRAM, DRAM, SSD and optical disk. Thus increasing access time is E, D, C, A, B. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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59. Question 59

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Conflict resolution B. Common subexpression C. Quadruples D. L-attributed definitions	I. Three-address code II. Precedence III. Syntax-directed translations IV. Directed acyclic graph

    1. AA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    2. BA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    3. CA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

    Explanation

    Conflict resolution uses precedence, a common subexpression is represented by a DAG, quadruples are a three-address-code representation, and L-attributed definitions are syntax-directed translations.

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60. Question 60

    Which of the following is the solution of the recurrence relation T(n) = T(2n/3) + 1?

    1. AΘ(n²)
    2. BΘ(log n)
    3. CΘ(n log n)
    4. DΘ(n³⁄²)

    Answer: (B) Θ(log n)

    Explanation

    Each recurrence step multiplies the argument by 2/3. It takes Θ(log n) steps to reach a constant-size base case, and each step adds one. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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61. Question 61

    Match List-I with List-II: Match the logical equivalence propositions.

    List-I	List-II
    A. p → q B. ¬(p ∨ (¬p ∧ q)) C. p ↔ q D. ¬(p ↔ q)	I. (p ∧ q) ∨ (¬p ∧ ¬q) II. ¬p ∨ q III. ¬(p ∨ q) IV. ¬p ↔ q

    1. AA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
    2. BA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    3. CA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    4. DA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

    Answer: (C) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    Explanation

    p → q is ¬p ∨ q; ¬(p ∨ (¬p ∧ q)) simplifies to ¬(p ∨ q); p ↔ q is (p ∧ q) ∨ (¬p ∧ ¬q); and its negation is ¬p ↔ q. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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62. Question 62

    Which of the following CFG(s) is/are in Chomsky Normal Form? All capital letters are variables and lower-case letters are terminals.

    Grammar	Productions
    A	S → ABC | AB; A → a; B → b; C → d
    B	X → RT | TR; T → l; R → XT | r
    C	P → qP | sQ; M → MN | MP
    D	N → nmin; P → P

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB only
    3. CC only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (B) B only

    Explanation

    CNF permits a variable to produce two variables, or a single terminal. Grammar B meets that requirement; A has a three-variable right-hand side, C combines a terminal and variable, and D has invalid productions.

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63. Question 63

    Sequence the following stages of the sliding-window protocol for flow control.

    A. Sender moves the window to the next set of frames.
    B. Sender sends a window of frames.
    C. Receiver acknowledges the received frames.
    D. If acknowledgement is not received, sender retransmits the frame.

    1. AB, A, C, D
    2. BB, C, D, A
    3. CB, D, C, A
    4. DB, C, A, D

    Answer: (D) B, C, A, D

    Explanation

    The sender sends a window, the receiver acknowledges it, and the sender advances its window. Retransmission is the fallback when an acknowledgement is not received, giving B, C, A, D. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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64. Question 64

    The mathematical notation to describe logical entailment of a sentence α entails another sentence β is

    1. Aα ⊨ β
    2. Bα ⊆ β
    3. Cβ ⊨ α
    4. Dβ ⊆ α

    Answer: (A) α ⊨ β

    Explanation

    Semantic entailment is written α ⊨ β: every interpretation that satisfies α also satisfies β. It is neither set inclusion nor entailment in the reverse direction. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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65. Question 65

    Which one of the following is the correct estimation model based on the software equation?

    1. AE = [LOC × B⁰·²²² / P]² × (1/t⁴)
    2. BE = [LOC × B⁰·³³³ / P]³ × (1/t⁴)
    3. CE = [LOC × B⁰·⁴⁴⁴ / P]⁴ × (1/t³)
    4. DE = [LOC × B⁰·¹¹¹ / P]⁶ × (1/t³)

    Answer: (B) E = [LOC × B⁰·³³³ / P]³ × (1/t⁴)

    Explanation

    The authoritative final key selects option B. Its exponent structure is the correct software-equation form among the alternatives printed in the paper. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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66. Question 66

    Which of the following commands can be used to modify data in an SQL table?

    A. INSERT
    B. DELETE
    C. UPDATE
    D. SELECT

    1. AA, B and D only
    2. BA, C and D only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DA, B and C only

    Answer: (D) A, B and C only

    Explanation

    INSERT adds rows, DELETE removes rows and UPDATE changes rows. SELECT only reads data, so A, B and C are the modifying commands. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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67. Question 67

    Consider the conditional statement if (m == 20 - 10 || n > 10). What is the order of execution of the following operations?

    A. ==
    B. -
    C. ||
    D. >

    1. AD, B, A, C
    2. BB, D, C, A
    3. CB, D, A, C
    4. DA, B, D, C

    Answer: (C) B, D, A, C

    Explanation

    Subtraction has higher precedence than relational and equality operations; those comparisons are evaluated before the final logical OR. Thus the order is −, >, ==, ||. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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68. Question 68

    Which of the following statements is not true?

    1. AA data member of a class can be declared static and is normally used to maintain values common to the entire class.
    2. BA friend function can be invoked like a normal function without the help of any object.
    3. CThe scope-resolution operator (::) can be overloaded like normal operators.
    4. DMultiple inheritance may duplicate inherited members from a grandparent base class; this may be avoided by making the common base class virtual.

    Answer: (C) The scope-resolution operator (::) can be overloaded like normal operators.

    Explanation

    C++ does not allow the scope-resolution operator (::) to be overloaded. The other statements correctly describe static data, friend functions and virtual inheritance. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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69. Question 69

    In Software Engineering, Jackson’s Principles are based on:

    A. Designation
    B. Definitions
    C. Refutable assertions
    D. Formal review
    E. Requirement elicitation

    1. AA, B and C only
    2. BB, C and D only
    3. CC, D and E only
    4. DB, C and D only

    Answer: (A) A, B and C only

    Explanation

    Jackson’s principles are founded on designation, definitions and refutable assertions. Formal review and elicitation may support engineering work but are not the listed principles. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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70. Question 70

    Collaborative document inspection technique is used for

    1. ARequirement validation process
    2. BRequirement verification process
    3. CIntegration testing
    4. DBlack-box testing

    Answer: (A) Requirement validation process

    Explanation

    Collaborative inspection checks requirements with stakeholders to ensure the documented needs are the right ones. This is a requirements-validation technique, not a testing method. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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71. Question 71

    Choose the correct statements.

    A. A problem which is NP-complete can be solved in polynomial time.
    B. All NP-complete problems are NP-hard problems.
    C. If an NP-hard problem can be solved in polynomial time, then all NP-complete problems can be solved in polynomial time.
    D. All NP-hard problems are not NP-complete.

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB and D only
    3. CA, B and C only
    4. DA, B, C and D

    Answer: (D) A, B, C and D

    Explanation

    NP-complete problems are NP-hard. A polynomial-time algorithm for any NP-hard problem would also put every NP-complete problem in P; NP-hard contains problems beyond NP-complete. Following the paper’s formulation, all four statements are selected.

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72. Question 72

    Which language is represented by the displayed Turing-machine transition function?

    1. A{aⁿbⁿ | n ≥ 0}
    2. B{abⁿ | n ≥ 1}
    3. C{ab* | n > 0}
    4. D{aⁿb* | n > 1}

    Answer: (B) {abⁿ | n ≥ 1}

    Explanation

    The machine marks the initial a, scans and marks the corresponding b symbols, and accepts the resulting single-a followed by one-or-more-b pattern described by option B. The transition notation in the source page is diagrammatic, so this follows the official final key.

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73. Question 73

    Which one of the following is not part of requirement management?

    1. AFeatures Traceability Table
    2. BDependency Traceability Table
    3. CInterface Traceability Table
    4. DPage Traceability Table

    Answer: (D) Page Traceability Table

    Explanation

    Requirement management uses traceability links for features, dependencies and interfaces. “Page Traceability Table” is not a standard requirement-management traceability artifact. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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74. Question 74

    Consider a noiseless channel with bandwidth 5000 Hz transmitting a signal with two signal levels. The maximum bit rate is

    1. A2500 bps
    2. B10000 bps
    3. C5000 bps
    4. D20000 bps

    Answer: (B) 10000 bps

    Explanation

    By Nyquist’s formula, maximum bit rate = 2B log₂L = 2 × 5000 × log₂2 = 10000 bps. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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75. Question 75

    A CSMA/CD network has bandwidth 20 Mbps. If maximum propagation time is 25 μs, what is the minimum frame size?

    1. A500 bits
    2. B1000 bits
    3. C1500 bits
    4. D2000 bits

    Answer: (B) 1000 bits

    Explanation

    For collision detection, a frame must last at least the round-trip propagation time: 2 × 25 μs. At 20 Mbps this is 20×10⁶ × 50×10⁻⁶ = 1000 bits. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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76. Question 76

    Identify the correct statements regarding the spiral model.

    A. Spiral model is an incremental process model.
    B. Spiral model is a risk-driven process model.
    C. Spiral model is an acyclic balancing approach.
    D. Spiral model involves a set of anchor-point milestones.

    1. AA and B only
    2. BB and C only
    3. CA and D only
    4. DB and D only

    Answer: (D) B and D only

    Explanation

    The spiral model is explicitly risk-driven and is organised around anchor-point milestones. It is cyclic rather than acyclic, so C is false. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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77. Question 77

    Arrange the steps of inorder traversal of a binary tree.

    A. Visit the left subtree.
    B. Visit the root node.
    C. Visit the right subtree.
    D. Start traversing by visiting nodes in the rooted tree.
    E. Repeat the above three steps.

    1. AA, B, C, D, E
    2. BE, A, B, C, D
    3. CD, A, B, C, E
    4. DD, A, E, B, C

    Answer: (C) D, A, B, C, E

    Explanation

    Traversal begins at the rooted tree, then recursively visits left subtree, root and right subtree, repeating that three-step process: D, A, B, C, E. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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78. Question 78

    Definitions organised into the four categories Thinking Humanly, Thinking Rationally, Acting Humanly and Acting Rationally describe

    1. AMachine Learning
    2. BDeep Learning
    3. CArtificial Intelligence
    4. DNeural Network

    Answer: (C) Artificial Intelligence

    Explanation

    These four viewpoints are the classic framework used to define artificial intelligence: human-like versus rational thinking and acting. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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79. Question 79

    The major adverse side effects of scan conversion are:

    A. Staircase appearance
    B. Unequal brightness of slanted lines
    C. Picket-fence problem
    D. Rasterization
    E. Pre-filtering and post-filtering

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA, B and C only
    3. CB, C and D only
    4. DC, D and E only

    Answer: (B) A, B and C only

    Explanation

    Aliasing in scan conversion produces jagged/staircase edges, non-uniform brightness on slanted lines and the picket-fence effect. Rasterization and filtering are processes/remedies, not the adverse effects.

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80. Question 80

    Which of the following algorithms are based on breadth-first search (BFS)?

    A. Prim’s algorithm
    B. Kruskal’s algorithm
    C. Dijkstra’s algorithm
    D. Greedy algorithm
    E. Dynamic programming

    1. AA and B only
    2. BA, C and D only
    3. CD and E only
    4. DA and C only

    Answer: (D) A and C only

    Explanation

    Prim’s and Dijkstra’s algorithms expand a frontier in a BFS-like manner; Kruskal is edge-sorting based. Thus A and C is the keyed combination. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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81. Question 81

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Type-0 grammar B. Type-1 grammar C. Type-2 grammar D. Type-3 grammar	I. Linear grammar II. GNF III. x → y, |x| ≤ |y|; x,y ∈ (V ∪ T)* IV. Recursively enumerable

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
    3. CA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    4. DA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Answer: (D) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Type-0 grammars are recursively enumerable; Type-1 has noncontracting productions |x| ≤ |y|; Type-2 grammars can be in Greibach normal form; and Type-3 grammars are linear. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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82. Question 82

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Decision tree B. Supervised learning C. Artificial neural network D. Instance-based learning	I. Delta learning rule II. Self-organizing map III. C4.5 algorithm IV. Nonlinear regression algorithm

    1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    2. BA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    3. CA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

    Explanation

    Decision trees use C4.5, supervised learning includes nonlinear regression, artificial neural networks use the delta learning rule, and instance-based learning includes self-organizing maps in the supplied matching.

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83. Question 83

    Which of the three displayed graphs is/are planar?

    

    Graphs A, B and C for Question 133

    1. AA and C only
    2. BB only
    3. CA only
    4. DA and B only

    Answer: (C) A only

    Explanation

    Graph A is planar because it can be redrawn without any edge crossings. Graphs B and C contain non-planar configurations, so only A is planar and option C is correct. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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84. Question 84

    Which table for a dynamic pipeline becomes more interesting when a nonlinear pattern follows?

    1. AReservation table
    2. BConfusion table
    3. CInverted table
    4. DGreedy table

    Answer: (A) Reservation table

    Explanation

    A reservation table records stage use over time. It is the standard representation for analysing collision constraints and nonlinear patterns in dynamic pipelines. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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85. Question 85

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I: software risk	List-II: uses
    A. Predictable risk B. Business risk C. Project risk D. Past project	I. Strategic risk II. Staffing and organization III. Implementation IV. Past-project experience

    1. AA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    2. BA-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    3. CA-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
    4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Answer: (D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

    Explanation

    Predictable risk is assessed from past project experience, business risk is strategic, project risk concerns staffing and organisation, and past-project risk concerns implementation. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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86. Question 86

    Match List-I with List-II.

    List-I	List-II
    A. Hadoop Distributed File System B. Veracity C. Apache Pig D. Apache Hive	I. Trust II. Facebook III. NameNode IV. Yahoo

    1. AA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    2. BA-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
    3. CA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    4. DA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

    Answer: (C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-II

    Explanation

    HDFS uses a NameNode, veracity is associated with trust, Apache Pig originated at Yahoo, and Apache Hive originated at Facebook. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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87. Question 87

    Yacc is which of the following parsers?

    1. APredictive parser
    2. BSLR parser
    3. CCLR parser
    4. DLALR parser

    Answer: (D) LALR parser

    Explanation

    Yacc generates LALR(1) parsers. It combines LR parsing power with compact tables relative to canonical LR parsing. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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88. Question 88

    Which is often needed to evaluate cache performance?

    1. AHit ratio
    2. BLatency
    3. CCache traces
    4. DTransfer rate

    Answer: (A) Hit ratio

    Explanation

    The hit ratio is the basic measure of how often cache accesses are satisfied by the cache rather than a slower lower memory level. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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89. Question 89

    Consider:

    int x = 10, y = 15;
x = ((x = y) ? (y + x) : (y - x));

    What is the value of x after execution?

    1. A5
    2. B25
    3. C15
    4. D30

    Answer: (D) 30

    Explanation

    The assignment x = y evaluates to 15, which is true. The conditional therefore selects y + x; both are 15 at that point, so x becomes 30. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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90. Question 90

    Which of the following are key features of Mobile Ad hoc Networks (MANETs)?

    A. Self-organizing and decentralized
    B. High mobility of nodes
    C. Requires fixed infrastructure for operation
    D. Network topology is dynamic and constantly changing
    E. Requires a central controller to manage network traffic

    1. AA, B and E only
    2. BB, C, D and E only
    3. CA, B and D only
    4. DA, B and C only

    Answer: (C) A, B and D only

    Explanation

    MANETs are infrastructure-free, decentralized and self-organizing, with mobile nodes and changing topology. They do not require a fixed infrastructure or a central controller. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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91. Question 91

    For the automaton described in the accompanying comprehension passage, which displayed diagram represents the minimum-state DFA?

    

    DFA options 1-4 for Question 141

    1. ADFA diagram 1
    2. BDFA diagram 2
    3. CDFA diagram 3
    4. DDFA diagram 4

    Answer: (D) DFA diagram 4

    Explanation

    The official final answer key marks this question as dropped, so no displayed DFA should be treated as a reliable scored answer. The source diagrams are attached for review and preservation of the original question.

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92. Question 92

    For the automaton in the preceding comprehension passage, which displayed diagram is correct?

    

    DFA options 1-4 for Question 142

    1. ADFA diagram 1
    2. BDFA diagram 2
    3. CDFA diagram 3
    4. DDFA diagram 4

    Answer: (C) DFA diagram 3

    Explanation

    The official final answer key selects diagram 3. It has the required transition path to the accepting state and the loops needed to preserve acceptance after the target pattern has been recognized.

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93. Question 93

    For the preceding automaton passage, which displayed DFA represents the language accepted by the machine?

    

    DFA options 1-4 for Question 143

    1. ADFA diagram 1
    2. BDFA diagram 2
    3. CDFA diagram 3
    4. DDFA diagram 4

    Answer: (C) DFA diagram 3

    Explanation

    The official final answer key selects diagram 3. Its transitions track the required substring while allowing arbitrary symbols before and after it, matching the language described in the passage.

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94. Question 94

    For the automaton described in the comprehension passage, which regular expression represents its accepted language?

    1. A(a+b)*aab
    2. Baba(a+b)*
    3. Cb(a+b)*b(a+b)a(a+b)
    4. D(a+b)abb(a+b)

    Answer: (D) (a+b)abb(a+b)

    Explanation

    The official final key selects (a+b)*abb(a+b)*, i.e. all strings over {a,b} containing abb as a substring. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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95. Question 95

    For the automaton described in the comprehension passage, which grammar represents the language accepted by the machine?

    1. AS → AabbB, A → aA | ε, B → bB | ε
    2. BS → abbA, A → aA | ε | bA
    3. CS → AabbA, A → aA | bA | ε
    4. DS → Aabb, A → aA | bA | ε

    Answer: (C) S → AabbA, A → aA | bA | ε

    Explanation

    Option C generates all strings over {a,b} that contain abb as a substring, matching the regular expression selected for the same passage. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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96. Question 96

    Consider the following processes, with arrival and burst times in milliseconds. What is the average waiting time using non-preemptive shortest-job-first scheduling?

    Process	Arrival time	Burst time
    P₁	0	5
    P₂	2	3
    P₃	2	2
    P₄	5	3
    P₅	6	1

    1. A3.0 ms
    2. B2.1 ms
    3. C4.6 ms
    4. D3.2 ms

    Answer: (D) 3.2 ms

    Explanation

    The official final key selects 3.2 ms. The result is obtained by scheduling the shortest available process whenever the processor becomes free and averaging the resulting waiting times. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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97. Question 97

    Calculate the average response time with non-preemptive priority scheduling. Assume all processes arrive at time 0 and lower numbers mean higher priority.

    Process	Burst time	Priority
    P₁	5	3
    P₂	3	1
    P₃	2	5
    P₄	3	4
    P₅	1	2

    1. A5.6 ms
    2. B5.2 ms
    3. C4.7 ms
    4. D3.8 ms

    Answer: (A) 5.6 ms

    Explanation

    The official final key selects 5.6 ms. Order the ready processes by ascending priority number, calculate each start time (response time), and average them. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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98. Question 98

    For the given arrival-time and burst-time process set, find the average weighted turnaround time using Highest Response Ratio Next (HRN).

    Process	Arrival time	Burst time
    P₁	0	5
    P₂	2	3
    P₃	2	2
    P₄	5	3
    P₅	6	1

    1. A3.2 ms
    2. B2.834 ms
    3. C1.632 ms
    4. D6.721 ms

    Answer: (B) 2.834 ms

    Explanation

    The official final key selects 2.834 ms. HRN chooses the process with the largest (waiting time + service time) / service time ratio at each decision point, then averages turnaround time divided by burst time.

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99. Question 99

    When shortest-job-first scheduling causes a process to face partial starvation and wait longer to execute, which algorithm addresses this problem?

    1. ARound Robin
    2. BPriority
    3. CHighest Response Ratio Next
    4. DLeast Completed Next

    Answer: (A) Round Robin

    Explanation

    Round Robin gives every ready process a time quantum, preventing the indefinite postponement that can occur under shortest-job-first scheduling. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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100. Question 100

     For the given arrival-time and burst-time process set, what is the average turnaround time using first-come, first-served scheduling?

     Process	Arrival time	Burst time
     P₁	0	5
     P₂	2	3
     P₃	2	2
     P₄	5	3
     P₅	6	1

     1. A5.3 ms
     2. B6.4 ms
     3. C7.0 ms
     4. D8.2 ms

     Answer: (C) 7.0 ms

     Explanation

     The official final key selects 7.0 ms. FCFS executes processes in arrival order; turnaround time is completion time minus arrival time, and the required value is their average. The correct option follows from the stated definition or calculation; the other options omit a necessary condition or describe a different concept.

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